Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General...
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Question 1High Yield
The magnetic resonance imaging signs that suggest instability of an osteochondral dissecans lesion include all the following except:
Explanation
The presence of a high signal intensity line at the interface between the lesion and the underlying bone suggests instability of an osteochondritis dissecans lesion.
Question 2High Yield
Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row anchor fixation of rotator cuff tears show what initial advantage over single-row anchor fixation?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row fixation of rotator cuff tears during cyclic loading and tensile loading to failure have demonstrated that double-row fixation results in a higher ultimate tensile load when compared to single-row fixation. Peak-to-peak elongation, stiffness, and conditioning
elongation for double-row fixation were all similar to single-row fixation. These initial findings, however, may or may not lead to improved clinical outcomes.
REFERENCES: Ma CB, Comerford L, Wilson J, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of arthroscopic rotator cuff repairs: Double-row compared with single-row fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:403-410. Kim DH, El
Attrache NS, Tibone JE, et al: Biomechanical comparison of single-row versus double-row suture anchor technique for rotator cuff repair. Am J Sports Med 2006;34:407-414.
elongation for double-row fixation were all similar to single-row fixation. These initial findings, however, may or may not lead to improved clinical outcomes.
REFERENCES: Ma CB, Comerford L, Wilson J, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of arthroscopic rotator cuff repairs: Double-row compared with single-row fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:403-410. Kim DH, El
Attrache NS, Tibone JE, et al: Biomechanical comparison of single-row versus double-row suture anchor technique for rotator cuff repair. Am J Sports Med 2006;34:407-414.
Question 3High Yield
A 50-year-old man who underwent an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair 5 days ago now returns for an early postoperative follow-up because of increasing pain in his shoulder. He reports increasing malaise and has a low-grade fever. Examination reveals no redness or swelling, but he has scant serous drainage from the posterior portal. An emergent Gram stain is positive for gram-positive cocci. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Explanation
An infection of the shoulder is considered a surgical emergency unless there are medical reasons that a patient cannot be taken to the operating room. If cultures of wound drainage are in question, then an aspiration should be done emergently, not several days later. The hallmark of infection in any major joint is increasing pain out of proportion to what is expected. Drainage occurring 1 to 2 days after an arthroscopic procedure is not normal, and it should be aggressively treated. Delay in diagnosis can result in sepsis and on a delayed basis, postinfectious arthritis. Both the glenohumeral joint and the subacromial space require debridement and irrigation, followed by antibiotics after both areas are cultured.
REFERENCES: Mansat P, Cofield RH, Kersten TE, Rowland CM: Complications of rotator cuff repair. Orthop Clin North Am 1997;28:205-213.
Settecerri JJ, Pitner MA, Rock MG, Hanssen AD, Cofield RH: Infection after rotator cuff repair. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:1-5.
Ward WG, Eckardt JJ: Subacromial/subdeltoid bursa abscesses: An overlooked diagnosis. Clin Orthop 1993;288:189-194.
Ward WG, Goldner RD: Shoulder pyarthrosis: A concomittant process. Orthopedics 1994;17:591-595.
REFERENCES: Mansat P, Cofield RH, Kersten TE, Rowland CM: Complications of rotator cuff repair. Orthop Clin North Am 1997;28:205-213.
Settecerri JJ, Pitner MA, Rock MG, Hanssen AD, Cofield RH: Infection after rotator cuff repair. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:1-5.
Ward WG, Eckardt JJ: Subacromial/subdeltoid bursa abscesses: An overlooked diagnosis. Clin Orthop 1993;288:189-194.
Ward WG, Goldner RD: Shoulder pyarthrosis: A concomittant process. Orthopedics 1994;17:591-595.
Question 4High Yield
Figures 1 through 3 show the radiographs obtained from a 40-year-old woman who injured her right index finger in a bicycle collision. Failure to restore sagittal plane alignment would likely result in
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Explanation
The radiographs reveal an extra-articular proximal phalanx fracture of the index finger. The fracture is comminuted with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment. The question specifically asks about the restoration of sagittal alignment. The fracture is comminuted with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment. The other options are incorrect, because overlapping of the digits occurs with rotational malalignment, the development of arthritis may occur with intra-articular fractures, and hyperextension would not occur _with this type of deformity._
Question 5High Yield
Initial postoperative management after repair of an acute rotator cuff tear includes
Explanation
In the immediate postoperative period following repair of an acute rotator cuff tear, passive forward elevation and external rotation should be performed within the safe zone determined at surgery. Early active range of motion (prior to tendon healing), internal rotation behind the back, and resistive exercises increase the risk of rupture of the repair.
REFERENCES: Iannotti JP: Full-thickness rotator cuff tear: Factors affecting surgical outcome. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:87-95.
Bigliani LU, Cordasco FA, McIlveen ST, et al: Operative repair of massive rotator cuff tears: Long-term result. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1992;1:120-130.
REFERENCES: Iannotti JP: Full-thickness rotator cuff tear: Factors affecting surgical outcome. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:87-95.
Bigliani LU, Cordasco FA, McIlveen ST, et al: Operative repair of massive rotator cuff tears: Long-term result. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1992;1:120-130.
Question 6High Yield
Lymph node involvement is common in all of the following tumors except:
Explanation
Basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize. Malignant sweat gland tumors, malignant melanoma, and Merkel's cell carcinoma are aggressive. Treatment usually includes regional lymphadenectomy. Squamous cell carcinoma is one of the most common hand malignancies and has the capacity to metastasize via the lymphatics.
Question 7High Yield
A 52-year-old woman with a medical history that includes type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis has a painless right thigh mass that increased in size during the preceding year. Ultrasound was “consistent with lipoma,” and the patient underwent uneventful resection. Final pathology revealed high-grade undifferentiated sarcoma. Figures 75a and 75b are the clinical photograph and postresection MR image. The treatment rendered prior to referral to a sarcoma center most likely will result in increased


Explanation
This patient had an unplanned resection of a high-grade soft-tissue sarcoma. The MR image shows that the unplanned resection extended deep to the fascia. Errors in this case include failure to obtain cross-sectional imaging of a tumor deep to the fascia prior to resection and use of a transverse incision. Flap coverage for unplanned soft-tissue sarcoma resection can increase the complexity of soft-tissue reconstruction. Radiation therapy would have been indicated for a high-grade soft-
tissue sarcoma deep to the fascia regardless of the biopsy technique. Overall, mortality does not correlate with errors in biopsy technique. Although many studies demonstrate increased local recurrence risk is associated with unplanned resection, amputation is not indicated in most cases. Radiation therapy and wide re-resection with salvage of the involved limb is the treatment of choice.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
51. [Jones DA, Shideman C, Yuan J, Dusenbery K, Carlos Manivel J, Ogilvie C, Clohisy DR, Cheng EY, Shanley R, Chinsoo Cho L. Management of Unplanned Excision for Soft-Tissue Sarcoma With Preoperative Radiotherapy Followed by Definitive Resection. Am J Clin Oncol. 2014 May 29. [Epub ahead of print] PubMed PMID: 24879470.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24879470)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24879470)
52. [Pretell-Mazzini J, Barton MD Jr, Conway SA, Temple HT. Unplanned excision of soft-tissue sarcomas: current concepts for management and prognosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2015 Apr 1;97(7):597-603. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.N.00649. Review. PubMed PMID: 25834085.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25834085)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25834085)
53. [Qureshi YA, Huddy JR, Miller JD, Strauss DC, Thomas JM, Hayes AJ. Unplanned excision of soft tissue sarcoma results in increased rates of local recurrence despite full further oncological treatment. Ann Surg Oncol. 2012 Mar;19(3):871-7. doi: 10.1245/s10434-011-1876-z. Epub 2011 Jul 27. PubMed PMID: 21792512.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21792512)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21792512)
tissue sarcoma deep to the fascia regardless of the biopsy technique. Overall, mortality does not correlate with errors in biopsy technique. Although many studies demonstrate increased local recurrence risk is associated with unplanned resection, amputation is not indicated in most cases. Radiation therapy and wide re-resection with salvage of the involved limb is the treatment of choice.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
51. [Jones DA, Shideman C, Yuan J, Dusenbery K, Carlos Manivel J, Ogilvie C, Clohisy DR, Cheng EY, Shanley R, Chinsoo Cho L. Management of Unplanned Excision for Soft-Tissue Sarcoma With Preoperative Radiotherapy Followed by Definitive Resection. Am J Clin Oncol. 2014 May 29. [Epub ahead of print] PubMed PMID: 24879470.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24879470)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24879470)
52. [Pretell-Mazzini J, Barton MD Jr, Conway SA, Temple HT. Unplanned excision of soft-tissue sarcomas: current concepts for management and prognosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2015 Apr 1;97(7):597-603. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.N.00649. Review. PubMed PMID: 25834085.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25834085)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25834085)
53. [Qureshi YA, Huddy JR, Miller JD, Strauss DC, Thomas JM, Hayes AJ. Unplanned excision of soft tissue sarcoma results in increased rates of local recurrence despite full further oncological treatment. Ann Surg Oncol. 2012 Mar;19(3):871-7. doi: 10.1245/s10434-011-1876-z. Epub 2011 Jul 27. PubMed PMID: 21792512.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21792512)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21792512)
Question 8High Yield
A 17-year-old girl develops chronic posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following closed treatment of an elbow dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals incompetence of the lateral collateral ligament complex, and ligament reconstruction is planned. Examination under anesthesia is performed with the forearm in maximal supination and valgus force applied to the elbow, demonstrated in Video
Explanation
PLRI of the elbow is the most common form of chronic elbow instability. The mechanism occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand, where a valgus force is applied to the elbow and the forearm rotates into progressive supination. This allows the radial head to translate posterior to the capitellum, with progressive injury from lateral to medial sides of the elbow. The pivot shift test is a useful examination maneuver to confirm the presence of PLRI. With the forearm in maximal supination and valgus stress applied to the elbow, the radial head is forced posterior to the capitellum as the elbow is brought into progressive extension, revealing a dimple on the lateral aspect of the elbow. This typically occurs at roughly 30° of flexion. As the elbow is flexed, the radial head reduces.
Question 9High Yield
Which of the following nerves is most commonly injured during revision surgery following a Bristow procedure?
Explanation
Because of the previously transferred bone block of coracoid and short arm flexors, the musculocutaneous nerve often scars along the anteroinferior glenohumeral capsule. Mobilization of this tissue places the nerve at greatest risk. The axillary nerve is also potentially at risk, but this is nonspecific to prior surgery, particularly the Bristow procedure.
REFERENCES: Norris TR: Complications following anterior instability repairs, in Bigliani LU (ed): Complications of Shoulder Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1993,
pp 98-116.
Flatow EL, Bigliani LU, April EW: An anatomic study of the musculocutaneous nerve and its relationship to the coracoid process. Clin Orthop 1989;244:166-171.
REFERENCES: Norris TR: Complications following anterior instability repairs, in Bigliani LU (ed): Complications of Shoulder Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1993,
pp 98-116.
Flatow EL, Bigliani LU, April EW: An anatomic study of the musculocutaneous nerve and its relationship to the coracoid process. Clin Orthop 1989;244:166-171.
Question 10High Yield
A 35-year-old male laborer falls off a ladder and sustains the injury shown in Figures A and B. He has a 2 cm laceration over the medial ankle with exposed bone and a normal neurovascular exam. What is the recommended initial treatment?


Explanation
Severe pilon fractures are generally the result of high energy trauma leading to bony comminution of the articular and metaphyseal bone. They are usually associated with significant soft tissue injury which prevents immediate definitive open reduction and internal fixation. In this situation, due to the soft tissue injury and open fracture, initial treatment should consist of irrigation and debridement and stabilization with external fixation. Definitive management such as open reduction and internal fixation is performed once the soft tissue swelling has improved and there is no evidence of infection. Sirkin et al published their results of a staged protocol for complex pilon injuries. Their data suggests the historically high rates of infection associated with ORIF of pilon fractures are likely due to attempts at immediate fixation through swollen, compromised soft tissues.
Question 11High Yield
What is the most likely cause of the deformity shown in Figures 39a through 39c?



Explanation
This is a Kirner deformity. Attributed to J. Kirner who described it in 1927, it is a rare congenital deformity of the distal phalanx of the small finger. It is often bilateral and sometimes familial. Radiographic appearance is characterized by narrow, apex-dorsal arching of the phalangeal shaft and a widened physis. The etiology is unknown, although several proposed mechanisms have proven unfounded with advanced imaging. This deformity usually is not associated with syndromes or other musculoskeletal abnormalities.
Clinically, the finger has a short distal phalangeal segment with a dorsally curved fingernail. Patients tend to seek an evaluation for this progressive deformity during adolescence. The deformity ceases to increase once a patient reaches skeletal maturity and the physis closes. This condition is frequently diagnosed as a partial growth arrest, but there is always a mysterious lack of a trauma history. Infection and inflammation are other possible causes, but laboratory studies and MRI do not show enhancement.
This deformity is largely cosmetic, although pain is occasionally reported. If patients find the deformity unacceptable, treatment is a palmarly based opening-wedge osteotomy. While this is an exceedingly rare condition, it is relevant for general orthopaedic surgeons to recognize the condition to avoid the consternation associated with misdiagnosis.
Vitamin D deficiency does not cause skeletal deformity in the hand. Frostbite typically is associated with wide, short phalanges with early growth arrest. Posttraumatic growth arrest occurs occasionally with a Seymour fracture but is most often a central or asymmetric arrest.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
5. [Dykes RG. Kirner's deformity of the little finger. J Bone Joint Surg Br. 1978 Feb;60(1):58-60. PubMed PMID: 627580.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/627580)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/627580)
6. Khalid S, Khalid M, Zaheer S, Ahmad I, Ullah E. Kirner's Deformity Misdiagnosed as Fracture: A Case Report. Oman Med J. 2012 May;27(3):237-8. doi: 10.5001/omj.2012.53. PubMed PMID: 22811775.
[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22811775)
7. Lee J, Ahn JK, Choi SH, Koh EM, Cha HS. MRI findings in Kirner deformity: normal insertion of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon without soft-tissue enhancement. Pediatr Radiol. 2010 Sep;40(9):1572-5. doi: 10.1007/s00247-010-1628-4. Epub 2010 Mar 25. PubMed PMID: 20336287.
[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20336287)
Clinically, the finger has a short distal phalangeal segment with a dorsally curved fingernail. Patients tend to seek an evaluation for this progressive deformity during adolescence. The deformity ceases to increase once a patient reaches skeletal maturity and the physis closes. This condition is frequently diagnosed as a partial growth arrest, but there is always a mysterious lack of a trauma history. Infection and inflammation are other possible causes, but laboratory studies and MRI do not show enhancement.
This deformity is largely cosmetic, although pain is occasionally reported. If patients find the deformity unacceptable, treatment is a palmarly based opening-wedge osteotomy. While this is an exceedingly rare condition, it is relevant for general orthopaedic surgeons to recognize the condition to avoid the consternation associated with misdiagnosis.
Vitamin D deficiency does not cause skeletal deformity in the hand. Frostbite typically is associated with wide, short phalanges with early growth arrest. Posttraumatic growth arrest occurs occasionally with a Seymour fracture but is most often a central or asymmetric arrest.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
5. [Dykes RG. Kirner's deformity of the little finger. J Bone Joint Surg Br. 1978 Feb;60(1):58-60. PubMed PMID: 627580.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/627580)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/627580)
6. Khalid S, Khalid M, Zaheer S, Ahmad I, Ullah E. Kirner's Deformity Misdiagnosed as Fracture: A Case Report. Oman Med J. 2012 May;27(3):237-8. doi: 10.5001/omj.2012.53. PubMed PMID: 22811775.
[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22811775)
7. Lee J, Ahn JK, Choi SH, Koh EM, Cha HS. MRI findings in Kirner deformity: normal insertion of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon without soft-tissue enhancement. Pediatr Radiol. 2010 Sep;40(9):1572-5. doi: 10.1007/s00247-010-1628-4. Epub 2010 Mar 25. PubMed PMID: 20336287.
[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20336287)
Question 12High Yield
A 25-year-old man has an isolated flexor digitorum profundus laceration just proximal to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) flexion crease of his ring finger. The tendon ends are trimmed, removing 10 mm from each end (secondary to fraying) and the tendon repaired. Four months later, he reports limited finger motion of the long, ring, and small fingers. He cannot fully extend his wrist and all joints of the 3 fingers simultaneously. He has full passive flexion but cannot actively completely close his fingers into a fist. What is the most likely cause?
Explanation
If a single flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon is debrided more than 1 cm prior to repair, the tendon is advanced too far distally, essentially shortening the musculotendon unit. The finger will likely develop a flexion posture. Because of the common muscle belly and interconnections of the profundi, the long and small fingers adjacent to the injured finger will be affected because of loss of some of their normal proximal excursion. The result is an inability of the adjacent fingers to completely flex. This condition, known as quadrigia, is named after the Roman chariot driver who held control of the reins of 4 horses, forcing them to move as 1. Quadrigia occurs when the FDP tendon is advanced too far distally, when a tendon graft is too short, or when the profundus is sutured over the end of an amputated digit. Intrinsic muscles of the hand flex the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joints and extend the PIP joint. Intrinsic tightness causes decreased PIP flexion when the MP joint is in extension. The lumbrical muscle modulates tension on the flexor profundus tendon. When a tendon graft to repair the profundus tendon is too long, a lumbrical plus deformity occurs. This is a paradoxical PIP extension as the finger is flexed. Disruption of the tendon
repair causes limited flexion of the injured finger.
repair causes limited flexion of the injured finger.
Question 13High Yield
Which key factor that induces osteoclastogenesis is secreted by osteoblasts in response to inflammatory stimuli?
Explanation
**
Osteoclasts are derived from cells of the monocyte/macrophage lineage. They are multinucleated and develop by fusion of mononuclear precursors, a process that requires receptor activator for nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) and macrophage-colony stimulating factor (M-CSF). RANKL is secreted by osteoblasts in response to inflammatory signals and is a key component of inflammation-mediated osteolysis. OPG binds to and sequesters RANKL, thus inhibiting osteoclast differentiation and activity.
BMP and IGF-1 are potent regulators of osteoblast differentiation and activation. TNF is a cytokine secreted by macrophages and degranulating platelets infiltrated in the fracture site and impacts a variety of cells, not osteoclasts.
Osteoclasts are derived from cells of the monocyte/macrophage lineage. They are multinucleated and develop by fusion of mononuclear precursors, a process that requires receptor activator for nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) and macrophage-colony stimulating factor (M-CSF). RANKL is secreted by osteoblasts in response to inflammatory signals and is a key component of inflammation-mediated osteolysis. OPG binds to and sequesters RANKL, thus inhibiting osteoclast differentiation and activity.
BMP and IGF-1 are potent regulators of osteoblast differentiation and activation. TNF is a cytokine secreted by macrophages and degranulating platelets infiltrated in the fracture site and impacts a variety of cells, not osteoclasts.
Question 14High Yield
A 62-year-old man presents for treatment of ankle pain. He suffered a fibular fracture 7 months ago while hiking in the mountains. He was treated with a short leg walking cast. On examination, he has pain on range of motion of the ankle, pain over the distal fibula, and no instability or crepitus to range of motion of the ankle. Pain is present on external rotation of the foot under the leg. Radiographs of the ankle demonstrate a healed fibular fracture with 7 mm of shortening and slight external rotation. There is a 7° valgus tilt of the tibiotalar joint and a widening of the medial clear space. The joint space laterally appears slightly narrowed. Recommended treatment includes:
Explanation
This patient has a malunion of the fibula that does not appear to be associated with ankle arthritis, despite the radiographic changes. The valgus tilt of the ankle joint is common with shortening of the fibula and does not imply arthritis. Therefore, arthrodesis and ankle replacement are not indicated. Lengthening osteotomy of the fibular combined with excision of the medial joint scar is ideal to realign the tibiotalar joint. Although ankle arthroscopy may be performed in conjunction with the fibular osteotomy, it is not sufficient treatment.
Question 15High Yield
What is the most likely underlying bone problem?
Explanation
- A genetic defect in the type I collagen gene
Question 16High Yield
Which of the following is not a common finding in cloacal exstrophy:
Explanation
Hydrocephalus is rare because most patients have lipomeningocele, not myelomeningocele.
Omphalocele is common in cloacal exstrophy.
Most patients with cloacal exstrophy have a lipomeningocele that is a form of spinal dysrhaphism. Many patients have malformations of the sacroiliac joints.
Approximately 25% of patients have dislocations of at least one hip.
Omphalocele is common in cloacal exstrophy.
Most patients with cloacal exstrophy have a lipomeningocele that is a form of spinal dysrhaphism. Many patients have malformations of the sacroiliac joints.
Approximately 25% of patients have dislocations of at least one hip.
Question 17High Yield
What is the most common complication following arthroscopic capsular release in a patient with adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder?
Explanation
Although all of the above are potential complications after arthroscopic capsular release for adhesive capsulitis, the most common problem is the failure to regain normal glenohumeral motion. An immediate physical therapy program is critical to prevent this complication.
REFERENCES: Ghalambor N, Warner JJP: Arthroscopic capsular release: Evolution of the technique and its applications. Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;1:52-60.
Pollock RG, Duralde XA, Flatow EL, Bigliani LU: The use of arthroscopy in the treatment of resistant frozen shoulder. Clin Orthop 1994;304:30-36.
REFERENCES: Ghalambor N, Warner JJP: Arthroscopic capsular release: Evolution of the technique and its applications. Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;1:52-60.
Pollock RG, Duralde XA, Flatow EL, Bigliani LU: The use of arthroscopy in the treatment of resistant frozen shoulder. Clin Orthop 1994;304:30-36.
Question 18High Yield
Which of the following proteins or genes is necessary for bone formation and induces osteocalcin:
Explanation
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1) and its gene (Cbfa1) have been described as anabolic regulators of bone. C bfa1 is a transcription factor and is responsible for the differentiation of precursor cells into osteoblasts. It also enhances differentiation of chondrocytes during enchondral bone formation. When there is deficiency of C bfa1, there can be abnormal bone development as in cleidocranial dysplasia.
Question 19High Yield
Which ancillary test is not helpful in the diagnosis of C harcot-Marie-Tooth disease (C MT):
Explanation
C harcot-Marie-Tooth disease (C MT) is a neuropathic process resulting in muscle atrophy, therefore, muscle enzyme studies will not be helpful.
Electromyography (EMG) will confirm the diagnosis by displaying increased amplitude and duration of signals, both of which are indicative of a neuropathic process.
Nerve conduction velocity (NC V) will also confirm the diagnosis by displaying decreased motor and sensory conduction velocities.
Nerve biopsy can be helpful by showing loss of myelinated fibers and fibrosis. Muscle biopsy will show diffuse atrophy, fibrosis, and adipose tissue within muscle.
Electromyography (EMG) will confirm the diagnosis by displaying increased amplitude and duration of signals, both of which are indicative of a neuropathic process.
Nerve conduction velocity (NC V) will also confirm the diagnosis by displaying decreased motor and sensory conduction velocities.
Nerve biopsy can be helpful by showing loss of myelinated fibers and fibrosis. Muscle biopsy will show diffuse atrophy, fibrosis, and adipose tissue within muscle.
Question 20High Yield
A 59-year-old construction worker who is right-hand dominant has had right shoulder pain for the past 9 months with no history of injury. Nonsurgical management consisting of two cortisone injections, physical therapy for 3 months, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has failed to provide lasting relief. Examination reveals tenderness over the acromioclavicular (AC) joint and over the subacromial bursa. He has positive Neer and Hawkins impingement signs and AC joint pain with adduction of the shoulder. Radiographs are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. An MRI scan reveals an intact rotator cuff. Management should now consist of
Explanation
Because the patient has clinical and radiographic signs of AC arthritis and subacromial impingement, the treatment of choice is anterior acromioplasty and distal clavicle excision. Arthroscopic acromioplasty alone would not address the AC arthritis. The rotator cuff is intact; therefore, rotator cuff repair is not indicated. An open Mumford procedure would address the AC arthritis only and not the impingement symptoms. Immobilization might lead to stiffness of the shoulder and is not recommended for treating impingement.
REFERENCE: Peterson CA, Altchek DW, Warren RF: Shoulder arthroscopy, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 290-335.
REFERENCE: Peterson CA, Altchek DW, Warren RF: Shoulder arthroscopy, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 290-335.
Question 21High Yield
Slide 1
The structure on the side of the metatarsophalangeal joint of the second toe which is marked by the pointer is the:
The structure on the side of the metatarsophalangeal joint of the second toe which is marked by the pointer is the:
Explanation
The structure is the volar plate ligament. This ligament may assume a pathologic role in claw toe deformity and instability of the metatarsophalangeal joint.
Question 22High Yield
Iontophoresis has been effectively used in all of the following EXC EPT:
Explanation
Iontophoresis is effective in soft tissue conditions such as rotator cuff bursitis and lateral epicondylitis.
Question 23High Yield
A 5-year-old girl sustained a nondisplaced fracture of the proximal tibial metaphysis, which was treated with a long leg cast and which healed uneventfully. Clinical examination and the image seen in Figure 1 reveals a deformity at 1 year postinjury. The most appropriate management at this time would be
Explanation
■
Development of proximal tibial valgus is an uncommon, but well-documented, complication of proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures in children. There are multiple theories as to the origin, but the exact etiolgy is unknown. Management with a guide-growth procedure is rarely required, because most patients ultimately achieve spontaneous correction.
■
Development of proximal tibial valgus is an uncommon, but well-documented, complication of proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures in children. There are multiple theories as to the origin, but the exact etiolgy is unknown. Management with a guide-growth procedure is rarely required, because most patients ultimately achieve spontaneous correction.
Question 24High Yield
Which of the following is characteristic of the third and final stage of osteoarthritis:
Explanation
In the last stage of osteoarthritis, there is reduced chondrocyte proliferation and function, which may be secondary to reduced ability to respond to anabolic factors (down regulation). There may be accumulation of molecules that bind to the anabolic factors (and keep the factors from the chondrocytes) such as decorin and insulin-dependent growth factor binding protein.
Question 25High Yield
A 39-year-old woman fell onto her flexed elbow and sustained a comminuted displaced radial head and neck fracture. Radiographs confirm concentric reduction of the ulnohumeral joint. Examination reveals pain with compression of the radius and ulna at the wrist. What is the best treatment for the radial head fracture?
Explanation
Patients with comminuted radial neck and head fractures and associated wrist pain have a significant injury to the elbow and forearm. Nonsurgical management is an option, but initial casting will result in stiffness and early range of motion is likely to be unsuccessful secondary to pain. Surgical treatment with open reduction and internal fixation, although possible, is technically demanding and results are unpredictable with comminuted fractures. Excision alone in the face of wrist pain may lead to radial shortening. The treatment of choice is excision and metallic radial head arthroplasty. Silastic implants have been associated with synovitis and wear debris.
REFERENCES: Furry KL, Clinkscales CM: Comminuted fractures of the radial head: Arthroplasty versus internal fixation. Clin Orthop 1998;353:40-52.
Ring D, Quintero J, Jupiter JB: Open reduction and internal fixation of fractures of the radial head. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1811-1815.
REFERENCES: Furry KL, Clinkscales CM: Comminuted fractures of the radial head: Arthroplasty versus internal fixation. Clin Orthop 1998;353:40-52.
Ring D, Quintero J, Jupiter JB: Open reduction and internal fixation of fractures of the radial head. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1811-1815.
Question 26High Yield
Figures 21a through 21c show the MRI scans of a 21-year-old football player who sustained a valgus knee injury while changing direction. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness along the medial aspect of the knee. There is a positive Lachman test, 3+ valgus laxity at 30 degrees, and 1+ valgus laxity at 0 degrees extension. The anterior drawer test is increased with the tibia in external rotation. The increase in the anterior drawer test with the tibia in external rotation is most likely the result of
Explanation
The injury mechanism involves a valgus load applied to the knee with the foot in external rotation. The primary stabilizer to valgus laxity is the medial collateral ligament. The secondary restraints to valgus rotation are the cruciate ligaments. Examination indicates disruption of the medial collateral and anterior cruciate ligaments. Valgus opening in extension should also arouse suspicion for an injury to the posterior cruciate ligament; however, in this patient, the valgus opening in extension is mild. The slight opening in extension and the increased anterior drawer, especially with external rotation, indicates disruption of the posteromedial capsule and posterior oblique ligament. Figure 21a shows complete disruption of the superficial and deep medial collateral ligaments involving the meniscofemoral ligament. Figure 21b shows a more posterior coronal section with a torn posterior oblique ligament. Figure 21c shows disruption of the anterior cruciate ligament, while the posterior cruciate ligament at the tibial insertion appears with a homogenous normal signal.
REFERENCES: Warren LA, Marshall JL, Girgis F: The prime static stabilizer of the medial side of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:665-674.
Indelicato PA: Injury to the medial capsuloligamentous complex of the knee, in Feagin J (ed): The Crucial Ligaments, ed 2. 1994, pp 351-360.
REFERENCES: Warren LA, Marshall JL, Girgis F: The prime static stabilizer of the medial side of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:665-674.
Indelicato PA: Injury to the medial capsuloligamentous complex of the knee, in Feagin J (ed): The Crucial Ligaments, ed 2. 1994, pp 351-360.
Question 27High Yield
Indications for operative treatment in an acute elbow dislocation include:
Explanation
Recurrent dislocations with extension past 50° represent a significant injury to the elbow and require a stabilization period. Instability to valgus stress represents injury to the anterior band of the medial collateral ligament of the elbow and will heal with protected motion. The majority of radial head fractures (Mason type I and II) that are less than 30º of the radial head and less than 30º angulation heal with good functional results. Most dislocations will have osteochondral lesions. Ulnar nerve parathesias can be associated with dislocations but is not an indication for operative fixation.
Question 28High Yield
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of what level is considered a good cutoff for guiding an index of suspicion for infection:
Explanation
With an ESR of 30 mm/hr to 35 mm/hr, sensitivities have been reported from 0.60 to 0.96 and specificities from 0.65 to
1
1
Question 29High Yield
Figure 39 shows the AP radiograph of a 62-year-old man with degenerative osteoarthritis secondary to trauma. History reveals that he underwent total elbow arthroplasty 3 years ago. He continues to report instability and constant pain. A complete work-up, including aspiration and cultures, is negative. Treatment should consist of removal of the components and**
Explanation
An unconstrained prosthesis dislocation is a disconcerting problem that is not easily resolved; however, revision to a semiconstrained prosthesis would best achieve both pain relief and stability. Removal of the components and distraction arthroplasty or conversion to a resection arthroplasty are options, but the results would be unpredictable with regards to pain relief, postoperative motion, or elbow stability. Arthrodesis is poorly tolerated. With revision to another unconstrained prosthesis, there is the risk of continued redislocation because of chronic ligamentous insufficiency.
REFERENCES: Linscheid RL: Resurfacing elbow replacement arthroplasty: Rationale, technique and results, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 602-610.
Morrey BF, King GJ: Revision of failed total elbow arthroplasty, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 685-700.
REFERENCES: Linscheid RL: Resurfacing elbow replacement arthroplasty: Rationale, technique and results, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 602-610.
Morrey BF, King GJ: Revision of failed total elbow arthroplasty, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 685-700.
Question 30High Yield
What vitamin supplement has been shown in some studies to reduce the risk of complex regional pain syndrome following a distal radius fracture?
Explanation
Two studies have shown that supplemental vitamin C reduces the risk of developing complex regional pain syndrome following a distal radius fracture. The recommended dose is 500 mg daily for 50 days. Supplemental vitamin C is a recommendation of the AAOS evidence-based Clinical Practice Guidelines
and has moderate evidence. The vitamin supplements listed as alternative options have not been shown to prevent disproportionate pain following a distal radius fracture.
and has moderate evidence. The vitamin supplements listed as alternative options have not been shown to prevent disproportionate pain following a distal radius fracture.
Question 31High Yield
A patient with deficient anteroinferior bone stock undergoes a Latarjet procedure that transfers a portion of the coracoid to the glenoid rim and secures it with two screws. After surgery, the patient reports numbness on the anterolateral forearm. To verify the diagnosis, what muscle should be tested for strength?
Explanation
A Latarjet procedure is similar to a Bristow procedure, but with the Latarjet procedure a larger portion of the coracoid is transferred to the scapular neck at the anteroinferior glenoid. As in a Bristow procedure, if the fragment is pulled or twisted during the dissection or during fixation, the musculocutaneous nerve can be injured. With loss of biceps function, elbow flexion and forearm supination will be weaker.
REFERENCES: Ho E, Cofield RH, Balm MR, Hattrup SJ, Rowland CM: Neurologic complications of surgery for anterior shoulder instability. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:266-270.
Boardman ND 3rd, Cofield RH: Neurologic complications of shoulder surgery. Clin Orthop 1999;368:44-53.
Allain J, Goutallier D, Glorion C: Long-term results of the Latarjet procedure for the treatment of anterior instability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:841-852.
REFERENCES: Ho E, Cofield RH, Balm MR, Hattrup SJ, Rowland CM: Neurologic complications of surgery for anterior shoulder instability. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:266-270.
Boardman ND 3rd, Cofield RH: Neurologic complications of shoulder surgery. Clin Orthop 1999;368:44-53.
Allain J, Goutallier D, Glorion C: Long-term results of the Latarjet procedure for the treatment of anterior instability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:841-852.
Question 32High Yield
Figures 1 and 2 are the CT and MR spine images of an 82-year-old man who has a history of ankylosing spondylitis falls onto his back. He has no neurologic deficits upon examination in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate next step?
Explanation
■
Spinal fractures in patients with ankylosing spondylitis are unstable and generally necessitate surgical intervention. In a patient with a spinal fracture in the setting of ankylosing spondylitis, posterior instrumented fusion is an appropriate surgical procedure. Treatment with a thoracolumbar orthosis is not an option for patients with extension distraction injuries in the setting of an ankylosed spine because of risk for displacement. Similarly, simply checking upright radiographs is generally not advocated. Laminectomy alone is inappropriate for this patient because there is no cord compression and neurologic symptoms are absent. Stabilization is the treatment goal.
Spinal fractures in patients with ankylosing spondylitis are unstable and generally necessitate surgical intervention. In a patient with a spinal fracture in the setting of ankylosing spondylitis, posterior instrumented fusion is an appropriate surgical procedure. Treatment with a thoracolumbar orthosis is not an option for patients with extension distraction injuries in the setting of an ankylosed spine because of risk for displacement. Similarly, simply checking upright radiographs is generally not advocated. Laminectomy alone is inappropriate for this patient because there is no cord compression and neurologic symptoms are absent. Stabilization is the treatment goal.
Question 33High Yield
What is the most common complication after surgical management of chronic exertional compartment
syndrome (CECS) in the pediatric (≤18 years) population?
syndrome (CECS) in the pediatric (≤18 years) population?
Explanation
No detailed explanation provided for this question.
Question 34High Yield
1244) A polytrauma patient sustains a right bicondylar tibial plateau fracture and a right humeral shaft fracture both treated with open reduction and internal fixation. He also underwent statically locked intramedullary nailing of a left femoral shaft fracture. What is the appropriate weightbearing status?
Explanation
The standard treatment for a bicondylar tibial plateau fractures is a period of post-operative non-weight bearing.
Tingstad et al found favorable results of immediate weightbearing on humeral shaft fractures treated with plating and full weightbearing did not have any effect on the union or malunion rates.
Brumback et al evaluated the feasibility, safety and efficacy of immediate
weightbearing after treatment of femoral shaft fractures with statically locked IM nail. All the patients went on to union and no loss of fixation occurred.
Tingstad et al found favorable results of immediate weightbearing on humeral shaft fractures treated with plating and full weightbearing did not have any effect on the union or malunion rates.
Brumback et al evaluated the feasibility, safety and efficacy of immediate
weightbearing after treatment of femoral shaft fractures with statically locked IM nail. All the patients went on to union and no loss of fixation occurred.
Question 35High Yield
A 7 5-year-old man who sustained an intertrochanteric hip fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation with a sliding hip screw. Six months after the procedure, the patient has shortening and external rotation of the extremity and progressively severe groin pain with ambulation. Radiographs are shown in Figures 5a and 5b. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has an intertrochanteric fracture malunion with protrusion of the hardware and penetration into the acetabulum. To restore leg length and relieve pain, total hip arthroplasty is necessary. Valgus osteotomy is appropriate for fracture nonunion with an intact femoral head with no signs of osteonecrosis. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty with acetabular erosion will most likely lead to pain as will removal of the hardware with or without physical therapy.
REFERENCE: Said GZ, Farouk O, El-Sayed A, et al: Salvage of failed dynamic hip screw fixation of intertrochanteric fractures. Injury 2006;37:194-202.
Figure 6
DISCUSSION: The patient has an intertrochanteric fracture malunion with protrusion of the hardware and penetration into the acetabulum. To restore leg length and relieve pain, total hip arthroplasty is necessary. Valgus osteotomy is appropriate for fracture nonunion with an intact femoral head with no signs of osteonecrosis. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty with acetabular erosion will most likely lead to pain as will removal of the hardware with or without physical therapy.
REFERENCE: Said GZ, Farouk O, El-Sayed A, et al: Salvage of failed dynamic hip screw fixation of intertrochanteric fractures. Injury 2006;37:194-202.
Figure 6
Question 36High Yield
The patient's painful great-toe deformity is best treated with
Explanation
- proximal metatarsal bunionectomy.
Question 37High Yield
A 5-year-old boy is seen in the emergency department with a 2-day history of refusing to walk. Examination shows that he has a temperature of 102.2 degrees F (39 degrees
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The history, physical examination, and laboratory studies suggest a septic hip. Recent studies indicate that a child with elevated ESR, a WBC count of greater than 12,000/mm3, a temperature of greater than 38.5 degrees, and unwillingness to walk is very likely to have septic arthritis of the hip versus toxic synovitis. The best way to confirm the diagnosis is by hip aspiration. No medications should be started until a diagnosis is made. Toxic synovitis is common, but significantly less likely if three of the above criteria are present. This condition usually responds well to ibuprofen, but requires close observation. Septic hips are considered urgent conditions and therefore a repeat evaluation in 2 weeks is inappropriate.
REFERENCES: Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2008, pp 2109-2113.
Abel MF (ed): Orthopaedic Knowlede Update: Pediatrics 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 62-65.
Kocher MS, Mandiga R, Murphy JM, et al: A clinical practice guideline for treatment of septic arthritis
in children: Efficacy in improving process of care and effect on outcome of septic arthritis of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:994-999.
Kocher MS, Mandiga R, Zurakowski D, et al: Validation of a clinica l prediction rule for the differentiation between septic arthritis and transient synovitis of the hip in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1629-1635.
DISCUSSION: The history, physical examination, and laboratory studies suggest a septic hip. Recent studies indicate that a child with elevated ESR, a WBC count of greater than 12,000/mm3, a temperature of greater than 38.5 degrees, and unwillingness to walk is very likely to have septic arthritis of the hip versus toxic synovitis. The best way to confirm the diagnosis is by hip aspiration. No medications should be started until a diagnosis is made. Toxic synovitis is common, but significantly less likely if three of the above criteria are present. This condition usually responds well to ibuprofen, but requires close observation. Septic hips are considered urgent conditions and therefore a repeat evaluation in 2 weeks is inappropriate.
REFERENCES: Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2008, pp 2109-2113.
Abel MF (ed): Orthopaedic Knowlede Update: Pediatrics 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 62-65.
Kocher MS, Mandiga R, Murphy JM, et al: A clinical practice guideline for treatment of septic arthritis
in children: Efficacy in improving process of care and effect on outcome of septic arthritis of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:994-999.
Kocher MS, Mandiga R, Zurakowski D, et al: Validation of a clinica l prediction rule for the differentiation between septic arthritis and transient synovitis of the hip in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1629-1635.
Question 38High Yield
Figure 1 is the intraoperative radiograph of a shoulder hemiarthroplasty for glenohumeral arthritis. A "ream and run" is planned for the glenoid. What can be said about the outcomes of this procedure?
19
19
Explanation
"Ream and run" shoulder arthroplasty can allow for arthroplasty without the complications of a polyethylene glenoid. Ten-year conversion to total shoulder arthroplasty has been shown in one study to be 12%. Recovery is reported to be slower and requires more rehabilitation than arthroplasty done with glenoid resurfacing. Careful patient selection has been emphasized by the pioneering surgeon.
Question 39High Yield
A 9-year-old boy is examined due to a closed distal forearm fracture. The radius and ulna are both fractured and translated
100%. After manipulation twice with sedation, the translation cannot be reduced. There is 10-mm shortening of the radius and 5- mm shortening of the ulna. The distal radial angulation on the anteroposterior view is 5° less than normal. The next step in treatment should include:
100%. After manipulation twice with sedation, the translation cannot be reduced. There is 10-mm shortening of the radius and 5- mm shortening of the ulna. The distal radial angulation on the anteroposterior view is 5° less than normal. The next step in treatment should include:
Explanation
The translation and shortening are not problems and the amount of angulation will easily remodel with this fracture. There is nothing to be gained from operative reduction.
Question 40High Yield
A 5-year-old boy develops immediate left elbow pain and swelling following a fall from his hover board. His fracture is demonstrated in Figures 1 and
Explanation
■
Buried pins require additional return to the operating room for removal, do not decrease infection rate, or improve outcome. The additional return to the operating room significantly increases cost associated with treatment.
■
Buried pins require additional return to the operating room for removal, do not decrease infection rate, or improve outcome. The additional return to the operating room significantly increases cost associated with treatment.
Question 41High Yield
A 15-year-old white boy presents to your office with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and says his neck was twisted away at the time of fall. He was seen at the local emergency department; skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder x-rays showed no damage. There was no loss of consciousness and he has no chest pain or breathing difficulties. He was observed in the hospital until stable and was referred to follow up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks and scheduled for an electromyogram.
C linical examination reveals weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature is preserved and he can grasp and release and pinch. Sensations are decreased along the distribution of axillary nerve. There is 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of his forearm. Tinel sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report shows fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The parents are concerned and say they have not seen any improvement. The boy reports that he is now able to flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate you notice that he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to âswingâ his elbow into flexion.
The plan of management in this boy 5 months after injury with no clinical improvement should be:
C linical examination reveals weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature is preserved and he can grasp and release and pinch. Sensations are decreased along the distribution of axillary nerve. There is 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of his forearm. Tinel sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report shows fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The parents are concerned and say they have not seen any improvement. The boy reports that he is now able to flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate you notice that he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to âswingâ his elbow into flexion.
The plan of management in this boy 5 months after injury with no clinical improvement should be:
Explanation
Neurotization is appropriate in preganglionic lesions. Around 6 months with no evidence of recovery is ideal time for plexus exploration. Further observation will not change the picture and tendon transfers are reconstructive procedures, which are done at a later stage.
Question 42High Yield
A 52-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has had a plantar foot ulcer under the second metatarsal head for the past week. The patient had a similar ulcer 2 months ago, and total contact casting resulted in healing. Examination reveals no signs of infection. What procedure will best prevent recurrence of the ulcer?
Explanation
The contracted Achilles tendon leads to increased forefoot pressure, thus increasing the risk for ulceration in neuropathic patients. Several studies have shown the benefit of Achilles tendon lengthening to heal and prevent forefoot ulceration in these patients. The flexor hallucis longus transfer is used for chronically torn/deficient Achilles tendons, not a contracted Achilles tendon. The Jones procedure works well for the first ray but does not help to alleviate pressure under the second ray. Peripheral bypass surgery is unnecessary because the ulcer healed during the initial treatment, indicating that the patient has adequate circulation. The posterior tibial tendon transfer is used for foot drop or other neuromuscular conditions to correct deformity and increase function. It is not used for forefoot ulcers in patients with diabetes mellitus.
REFERENCES: Armstrong DG, Stacpoole-Shea S, Nguyen H, et al: Lengthening of the Achilles tendon in diabetic patients who are at high risk for ulceration of the foot. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:535-538.
Meuller MJ, Sinacore DR, Hastings MK, et al: Effect of Achilles tendon lengthening on neuropathic plantar ulcers: A randomized clinical trial. J Bone Joint Surg Am
2003;85:1436-1445.
REFERENCES: Armstrong DG, Stacpoole-Shea S, Nguyen H, et al: Lengthening of the Achilles tendon in diabetic patients who are at high risk for ulceration of the foot. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:535-538.
Meuller MJ, Sinacore DR, Hastings MK, et al: Effect of Achilles tendon lengthening on neuropathic plantar ulcers: A randomized clinical trial. J Bone Joint Surg Am
2003;85:1436-1445.
Question 43High Yield
When performing a supracondylar femoral osteotomy, it is recommended to correct the tibiofemoral angle:
Explanation
Correcting the tibiofemoral angle between 4° to 6° transfers 80% of the weight to the medial angle
Question 44High Yield
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Explanation
- Charcot foot
Question 45High Yield
Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3
A 55-year-old man has severe wrist pain with erythema and soft tissue swelling. The plain radiograph is shown in Slide 1 and a biopsy specimen is shown in Slide 2 and Slide 3. Which of the following would be the best treatment:
A 55-year-old man has severe wrist pain with erythema and soft tissue swelling. The plain radiograph is shown in Slide 1 and a biopsy specimen is shown in Slide 2 and Slide 3. Which of the following would be the best treatment:
Explanation
The plain radiographs show a destructive lesion in the wrist in the distal radius and at the scaphotrapezial joint. The joint spaces are preserved. The histology shows the features of gout: acellular amorphous tissue, macrophages, and giant cells.
Gout is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in tissues typically around joints. Common locations include the great toe, heel, ankle, and knee. In approximately 50% of patients, the first attack is in the great toe. Gout commonly occurs inside a joint for two reasons:
The synovial fluid is a poorer solvent than plasma
Lower temperatures (as in peripheral joints) favor crystallization
Neutrophils ingest the crystals and then release potent lysosomal enzymes. Histologically, the tophi have several features: Acellular amorphous material
Macrophages
Foreign body giant cells
The first line of treatment is nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications. Correct Answer: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
Gout is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in tissues typically around joints. Common locations include the great toe, heel, ankle, and knee. In approximately 50% of patients, the first attack is in the great toe. Gout commonly occurs inside a joint for two reasons:
The synovial fluid is a poorer solvent than plasma
Lower temperatures (as in peripheral joints) favor crystallization
Neutrophils ingest the crystals and then release potent lysosomal enzymes. Histologically, the tophi have several features: Acellular amorphous material
Macrophages
Foreign body giant cells
The first line of treatment is nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications. Correct Answer: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
Question 46High Yield
Figures 1 through 3 demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 25-year-old man who injured his right,
by punching a wall 3 weeks earlier. He notes pain and deformity about the ulnar aspect of his hand. The best treatment option is
---
---
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by punching a wall 3 weeks earlier. He notes pain and deformity about the ulnar aspect of his hand. The best treatment option is
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Explanation
The initial radiographs reveal a fourth and fifth carpometacarpal (CMC) joint fracture dislocation. The injury is associated with a shear fracture of the dorsal rim of the hamate. Further assessment with CT might be helpful in fully evaluating the extent of injury. Extensor carpi ulnaris is a deforming force at the base of the fifth metacarpal. This unstable fracture dislocation could be treated with closed reduction and pinning if the patient presented within a few days of injury. However, because he presented in a delayed fashion (3 weeks after injury), open reduction with internal fixation was required (Figures 4 and 5). In the series by Zhang and associates, patients with fourth and fifth CMC fracture dislocations presenting in a delayed fashion and treated nonsurgically had suboptimal results. Therefore, closed reduction and casting are not appropriate. An arthrodesis and resection arthroplasty are salvage procedures considered for a painful arthritic joint and would less likely should not be considered for this acute injury.
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Question 47High Yield
A 51-year-old man sustains the injury shown in the MRI scan in Figures 1 and 2 following a fall. After a thorough discussion regarding risks and benefits, he elects to proceed with surgery. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for his fracture?
Explanation
The patient has sustained a complex proximal humerus fracture with head split component and multiple articular fragments. When the articular surface is significantly compromised, arthroplasty procedures are favored. The only procedure listed that addresses the damaged humeral head is hemiarthroplasty, making it the correct response. Although a possible option, ORIF would be difficult due to the fragmented humeral head, and there would be a high risk for fracture collapse or avascular necrosis. IM nailing will not provide enough control of the fracture pieces, nor will it replace the damaged articular surface. Closed reduction is not an option given the complex nature of the fracture.
Question 48High Yield
Figure 1 is the axial cut MRI scan of a 35-year-old woman who has had posteriorly based right hip pain
for 3 months. Examination demonstrates full and symmetric range of motion between the right and left hips, negative impingement test, but reproduction of her pain with passive extension of the right hip. Which muscle is indicated by the arrow?
---
for 3 months. Examination demonstrates full and symmetric range of motion between the right and left hips, negative impingement test, but reproduction of her pain with passive extension of the right hip. Which muscle is indicated by the arrow?
---





Explanation
This patient has ischiofemoral impingement, in which there is abnormal contact between the lesser trochanter and the lateral border of the ischium. Patients typically present with posteriorly based hip pain and do not respond to intra-articular diagnostic injections. Examination can demonstrate pain with long strides, pain with palpation over the area, as well as reproduction of symptoms with the patient in the contralateral decubitus position and taking the affected hip into passive extension (ischiofemoral impingement test). MRI demonstrates a narrowed ischiofemoral space, as well as increased signal within the quadratus femoris muscle. The diagnosis can be confirmed with a diagnostic injection into this area. Treatment is typically nonsurgical, with surgical intervention consisting of resection of the lesser _trochanter reserved for refractory cases._
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Question 49High Yield
During fracture repair systemiCas well as local factors come into play. Which of the following is considered a systemiCfactor in fracture healing:
Explanation
The degree of vascular injury is considered a local factor in fracture healing. Other such factors include degree of local trauma, type of bone affected, degree of bone loss, degree of immoblization, infection and local pathologiCconditions. SystemiCfactors include age of the patient, hormone function, functional activity, nerve function and nutritional state
Question 50High Yield
In Ewing’s sarcoma, neoplastic properties are thought to be related to a
Explanation
DISCUSSION: In 95% of patients with Ewing’s sarcoma, there is a translocation, t(l 1:22). This results in EWS/FLI-1 transcription factor that results in tumor cell proliferation. Other mechanisms causing
2010 Pediatric Orthopaedic Examination Answer Book • 47
tumor cell proliferation include inactivation of tumor suppressor genes, or activation of proto-oncogenes.
REFERENCES: Arndt CA, Crist WM: Common musculoskeletal tumors of childhood and adolescence. N Engl J Med 1999;341:342-352.
Pierz KA, Womer RB, Dormans JP: Pediatric bone tumors: Osteosarcoma Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma associated with multiple hereditary osteochondromatosis. J Pediatr Orthop 2001
;21:412- 418.
DISCUSSION: In 95% of patients with Ewing’s sarcoma, there is a translocation, t(l 1:22). This results in EWS/FLI-1 transcription factor that results in tumor cell proliferation. Other mechanisms causing
2010 Pediatric Orthopaedic Examination Answer Book • 47
tumor cell proliferation include inactivation of tumor suppressor genes, or activation of proto-oncogenes.
REFERENCES: Arndt CA, Crist WM: Common musculoskeletal tumors of childhood and adolescence. N Engl J Med 1999;341:342-352.
Pierz KA, Womer RB, Dormans JP: Pediatric bone tumors: Osteosarcoma Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma associated with multiple hereditary osteochondromatosis. J Pediatr Orthop 2001
;21:412- 418.
Detailed Chapters & Topics
Dive deeper into specialized chapters regarding updated-orthopedic-mcqs
01
Chapter 1
97 min
Ssee General Orthopedics Board Review | Dr Hutaif Gener -...
02
Chapter 2
97 min
Comprehensive Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Ort -...
03
Chapter 3
86 min
Comprehensive Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Ort -...
04
Chapter 4
100 min
Orthopedic Sports Medic Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medic -...
05
Chapter 5
100 min
Orthopedic Oncology/Tum Review | Dr Hutaif Orthopedic O -...
06
Chapter 6
83 min
Orthopedic Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medicine Rev -...
07
Chapter 7
106 min
Orthopedic Upper Limb Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthop -...
08
Chapter 8
49 min
Orthopedic With Answers Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
09
Chapter 9
44 min
Orthopedic With Answer Peds Review | Dr Hutaif Pediatri -...
10
Chapter 10
108 min
Orthopedic With Answer Sh Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
11
Chapter 11
105 min
Orthopedic With Answers Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
12
Chapter 12
86 min
Orthopedic With Answers Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
13
Chapter 13
103 min
Orthopedic With Answer Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports - ...
14
Chapter 14
97 min
Orthopedic With Answers Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
15
Chapter 15
76 min
Orthopedic With Answer Pa Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
16
Chapter 16
118 min
Orthopedic With Answer Upper L Review | Dr Hutaif Gener -...
17
Chapter 17
91 min
Orthopedic With Answer An Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
18
Chapter 18
106 min
Orthopedic With Answer Sp Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
19
Chapter 19
53 min
Orthopedic With Answer Hi Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
20
Chapter 20
122 min
Orthopedic With Answer Pe Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...
21
Chapter 21
138 min
100 Random Orthopedic MCQs for Board Prep (2026 Update)
22
Chapter 22
225 min
100 Random Orthopedic MCQs for Board Prep (2026 Update)
23
Chapter 23
126 min
Ortho Free Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
24
Chapter 24
48 min
Ortho Free Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
25
Chapter 25
47 min
Ortho Free Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
26
Chapter 26
57 min
Ortho Free Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
27
Chapter 27
102 min
Ortho Sport Sports Medicine Board Review | Dr Hutaif Sp -...
28
Chapter 28
44 min
Orthopedic O Upper Extremity Review | Dr Hutaif General -...
29
Chapter 29
62 min
Orthopedic Upper Extrem Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
30
Chapter 30
38 min
Orthopedic Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medicine Rev -...
31
Chapter 31
125 min
Orthopedic Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medicine Rev -...
32
Chapter 32
49 min
Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revi -...
33
Chapter 33
349 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
34
Chapter 34
214 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
35
Chapter 35
83 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
36
Chapter 36
51 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
37
Chapter 37
147 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
38
Chapter 38
44 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
39
Chapter 39
52 min
Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...
40
Chapter 40
62 min
Orthopedic A Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Rev -...
41
Chapter 41
47 min
Hb Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Re -...
42
Chapter 42
56 min
Orthopedic Ban Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics R -...
43
Chapter 43
56 min
Orthopedic Ban Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics R -...
44
Chapter 44
76 min
Advanced Sports Orthopedics MCQs: Comprehensive Online Study & Exam Bank
45
Chapter 45
64 min
Approaches Orthopedic B Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
46
Chapter 46
50 min
Orthopedic On Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Re -...
47
Chapter 47
60 min
Arab Board Orthopedic B Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...
48
Chapter 48
59 min
Orthopedic Improve Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...
49
Chapter 49
62 min