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100 High-Yield Orthopedic MCQs: Shoulder & Elbow | Mock Exam 251

Test your knowledge with 100 high-yield orthopedic MCQs on the shoulder and elbow. Take our interactive mock exam to boost your test scores today!

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Updated: Apr 2026
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This page offers 100 high-yield orthopedic surgery MCQs, Mock Exam Set 251. It's an essential resource for surgeons preparing for ABOS, OITE, and FRCS board exams. Test your knowledge, reinforce key concepts, and master your orthopedic board review with these practice questions.

Illustration of arm in degrees - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

100 High-Yield Orthopedic MCQs: Shoulder & Elbow | Mock Exam 251

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?





Explanation

In a collision athlete with significant glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, a Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard to restore anterior stability. Arthroscopic soft tissue repairs have an unacceptably high failure rate in this demographic.

Question 2

A 72-year-old woman is 3 years status post a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs show inferior scapular notching extending past the inferior glenoid screw. Which surgical factor most effectively minimizes the risk of this complication?





Explanation

Scapular notching is a frequent complication of reverse TSA caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral cup against the scapular neck. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere baseplate significantly reduce this risk.

Question 3

A 45-year-old falls onto an outstretched hand resulting in a terrible triad injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the generally recommended sequence of repair?





Explanation

The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) is repairing deep to superficial. This involves addressing the coronoid first, then the radial head (fixation or replacement), and finally the LCL complex.

Question 4

In evaluating a displaced proximal humerus fracture in an elderly patient, which radiographic parameter is the strongest predictor of humeral head ischemia and potential avascular necrosis?





Explanation

Disruption of the medial calcar hinge, specifically a metaphyseal head extension of less than 8 mm, is a critical predictor of humeral head ischemia. Other Hertel criteria for ischemia include disruption of the medial hinge and an anatomic neck fracture pattern.

Question 5

Following a two-incision surgical repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture, the patient reports inability to extend the fingers and thumb, with radial deviation during wrist extension. Which nerve was most likely injured?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during the two-incision technique for distal biceps repair if the forearm is not kept in pronation during posterolateral exposure. PIN palsy presents with weakness in finger and thumb extension, and radial deviation on wrist extension due to extensor carpi ulnaris weakness.

Question 6

A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Exam reveals isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Supraspinatus strength is normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?





Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation and infraspinatus atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 7

A 26-year-old mechanic sustains a traction injury to his neck and shoulder. He demonstrates medial scapular winging that worsens when pushing against a wall. Which nerve is injured and which muscle is affected?





Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is typically due to spinal accessory nerve injury affecting the trapezius.

Question 8

A 32-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Exam reveals an asymmetrical axillary fold. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major. Which anatomical structure is most commonly injured in this mechanism?





Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur during eccentric loading and almost exclusively involve avulsion of the sternal head at the humeral insertion. The sternal head tendon lies posterior to the clavicular head tendon at the insertion site.

Question 9

A 40-year-old man sustains a closed spiral fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft (Holstein-Lewis fracture) with an intact radial nerve on initial exam. Following closed reduction and splinting, he develops a complete radial nerve palsy. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

A secondary radial nerve palsy that develops after closed reduction of a humeral shaft fracture is an absolute indication for immediate surgical exploration. The nerve may be entrapped in the fracture site during the reduction maneuver.

Question 10

A 75-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis undergoes a total elbow arthroplasty (TEA) for a comminuted distal humerus fracture. Postoperatively, she is counseled on permanent activity restrictions. What is the recommended lifelong weight-lifting restriction for this patient?





Explanation

Patients with total elbow arthroplasty are generally restricted to lifting no more than 5 pounds repetitively, and 10 to 15 pounds for a single event. This restriction is critical to prevent aseptic loosening and bushing wear, which are common failure modes in TEA.

Question 11

A 68-year-old male presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder. MRI shows a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. Which of the following MRI findings is the strongest predictor of an irreparable tear?





Explanation

A positive tangent sign (the supraspinatus muscle belly falls below a line from the superior border of the scapular spine to the superior coracoid) indicates severe muscle atrophy. This, along with Goutallier stage 3 or 4 fatty infiltration, is a strong predictor of an irreparable rotator cuff tear.

Question 12

A 35-year-old male develops severe heterotopic ossification (HO) and elbow stiffness 6 months following operative fixation of a distal humerus fracture. He has normal nerve function. What is the optimal timing for surgical excision of the HO?





Explanation

Surgical excision of heterotopic ossification around the elbow should be performed when the bone is metabolically quiet and radiographically mature. This is indicated by distinct trabecular margins on X-ray and a normalization of serum alkaline phosphatase.

Question 13

A 62-year-old male with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis presents for shoulder arthroplasty. CT imaging demonstrates a Walch B2 glenoid with 20 degrees of retroversion. What is the primary concern if an uncorrected anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty is performed?





Explanation

A Walch B2 glenoid features biconcavity and posterior wear with excessive retroversion. If an anatomic TSA is placed without correcting the retroversion, there is a high risk of posterior subluxation and eccentric loading, leading to early glenoid component loosening.

Question 14

A 28-year-old cyclist sustains a type IIB distal clavicle fracture according to the Neer classification. What is the primary reason this fracture pattern is associated with a high rate of nonunion with conservative management?





Explanation

In a Neer Type IIB distal clavicle fracture, the CC ligaments remain attached to the distal fragment while the proximal fragment is detached and pulled superiorly by the trapezius. This significant displacement and lack of ligamentous restraint lead to a high nonunion rate.

Question 15

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using a palmaris longus autograft (Tommy John surgery). The sublime tubercle is the anatomical insertion point for which band of the UCL?





Explanation

The anterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It originates on the anteroinferior medial epicondyle and inserts distally on the sublime tubercle of the proximal ulna.

Question 16

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?





Explanation

For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, transferring the lesser tuberosity with the subscapularis into the defect (modified McLaughlin procedure) is recommended to restore stability. Defects >40% typically require arthroplasty.

Question 17

Which of the following baseplate and glenosphere configurations in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is most effective at minimizing the risk of scapular notching?





Explanation

Scapular notching is a frequent complication caused by impingement of the humeral component on the scapular neck. Placing the baseplate with inferior tilt and allowing the glenosphere to overhang inferiorly helps clear the scapular neck during arm adduction.

Question 18

A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He demonstrates severe shoulder weakness and an inability to actively externally rotate his arm, with a positive hornblower sign. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?





Explanation

A lower trapezius tendon transfer is specifically indicated to restore active external rotation in massive posterosuperior tears. Latissimus dorsi transfers are less effective for restoring external rotation when teres minor function is lost.

Question 19

In the surgical management of a terrible triad injury of the elbow, which of the following is the generally recommended sequence of repair to restore stability?





Explanation

The standard protocol for a terrible triad injury is to repair deep to superficial, starting anteriorly. The sequence is coronoid fixation, followed by radial head fixation or replacement, and finally lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair to restore the lateral tension band.

Question 20

According to the Hertel criteria, which combination of radiographic findings in a proximal humerus fracture is the strongest predictor for the development of avascular necrosis?





Explanation

Hertel identified that a calcar length of less than 8 mm attached to the articular segment, a disrupted medial hinge, and an anatomical neck fracture are the most reliable predictors of ischemia. This combination yields a 97% positive predictive value for AVN.

Question 21

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of the infraspinatus muscle and vague posterior shoulder pain. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?





Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a posterior labral tear with a paralabral cyst, leads to isolated denervation of the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 22

A 40-year-old woman develops lateral winging of the scapula and a drooping shoulder three weeks after a posterior triangle neck lymph node biopsy. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is the preferred definitive tendon transfer if nonoperative management fails?





Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve results in trapezius palsy, causing lateral scapular winging. If conservative management fails after 1 year, the Eden-Lange procedure (transfer of levator scapulae and rhomboids) is indicated to stabilize the scapula.

Question 23

A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and paresthesia along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured?





Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior distal biceps repair due to its proximity to the surgical field. The PIN is more at risk during a two-incision approach.

Question 24

A 32-year-old sustains a highly comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture along with severe wrist pain and distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability. What is the most appropriate management strategy?





Explanation

This patient has an Essex-Lopresti lesion consisting of a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. Management requires radial head arthroplasty to restore longitudinal stability and pinning of the DRUJ in supination to allow the IOM to heal.

Question 25

Which glenosphere modification minimizes the risk of scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?





Explanation

Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere move the center of rotation distally. This prevents mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the inferior scapular neck during adduction.

Question 26

In the surgical management of a terrible triad injury of the elbow, what is the most widely accepted sequential order of repair?





Explanation

Standard protocol addresses deep to superficial structures from inside-out. The anterior column (coronoid) is fixed first, followed by the lateral column (radial head), and finally the lateral collateral ligament complex.

Question 27

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during coracoid osteotomy and mobilization?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. It is highly susceptible to traction injury during vigorous medial retraction and coracoid mobilization.

Question 28

Which of the following complications is significantly more common following a two-incision technique for distal biceps tendon repair compared to a single anterior incision?





Explanation

While the two-incision technique decreases the risk of lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve injury, it traverses the interosseous membrane. This carries a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and potentially debilitating proximal radioulnar synostosis.

Question 29

According to Hertel's criteria, which of the following radiographic findings is the most reliable predictor of humeral head ischemia in a proximal humerus fracture?





Explanation

A medial metaphyseal head extension (calcar hinge) of less than 8 mm highly predicts humeral head ischemia. This risk is further compounded when combined with an anatomical neck fracture and a disrupted medial hinge.

Question 30

A 45-year-old female undergoes radial head replacement for a comminuted fracture. Postoperatively, she exhibits restricted elbow flexion and lateral elbow pain. If overstuffing of the radiocapitellar joint is present, what associated radiographic finding is most likely?





Explanation

Overstuffing the radial head acts as a cam, over-tensioning the lateral structures and shifting the ulna. This leads to capitellar wear, restricted flexion, and asymmetric medial joint space gapping on AP radiographs.

Question 31

During reconstruction of chronic acromioclavicular joint instability, anatomic placement of the coracoclavicular ligament grafts is critical. What are the average distances of the conoid and trapezoid insertions from the distal end of the clavicle?





Explanation

The conoid ligament inserts more medially and posteriorly, averaging 4.5 cm from the distal clavicle. The trapezoid inserts more laterally and anteriorly, averaging 3.0 cm from the distal end.

Question 32

Which structure forms the roof of the cubital tunnel and is implicated as the primary site of ulnar nerve compression in most cases of cubital tunnel syndrome?





Explanation

Osborne's ligament (the cubital tunnel retinaculum) bridges the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris. It forms the roof of the cubital tunnel and is the most common site of ulnar nerve compression at the elbow.

Question 33

A 32-year-old female presents with shoulder weakness and lateral scapular winging 4 weeks after an excisional lymph node biopsy in the posterior cervical triangle. Which nerve is most likely injured, and which muscle is denervated?





Explanation

Iatrogenic injury to the spinal accessory nerve in the posterior triangle denervates the trapezius. This results in lateral winging of the scapula, characterized by lateral translation and downward rotation of the acromion.

Question 34

When treating a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture (AO/OTA 13-C3) with parallel locked plating, which biomechanical principle is essential for construct stability?





Explanation

The parallel plating technique relies on creating a robust arch that maximizes distal fixation. This requires long, interdigitating screws that pass from plate to plate to structurally tie the medial and lateral columns together.

Question 35

A 72-year-old male who underwent a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) 6 months ago presents with new-onset lateral shoulder pain. Radiographs reveal a Levy Type II fracture at the base of the acromion. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

Acromial stress fractures are a known complication of RTSA due to increased deltoid tension. Levy Type II fractures (located posterior to the acromioclavicular joint) are typically managed non-operatively with sling immobilization, although surgery may be considered for severe displacement or symptomatic nonunion.

Question 36

A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is at highest risk during the Latarjet procedure due to its proximity to the coracoid process and conjoint tendon. Injury results in weakness of the biceps and brachialis muscles, along with sensory loss in the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve distribution.

Question 37

A 45-year-old female sustains an elbow dislocation, a Regan-Morrey Type II coronoid fracture, and a Mason Type III radial head fracture. During the surgical reconstruction of this "terrible triad" injury, which structure is typically repaired last to restore stability?





Explanation

The standard surgical algorithm for an elbow terrible triad is fixing the coronoid first, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally repairing the LUCL. The MCL is generally only repaired if the elbow remains grossly unstable in extension after the lateral and anterior structures are stabilized.

Question 38

In a 4-part proximal humerus fracture, which single radiographic factor is most strongly associated with subsequent avascular necrosis of the humeral head according to Hertel's criteria?





Explanation

According to Hertel et al., a metaphyseal calcar segment of less than 8 mm attached to the articular fragment is a highly reliable predictor of humeral head ischemia. A disrupted medial hinge (>2 mm) is another independent and strong predictor of avascular necrosis.

Question 39

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?





Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation. A cyst at the suprascapular notch would compress the nerve more proximally, causing weakness in both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 40

A 30-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. For an anatomic repair, where should the avulsed tendon be reattached?





Explanation

The patient has a pectoralis major tendon rupture, which classically occurs during heavy bench pressing. Anatomic repair of full-thickness ruptures involves reattaching the tendon to its native footprint on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove to restore adduction and internal rotation strength.

Question 41

A 38-year-old female sustains a Dubberley Type 3B capitellum fracture (involving the capitellum and trochlea with posterior condylar comminution). What surgical approach provides the most optimal exposure for fixation of the posterior comminution?





Explanation

Dubberley Type 3B fractures involve both the capitellum and trochlea, accompanied by posterior condylar comminution. A posterior midline approach with an olecranon osteotomy provides the necessary visualization for addressing the posterior articular comminution and restoring the joint surface.

Question 42

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic pseudoparalysis of the shoulder due to a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and preserved deltoid function. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore active external rotation and forward elevation?





Explanation

A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears and an intact subscapularis. It helps restore active external rotation and forward elevation by acting as a depressor of the humeral head.

Question 43

During an anterior single-incision repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture using cortical button fixation, the patient develops postoperative weakness in thumb and finger extension, but normal, radially deviated wrist extension. Which nerve was likely injured?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during single-incision distal biceps repairs if the drill plunges too far through the posterior radial cortex. PIN injury causes weakness in thumb and digit extension with preserved radial wrist extension, as the ECRL is innervated proximal to the PIN.

Question 44

A 19-year-old male sustains a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation during a rugby match. He complains of mild dysphagia and shortness of breath. After confirming the diagnosis with a CT scan, what is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations can compress critical mediastinal structures, presenting a life-threatening emergency. Closed reduction should be performed in the operating room under general anesthesia with a cardiothoracic surgeon available due to the high risk of catastrophic vascular injury.

Question 45

A 45-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of shoulder pain and stiffness. Which of the following best describes the typical natural history of her condition?





Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis typically follows a protracted, self-limiting course progressing through freezing, frozen, and thawing phases. The entire process generally lasts 1 to 3 years, although diabetic patients may experience a more prolonged course with a higher risk of residual stiffness.

Question 46

A 65-year-old female with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis has a Walch B2 glenoid with 25 degrees of retroversion and posterior humeral head subluxation. What is the most reliable surgical option to correct the deformity and minimize early glenoid component loosening?





Explanation

In older patients with a Walch B2 glenoid and severe retroversion (>20-25 degrees) or significant posterior subluxation, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is preferred. Attempting to correct severe retroversion with asymmetric reaming removes critical subchondral bone, leading to early glenoid component failure.

Question 47

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posteromedial elbow pain and a loss of throwing velocity. Exam reveals a flexion contracture of 10 degrees and pain with forced passive elbow extension. A moving valgus stress test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Valgus extension overload (VEO) syndrome results from repetitive impingement of the olecranon in the olecranon fossa during the deceleration phase of throwing. It is characterized by posteromedial pain, flexion contractures, and osteophyte formation, often with an intact ulnar collateral ligament.

Question 48

A 40-year-old male presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain. MRI shows a subscapularis tear and medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps tendon. Which anatomic structure must be compromised for the biceps tendon to subluxate medially?





Explanation

The biceps pulley stabilizes the long head of the biceps tendon in the bicipital groove. It is composed of the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL), the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), and the superior fibers of the subscapularis tendon.

Question 49

Following severe elbow trauma, a patient develops severe stiffness. Radiographs confirm extensive anterior heterotopic ossification (HO). When planning surgical excision of the HO, what is the most appropriate timing for the intervention?





Explanation

Current evidence suggests that excision of heterotopic ossification around the elbow can be safely performed when radiographic margins are well-corticated and the patient's range of motion has plateaued (typically 4-6 months). Waiting 18 months or for normal alkaline phosphatase is no longer considered strictly necessary.

Question 50

A 72-year-old female presents with progressive shoulder pain 2 years after a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal inferior scapular notching past the inferior screw (Sirveaux grade 3). What design factor or surgical technique most significantly reduces the risk of this complication?





Explanation

Inferior translation and overhang of the glenosphere relative to the inferior glenoid rim minimizes scapular notching. Lateralization also decreases notching, whereas medialization and superior placement significantly increase the risk.

Question 51

A 45-year-old male sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. Intraoperatively, after fixing the coronoid and replacing the radial head, the elbow remains unstable in extension. What is the next most appropriate step in the standard surgical algorithm?





Explanation

The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad is coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, followed immediately by LUCL repair. If the elbow remains unstable after LUCL repair, only then is the medial collateral ligament repaired or a hinged external fixator applied.

Question 52

A 32-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the pectoralis major tendon. Which segment of the muscle is most commonly injured in this mechanism?





Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur during eccentric contraction, most commonly involving the sternal head at the humeral insertion. The sternal head fibers insert deep and proximal to the clavicular fibers, placing them at maximal stretch during the bottom phase of the bench press.

Question 53

A 45-year-old male undergoes surgical repair of a chronic distal biceps rupture using a two-incision technique. Postoperatively, he demonstrates weakness in wrist extension and finger extension, but normal triceps strength. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during distal biceps repair, especially in a two-incision technique if the forearm is not kept fully pronated during the posterolateral exposure. The PIN innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist and digits.

Question 54

A 55-year-old diabetic female presents with 6 months of severe, progressive global shoulder stiffness. She lacks both active and passive range of motion, particularly in external rotation. Which histological finding is most characteristic of the affected tissue in this condition?





Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by fibroblastic proliferation, thickening of the joint capsule, and an increase in type III collagen. This leads to contracture of the coracohumeral ligament and rotator interval, severely limiting external rotation.

Question 55

A 65-year-old male with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis presents with a Walch B2 glenoid. What is the defining characteristic of a Walch B2 glenoid?





Explanation

A Walch B2 glenoid is defined by a biconcave shape with posterior subluxation of the humeral head and posterior wear. It is a critical finding as it increases the risk of glenoid component loosening if not addressed during total shoulder arthroplasty.

Question 56

A 28-year-old male presents with severe elbow stiffness 6 months after internal fixation of a distal humerus fracture. Radiographs show mature heterotopic ossification (HO) blocking flexion. What is the optimal surgical timing and prophylaxis strategy for HO excision?





Explanation

Surgical excision of HO is classically indicated once the bone is radiographically mature and alkaline phosphatase levels normalize. Postoperative prophylaxis with indomethacin or a single dose of radiation is highly effective at preventing recurrence.

Question 57

In the evaluation of chronic massive rotator cuff tears, the Goutallier classification is used to assess fatty infiltration on CT or MRI. What does Goutallier stage 3 signify?





Explanation

The Goutallier classification assesses fatty infiltration: Stage 1 is some fatty streaks, Stage 2 is more muscle than fat, and Stage 3 is equal amounts of fat and muscle. Stages 3 and 4 (more fat than muscle) are associated with poor functional outcomes and high retear rates after repair.

Question 58

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague, deep, posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding is most expected?





Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness. Entrapment further proximal at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 59

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention given his age and activity level?





Explanation

For patients older than 40 with symptomatic Type II SLAP tears, biceps tenodesis is highly favored over SLAP repair due to a significantly lower risk of postoperative stiffness and a higher rate of return to sport. SLAP repair is generally reserved for younger, overhead athletes.

Question 60

A 68-year-old female sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture. She demonstrates isolated weakness of the deltoid and decreased sensation over the lateral shoulder. Which structural pathway does the injured nerve traverse to innervate these areas?





Explanation

The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder. It travels through the quadrangular space, which is bounded by the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 61

A 40-year-old male golfer complains of chronic medial elbow pain exacerbated by wrist flexion and forearm pronation. He is scheduled for surgical debridement. The diseased tissue targeted for release originates primarily from which structure?





Explanation

Medial epicondylitis primarily involves tendinosis of the pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis origins at the medial epicondyle. Surgical management involves debridement of this pathologic tissue.

Question 62

During an arthroscopic anterior shoulder stabilization for recurrent instability, the surgeon notes an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion. How does this lesion uniquely differ from a classic Bankart lesion?





Explanation

An ALPSA lesion is characterized by the labrum and IGHL complex being stripped away from the glenoid but remaining attached to an intact medial periosteal sleeve. This tissue often heals in a medially displaced position, contrasting with a classic Bankart where the periosteum is torn.

Question 63

A 52-year-old female undergoes an anterior subcutaneous transposition of the ulnar nerve for severe cubital tunnel syndrome. During the proximal dissection, a fascial band located roughly 8 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle must be meticulously released to prevent kinking of the transposed nerve. What is this structure called?





Explanation

The Arcade of Struthers is a fascial band bridging the medial intermuscular septum to the medial head of the triceps, located about 8 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. It is a critical potential site of ulnar nerve compression that must be released during an anterior transposition.

Question 64

A 65-year-old man presents 6 weeks after an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty complaining of sudden anterior shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he has passively increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side and increased lift-off test lag. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Subscapularis failure is a known complication of anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty, typically presenting with increased passive external rotation and weakness in internal rotation. Early diagnosis and repair are recommended to prevent anterior instability.

Question 65

A 35-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand, sustaining a varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI) injury of the elbow. Which of the following anatomic structures are characteristically injured in this specific pattern?





Explanation

VPMRI results from a varus force and axial load, leading to a fracture of the anteromedial facet of the coronoid and disruption of the LCL. Failure to recognize and fix the anteromedial facet leads to rapid post-traumatic arthrosis and joint subluxation.

Question 66

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. MRI reveals an isolated Type II Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior (SLAP) tear. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?





Explanation

In patients over 35-40 years old, biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and higher satisfaction rates compared to SLAP repair. SLAP repair in this age group has a higher rate of postoperative stiffness and clinical failure.

Question 67

A 28-year-old cyclist sustains a midshaft clavicle fracture. Which of the following radiographic findings is considered a relative indication for open reduction and internal fixation to prevent symptomatic nonunion and poor functional outcome?





Explanation

Shortening greater than 2 cm, 100% displacement, and severe comminution (Z-deformity) in midshaft clavicle fractures are associated with a higher risk of nonunion and poor functional outcomes when managed nonoperatively.

Question 68

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with weakness in external rotation, but normal strength in forward elevation and abduction. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the distal branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness and atrophy without affecting the supraspinatus.

Question 69

A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has significant weakness in external rotation, a positive hornblower's sign, but intact forward elevation and a functional subscapularis. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?





Explanation

The lower trapezius transfer restores external rotation and has a line of pull that closely mimics the infraspinatus. It is highly effective for patients with irreparable posterosuperior tears, an intact subscapularis, and isolated external rotation deficits.

Question 70

A 62-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture. Which of the following radiographic criteria is the most reliable predictor of subsequent avascular necrosis (AVN) of the humeral head?





Explanation

Disruption of the medial hinge (>2 mm), short calcar length (<8 mm), and anatomic neck fracture lines are the strongest predictors of humeral head ischemia and subsequent AVN following proximal humerus fractures.

Question 71

Following a single-incision anterior repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture using a cortical button, the patient complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?





Explanation

The LABCN is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision distal biceps repair. This is due to its anatomic proximity to the surgical field and the cephalic vein within the subcutaneous tissues.

Question 72

A 74-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy. How does the biomechanical design of the RTSA primarily improve her active shoulder elevation?





Explanation

RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation of the shoulder joint. This significantly recruits more deltoid fibers and increases the deltoid's moment arm, allowing it to compensate for the absent rotator cuff.

Question 73

A 30-year-old professional baseball pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using a palmaris longus autograft. What is the most frequently reported complication following this procedure?





Explanation

Ulnar neuropathy is the most common complication following UCL reconstruction (Tommy John surgery), occurring in up to 10-15% of cases. Careful handling and potential transposition of the nerve can mitigate this risk.

Question 74

A 40-year-old weightlifter presents with a sudden 'pop' and pain in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair is pursued, to which anatomic footprint should the torn tendon be reattached?





Explanation

The pectoralis major inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Tears most commonly occur at the sternal head insertion during eccentric contraction, and anatomic repair to this footprint maximizes strength return.

Question 75

A 34-year-old man suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated Hill-Sachs lesion. On preoperative MRI, the glenoid track is calculated. The lesion is determined to be "off-track." What are the biomechanical implications of this finding?





Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track, meaning it will engage the anterior glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation. This requires addressing the bipolar bone loss via a Latarjet procedure or remplissage.

Question 76

A 70-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis presents with an acute, highly comminuted, osteopenic distal humerus fracture. A total elbow arthroplasty (TEA) is planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for using an unlinked (resurfacing) TEA implant?





Explanation

Unlinked (resurfacing) total elbow arthroplasty relies heavily on the soft tissue envelope for joint stability. Therefore, incompetent collateral ligaments or significant bone loss precluding ligament repair are absolute contraindications.

Question 77

A 50-year-old man presents with persistent elbow pain and lateral-sided snapping. He previously underwent surgery for lateral epicondylitis involving an aggressive release of the common extensor origin. Examination shows varus instability when the elbow is tested in supination. What structure has been iatrogenically compromised?





Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI). Overly aggressive surgical debridement of the common extensor origin for tennis elbow can iatrogenically injure the underlying LUCL.

Question 78

A 24-year-old man sustains a Grade V acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. During anatomic coracoclavicular (CC) ligament reconstruction, where should the conoid and trapezoid bone tunnels be sequentially placed on the clavicle relative to the distal end?





Explanation

The anatomic insertion of the conoid ligament is approximately 4.5 cm medial to the distal clavicle, and the trapezoid ligament is approximately 3.0 cm medial. Accurate tunnel placement is critical for restoring normal AC joint biomechanics.

Question 79

A 45-year-old mechanic sustains a highly comminuted Mason Type III radial head fracture and an Essex-Lopresti injury. The radial head is deemed unsalvageable. What is the most appropriate management of the radial head?





Explanation

In an Essex-Lopresti injury, there is longitudinal radioulnar instability due to interosseous membrane disruption. Radial head excision alone leads to proximal radial migration; therefore, a rigid metallic radial head arthroplasty is required to maintain longitudinal stability.

Question 80

A 40-year-old weightlifter undergoes a single-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Postoperatively, he is unable to extend his thumb and fingers at the MCP joints, but wrist extension is preserved with radial deviation. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?





Explanation

Single-incision distal biceps repairs risk injury to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). PIN palsy presents with loss of finger and thumb extension but preserved wrist extension, often with radial deviation due to an intact ECRL supplied by the radial nerve proper.

Question 81

A 35-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?





Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20-40% of the articular surface, segmental osteochondral allograft reconstruction provides structural support and restores articular congruity. Lesser tuberosity transfer (modified McLaughlin) is typically reserved for defects between 10-20%.

Question 82

A 28-year-old cyclist sustains a Grade V acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. During surgical reconstruction, anatomical restoration of the coracoclavicular ligaments is planned. Which of the following accurately describes the native anatomy of these ligaments?





Explanation

The coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments consist of the conoid and trapezoid. The conoid is situated medial and posterior to the trapezoid and is the primary restraint to superior translation of the clavicle.

Question 83

Following surgical treatment of a terrible triad injury of the elbow involving radial head replacement, LCL repair, and coronoid fixation, the elbow remains persistently unstable in extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

In terrible triad injuries, if the elbow remains unstable after addressing the coronoid, radial head, and lateral collateral ligament, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) should be repaired to restore coronal stability. A hinged external fixator is reserved for residual instability despite MCL repair.

Question 84

A 29-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely present?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch by a cyst results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.

Question 85

When performing open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture using a locking plate, what is the most important technical factor to prevent varus collapse?





Explanation

Placement of an inferomedial (calcar) screw is critical in proximal humerus locking plate fixation to provide medial column support. This significantly reduces the risk of varus collapse and hardware failure.

Question 86

A 42-year-old falls from a ladder, sustaining a comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture. Wrist pain is also noted, and distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability is confirmed. Which of the following is strictly contraindicated in this patient's management?





Explanation

This patient has an Essex-Lopresti injury, characterized by a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. Radial head excision alone is strictly contraindicated as it removes the primary restraint to proximal radial migration, leading to severe ulnocarpal impaction.

Question 87

A 34-year-old woman presents with a complex coronal shear fracture of the capitellum with extensive posterior comminution extending into the trochlea (Dubberley Type 3B). Which surgical approach provides the most optimal visualization for reduction and fixation of this articular extension?





Explanation

Dubberley Type 3B fractures involve both the capitellum and trochlea with posterior comminution. A posterior midline approach with an olecranon osteotomy provides the necessary wide exposure to visualize the entire distal articular surface and address posterior defects.

Question 88

A 68-year-old male with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis of the shoulder is scheduled for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. To optimize deltoid function and tension, how does the classic Grammont reverse shoulder design biomechanically alter the center of rotation?





Explanation

The classic reverse total shoulder arthroplasty design shifts the center of rotation medially and inferiorly. This dramatically increases the deltoid lever arm and resting tension, allowing it to compensate for the absent rotator cuff.

Question 89

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopy reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What is the primary biomechanical mechanism causing this specific injury in throwing athletes?





Explanation

In overhead athletes, Type II SLAP tears are predominantly caused by the peel-back mechanism. During the late cocking phase of throwing (maximal abduction and external rotation), the biceps vector shifts posteriorly, peeling the superior labrum off the glenoid.

Question 90

A 65-year-old rheumatoid arthritis patient undergoes a semiconstrained linked total elbow arthroplasty. Postoperatively, what is the most common long-term complication leading to revision surgery in this patient population?





Explanation

Aseptic loosening is the most common long-term complication and the leading cause of revision in linked total elbow arthroplasty. Polyethylene bushing wear and subsequent osteolysis contribute significantly to this failure mode.

Question 91

A 32-year-old male feels a "pop" in his anterior chest while bench pressing. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the sternoclavicular head of the pectoralis major tendon. Where is the anatomical insertion site of this torn tendon head on the humerus relative to the clavicular head?





Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon twists 180 degrees before inserting on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. This rotation causes the sternoclavicular head to insert deep (posterior) and distal to the clavicular head.

Question 92

A 12-year-old gymnast sustains an elbow dislocation that is successfully reduced in the emergency department. Post-reduction radiographs show a displaced medial epicondyle fracture. Which of the following is an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation?





Explanation

Entrapment of the medial epicondyle within the ulnohumeral joint is an absolute indication for operative intervention to prevent joint destruction and restore range of motion. Displacement >5 mm and athletic demands are considered relative indications.

Question 93

A 30-year-old overhead laborer presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI shows isolated fatty infiltration and atrophy of the teres minor. Which vascular structure is most likely being compressed alongside the affected nerve?





Explanation

The patient has Quadrilateral Space Syndrome, characterized by compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery. This compression leads to isolated teres minor atrophy and sensory loss over the lateral deltoid.

Question 94

A 14-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with dominant shoulder pain during throwing. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the proximal humeral physis. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

Little Leaguer's shoulder is a stress fracture (epiphysiolysis) of the proximal humeral physis caused by repetitive rotational torque. The standard of care is complete rest from throwing for approximately 3 months until symptoms resolve, followed by a gradual return.

Question 95

An active 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair with a concomitant subpectoral biceps tenodesis. Compared to a biceps tenotomy, what is the primary biomechanical and clinical advantage of tenodesis?





Explanation

Biceps tenodesis maintains the length-tension relationship of the biceps muscle, which preserves forearm supination strength and prevents the cosmetic Popeye deformity often seen after tenotomy. Both procedures offer similar pain relief.

Question 96

A 28-year-old sustains a transverse, non-comminuted olecranon fracture and undergoes tension band wiring. Six months later, the fracture has healed but the patient complains of posterior elbow pain directly over the hardware. What is the most likely cause of this complication?





Explanation

Symptomatic hardware is the most common complication following tension band wiring of olecranon fractures, occurring in up to 80% of patients. It is typically caused by the K-wires backing out proximally and irritating the local subcutaneous tissues and bursa.

None

Detailed Chapters & Topics

Dive deeper into specialized chapters regarding 1orthopedic-mcqs-ob-20-shoulder-and-elbow

42 Chapters
01
Chapter 1 108 min

AAOS & ABOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 1): Shoulder Instability, Rotator Cuff, Proximal Humerus Fractures | 2026 Board Review

Ace your 2026 AAOS & ABOS exams with our interactive orthopedic MCQs. Test your knowledge on shoulder instability, rota…

02
Chapter 2 101 min

AAOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 1): AS Spine & Shoulder Nerve Palsy | 2026 Board Review

Prepare for the 2026 AAOS Orthopedic Board Review with our interactive MCQ set. Test your clinical knowledge on AS spin…

03
Chapter 3 101 min

AAOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 1): Pediatric Elbow & Forearm Trauma | 2026 Board Review

Ace the 2026 AAOS board exam with our interactive orthopedic MCQs. Test your knowledge on pediatric elbow and forearm t…

04
Chapter 4 57 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1)

Ace your exams with Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs. Practice Part 1 of our interactive board review questions and answer…

05
Chapter 5 58 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 2)

Ace your 2026 exams with Part 2 of our Orthopedic Shoulder MCQs. Test your knowledge with interactive board review ques…

06
Chapter 6 60 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 3)

Prepare for your 2026 exams with Part 3 of our Orthopedic Shoulder MCQs. Test your knowledge with interactive board rev…

07
Chapter 7 64 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 4)

Master your 2026 exams with Part 4 of our Orthopedic Shoulder Board Review. Practice with interactive MCQs, questions, …

08
Chapter 8 64 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1)

Ace the 2026 Orthopedic Shoulder exam with our interactive board review MCQs. Practice with expert questions and answer…

09
Chapter 9 62 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 2)

Master your 2026 exams with Part 2 of our Orthopedic Shoulder MCQs. Practice essential board review questions, check an…

10
Chapter 10 64 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 3)

Ace your exams with Part 3 of our Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs. Test your knowledge with interactive board review ques…

11
Chapter 11 65 min

Orthopedic Shoulder 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 4)

Ace your 2026 Orthopedic Board exams with Part 4 of our interactive Shoulder MCQs. Test your knowledge with expert ques…

12
Chapter 12 54 min

Orthopedic Anatomy MCQs (Set 1): Shoulder, Knee, Spine | AAOS & ABOS Exam Prep

Master orthopedic anatomy with our interactive MCQ set covering the shoulder, knee, and spine. Perfect for AAOS and ABO…

13
Chapter 13 63 min

Shoulder Orthopedic MCQs (Set 1): Rotator Cuff & Instability | AAOS & ABOS Board Review

Master AAOS & ABOS exams with practice Shoulder MCQs (Set 1). Covers rotator cuff injuries, glenohumeral instability, i…

14
Chapter 14 59 min

ABOS Shoulder MCQs (Set 2): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Fractures | Board Review

Ace your ABOS shoulder board review with Set 2 MCQs. Test your knowledge of rotator cuff tears, instability, and fractu…

15
Chapter 15 64 min

Shoulder Orthopedics MCQs (Set 3): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Proximal Humerus | ABOS Board Review

Master your ABOS board review with our interactive Shoulder Orthopedics MCQs. Test your knowledge on rotator cuff, inst…

16
Chapter 16 64 min

AAOS Shoulder MCQs (Set 4): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Fractures | Board Review

Master your orthopedics board review with AAOS Shoulder MCQs Set 4. Test your knowledge on rotator cuff injuries, insta…

17
Chapter 17 66 min

AAOS & ABOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 1): Knee, Shoulder & Ankle Injuries | Board Review

Ace your orthopaedic board exams with our interactive AAOS & ABOS Sports Medicine MCQs. Test your knowledge on knee, sh…

18
Chapter 18 59 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 2): Knee & Shoulder Injuries | ABOS Board Review

Ace your ABOS board review with our interactive AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs. Test your knowledge of knee and shoulder inj…

19
Chapter 19 50 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 3): Knee & Shoulder Ligament Trauma | OITE & ABOS Review

Master knee and shoulder ligament trauma with our interactive AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs. Perfect for OITE and ABOS revi…

20
Chapter 20 65 min

AAOS Shoulder MCQs (Set 1): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Humerus Fractures | ABOS Board Prep

Ace your ABOS board prep with interactive AAOS shoulder MCQs. Test your knowledge of rotator cuff tears, instability, a…

21
Chapter 21 62 min

AAOS Shoulder Board Review MCQs (Set 2): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Proximal Humerus Fractures

Master your orthopaedic exams with our AAOS Shoulder Board Review MCQs (Set 2). Practice rotator cuff, instability, and…

22
Chapter 22 62 min

ABOS Shoulder MCQs (Set 3): Rotator Cuff & Glenoid Instability | OITE & Board Prep

Ace your ABOS/OITE with Set 3 Shoulder MCQs. Covers rotator cuff tears, glenohumeral instability, impingement syndrome,…

23
Chapter 23 65 min

AAOS & ABOS Shoulder Board Review MCQs (Set 4): Rotator Cuff, Instability & Proximal Humerus

Master your exams with interactive AAOS & ABOS shoulder board review MCQs (Set 4). Practice rotator cuff, instability, …

24
Chapter 24 63 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 2): Knee Ligament & Rotator Cuff Injuries | Board Review

Ace your orthopedic board review with our AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs on knee ligament and rotator cuff injuries. Test yo…

25
Chapter 25 64 min

AAOS/ABOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 3): Knee, Shoulder & Ankle Trauma | OITE & Board Review

Master knee, shoulder, and ankle trauma with our interactive AAOS/ABOS Sports Medicine MCQs. Perfect your OITE and boar…

26
Chapter 26 65 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 4): Knee Ligament & Shoulder Instability | ABOS Board Review

Master knee ligament and shoulder instability topics with AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs Set 4. Ace your ABOS Board Review u…

27
Chapter 27 61 min

Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 2): Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist & Hand | ABOS & AAOS Board Review

Master AAOS & ABOS boards with Upper Extremity MCQs (Set 2). High-yield questions cover shoulder, elbow, wrist, and han…

28
Chapter 28 63 min

AAOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 3): Shoulder, Elbow & Wrist Trauma | 2005 Board Review

Master orthopedic board exams with interactive AAOS MCQs. Test your expertise in shoulder, elbow, and wrist trauma usin…

29
Chapter 29 51 min

AAOS & ABOS Ortho MCQs (Set 5): Upper Extremity Trauma & Rotator Cuff | 2005 Board Prep

Ace your orthopedic board exams with AAOS & ABOS Ortho MCQs (Set 5). Practice upper extremity trauma and rotator cuff q…

30
Chapter 30 57 min

Orthopedic Trauma Board Review MCQs (Set 2): Femoral & Tibial Fractures, Shoulder Dislocations

Master orthopedic trauma with interactive board review MCQs. Test your knowledge on femoral fractures, tibial fractures…

31
Chapter 31 56 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 1): Knee, Shoulder & Ankle Injuries | Board Review

Ace your board review with our interactive AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs. Test your knowledge on knee, shoulder, and ankle …

32
Chapter 32 63 min

AAOS Sports Medicine Board Review (Set 2): Knee, Shoulder & Ankle Injuries

Ace your AAOS Sports Medicine Board Review with our Set 2 MCQ quiz. Test your knowledge on knee, shoulder, and ankle in…

33
Chapter 33 67 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 3): Knee Ligament Injuries & Shoulder Instability | ABOS Review

Master AAOS & ABOS boards with Sports Medicine practice MCQs for Set 3, covering knee ligament injuries, shoulder insta…

34
Chapter 34 58 min

AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 4): Knee Ligament, Rotator Cuff & Concussion | Board Review

Ace your orthopaedic board review with AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 4). Test your knowledge on knee ligaments, rotato…

35
Chapter 35 52 min

Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 1): Shoulder, Elbow, Hand & Wrist | AAOS/ABOS Exam Prep

Master upper extremity orthopedic MCQs with our interactive practice set. Perfect for AAOS and ABOS exam prep covering …

36
Chapter 36 58 min

AAOS | ABOS Upper Extremity MCQs (Set 2): Shoulder, Elbow & Wrist Trauma Review

Master your orthopedic boards with our interactive AAOS & ABOS Upper Extremity MCQs. Review shoulder, elbow, and wrist …

37
Chapter 37 56 min

AAOS Upper Extremity MCQs (Set 3): Shoulder & Elbow Injuries | 2008 Board Review

Master the AAOS & ABOS boards with practice MCQs for Set 3, covering shoulder fractures, elbow injuries, and hand & wri…

38
Chapter 38 60 min

Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 4): Shoulder, Elbow & Wrist Trauma | ABOS & OITE Board Review

Master ABOS & OITE with Set 4 practice MCQs focusing on shoulder girdle injuries, elbow/forearm trauma, and common wris…

39
Chapter 39 42 min

AAOS Upper Extremity MCQs (Set 5): Shoulder, Elbow & Wrist Injuries | ABOS Review

Prepare for your ABOS exam with our interactive AAOS Upper Extremity MCQs (Set 5). Test your knowledge on shoulder, elb…

40
Chapter 40 51 min

Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 6): Shoulder, Elbow & Wrist Trauma | ABOS Review

Master upper extremity orthopedic trauma with interactive MCQs. Ideal for ABOS review, covering shoulder, elbow, and wr…

41
Chapter 41 73 min

ABOS Part I Orthopaedic Exam Review: Shoulder Instability & PVNS MCQs | Part 22215

Prepare for the ABOS Part I and AAOS OITE exams with 20 advanced orthopedic MCQs. Master shoulder instability, PVNS, an…

42
Chapter 42 57 min

ABOS Part I Orthopaedic Review: Elbow Terrible Triad & Monteggia Fractures | Part 22230

Ace your ABOS Part I exam with our advanced orthopaedic review MCQs. Master elbow terrible triad and Monteggia fracture…

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