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Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...

Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revi -...

14 Apr 2026 49 min read 133 Views

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This interactive board review contains 100 randomly selected orthopedic surgery questions with clinical images, immediate feedback, and detailed references.

Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthop...
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Question 1High Yield
In the injury shown in Figures 1 and 2, what ligament remains intact?
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Explanation
Perilunate dislocations result from high-energy injuries to the extended wrist. The injury shown is a lunate dislocation. Two classification systems have been described, the Mayfield system and the Herzberg system. Mayfield described the four stages of progressive ligamentous instability following injury. In stage I, the radioscaphocapitate and scapholunate ligaments fail. Stage II involves dislocation of the lunocapitate joint, usually a dorsal dislocation of the capitate. In stage III, the lunotriquetral ligament fails. In stage IV, the dorsal radiocarpal ligament is torn, and the lunate dislocates volarly. The short radiolunate ligament is the only ligament that remains intact, resulting in rotation of the lunate volarly. Herzberg and associates further classified perilunate dislocations as stage I injuries and lunate dislocations as stage II injuries. Lunate dislocations were further classified into stage IIA, in which the lunate exhibits rotation less than 90°, and stage IIB, in which the lunate exhibits rotation greater than 90°. The radiographs _represent a Mayfield stage IV, Herzberg stage IIA injury._
Question 2High Yield
What is the most common mode of failure of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament associated with an elbow dislocation?
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is often injured with elbow dislocations, and is most commonly injured at the proximal origin.
McKee noted that in 62 consecutive operative elbow dislocations and fracture/dislocations, the LUCL was ruptured in all of the patients, proximally in 32, bony avulsion proximally in 5, midsubstance rupture in 18, ulnar detachment in 3, ulnar bony avulsion in only 1, and combined patterns in 3.
Pugh et al established a standard protocol to treat elbow fracture dislocations (terrible triad) which includes coronoid repair, radial head repair/replacement, LUCL repair, and MCL and/or external fixation as needed.
Question 3High Yield
A 50-year-old man fell from a height of 10 feet and sustained an axial loading injury to the cervical spine.He reports neck pain and right upper extremity weakness and has weakness in the lower extremities.An MRI scan is shown Figure 67. What imaging study should be obtained next to further evaluate this patient?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a C7 burst fracture. A CT scan of the cervical spine will allow for optimal evaluation of this C7 burst fracture. Specifically, it will provide additional osseous detail and will assist with the detection of additional fractures,
including those of the posterior elements. Additional CT imaging of the thoracic and lumbar spine is required to rule out concommitant injuries (which may be present in 10% to 15% of patients). Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs would be a good option for further evaluation but are not included in the available choices here.
Cervical spine flexion and extension radiographs should not be obtained in a patient who is known to have a relatively unstable spine and a neurologic deficit. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies are best used to evaluate for cervical radiculopathy secondary to degenerative abnormalities and are usually not indicated in the acute trauma setting.
Question 4High Yield
Which of the following radiographs demonstrate fracture fixation with buttress plating?




Explanation
Figure A is a lateral radiograph of the knee demonstrating a plate buttressing a posteromedial tibial plateau fracture.
Buttress plating is a construct that resists axial load by applying force at 90° to the axis of deformity. Compression plates function by compressing together the main fragments of a single fracture plane. They can result in absolute stability by eliminating interfragmentary movement. Neutralization plates protect fractures that are fixed with primary lag screw fixation. The lag screw exerts interfragmentary compression and the plate resists or neutralizes bending and rotational forces. Bridge plating is a technique which spans comminuted fractures and is attached to the main fragments. It is used to restore length, alignment, and rotation. It preserves the biology of the comminuted areas and allows for secondary bone healing and callus formation.
Zheng et al. performed a biomechanical study to examine four different fixation methods of posteromedial tibial plateau fractures. They stabilized 28 tibial models randomly with anteroposterior lag-screws, an anteromedial limited contact dynamic compression plate (LC-DCP), a lateral locking plate, or a posterior T-shaped buttress plate. They measured vertical subsidence and maximum load to failure. They found that the posterior T-shaped buttress plate allowed the least subsidence of the posteromedial fragment and produced the highest mean failure load.
Ratcliff et al. performed a study to compare the mechanical stability of a medial tibial plateau fracture model secured with a lateral locking periarticular plate versus a medial buttress plate in cyclic testing and load to failure. They created fractures in 6 matched pairs of fresh cadaveric tibias and randomly selected fixation. They found neither the mean maximum displacement during nor mean residual displacement after cyclic testing were statistically different, but the medial buttress plate constructs provided greater fixation strength with a greater load to failure. They conclude the medial buttress plate provides significantly greater stability in static loading.
Figure A is a lateral radiograph of the knee demonstrating a plate fixation of a posteromedial tibial plateau fracture. Figure B is an AP radiograph of the tibia and fibula demonstrating a tibia fracture stabilized with a plate. A fracture of the fibula is noted as well. Figure C is a lateral radiograph of the wrist demonstrating a dorsal spanning plate stabilizing a comminuted distal radius fracture. Figure D is an AP radiograph of the forearm demonstrating plate fixation of radial and ulnar shaft fractures. Figure E is a lateral of the wrist demonstrating lag screw and plate fixation of a radial shaft fracture.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 2: The plate is stabilizing this fracture with a bridging technique which leads to relative stability and secondary bone healing.
Answer 3: The plate is stabilizing this fracture with a bridging technique which leads to relative stability and secondary bone healing.
Answer 4: These plates are functioning as compression plates which leads to absolute stability and primary bone healing.
Answer 5: Given the presence of a lag screw, this plate is functioning as a neutralization plate which leads to absolute stability and primary bone healing.
Question 5High Yield
The radiographic abnormality seen on the lateral radiograph characteristic of scapholunate instability is:
Explanation
On a lateral view of the wrist, when the lunate slips into a statically dorsiflexed position greater than 10°, the condition is defined as dorsal intercalated segmental instability (DISI). DISI deformity is also present when the scapholunate angle is greater than 60 degrees (45+/- 15 degrees is normal). The VISI deformity is seen on the lateral radiograph is characteristic of lunotriquetral dissociation. The other signs are seen on the anteroposterior projection.
Question 6High Yield
A 38-year-old man is involved in a moderate speed motor vehicle collision. He is hemodynamically stable in the emergency room. He is noted to have a single right-sided rib fracture, left clavicle fracture, and the injury depicted in figures A-D. The injury is closed and he is neurovascularly intact. He is placed in a knee immobilizer. The next morning there is moderate swelling and fracture blisters on the lateral aspect of the knee. What is the next best step in management?



Explanation
The patient has a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture extending to the diaphysis (Schatzker VI). Given his swelling and fracture blisters, the most appropriate next step would be knee-spanning external fixation.
High energy injuries of the tibia are often accompanied by significant soft tissue damage and swelling. Tibial plateau fractures, and more often pilon fractures, with significant swelling or fracture blisters are best managed acutely with external fixation to allow swelling to improve before definitive fixation. This strategy, which typically applies more often to pilon fractures, helps to limit infection and wound healing complications.
Reahl et al. retrospectively reviewed 419 patients who underwent surgical management of tibial plateau fractures to determine risk factors for subsequent surgery for knee stiffness. They found that amount of time spent in external fixation and bilateral tibial plateau fractures were independent risk factors for need for later surgery for knee stiffness.
Egol et al. investigated a staged treatment protocol for high energy tibial plateau fractures. Initial treatment was with knee-spanning external fixation followed by definitive fixation at an average of 15 days later. While wound complications were low (5%), they do cite a potential downside of increased knee stiffness.
Figures A-D are knee x-rays and CT scan showing a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture with significant comminution.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1,2: A long leg splint or bivalve cast will not help maintain length and is not the most appropriate next step. Acute casting of a high energy fracture is not recommended
Answer 4,5: The presence of fracture blisters and soft tissue swelling indicate that immediate ORIF is not the most appropriate next step.
Question 7High Yield
Which treatment regimen for Ewing sarcoma most effectively controls disease?
Explanation
Patients with Ewing sarcoma need chemotherapy to treat micrometastatic disease. Historical outcomes of patients who receive local control alone without chemotherapy are dismal. Chemotherapy alone, however, is not adequate to control local bulky disease. Local control options include radiation therapy or wide surgical resection. Historically, it was believed that surgery should be recommended for expendable bones to minimize morbidity. More recent data support improved outcomes (vs outcomes associated with radiation alone to the primary site of disease) for patients who undergo wide surgical resection; consequently, chemotherapy plus wide surgical resection is the most effective regimen.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
19. [Rodriguez-Galindo C, Spunt SL, Pappo AS. Treatment of Ewing sarcoma family of tumors: current status and outlook for the future. Med Pediatr Oncol. 2003 May;40(5):276-87. Review. Erratum in: Med Pediatr Oncol. 2003 Dec;41(6):594. PubMed PMID: 12652615. ](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12652615)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12652615)
20. Bacci G, Toni A, Avella M, Manfrini M, Sudanese A, Ciaroni D, Boriani S, Emiliani E, Campanacci
[M. Long-term results in 144 localized Ewing's sarcoma patients treated with combined therapy. Cancer. 1989 Apr 15;63(8):1477-86. PubMed PMID: 2924256. ](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2924256)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2924256)
21. [Maheshwari AV, Cheng EY. Ewing sarcoma family of tumors. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2010 Feb;18(2):94-107. Review. PubMed PMID: 20118326. ](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20118326)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20118326)
22. Weis L. Ewing’s Sarcoma. In: Simon MA, Springfield D, eds. _Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors_. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott-Raven; 1998:287-298.
23. DuBois SG, Krailo MD, Gebhardt MC, Donaldson SS, Marcus KJ, Dormans J, Shamberger RC, Sailer S, Nicholas RW, Healey JH, Tarbell NJ, Randall RL, Devidas M, Meyer JS, Granowetter L, Womer RB, Bernstein M, Marina N, Grier HE. Comparative evaluation of local control strategies in localized
Ewing sarcoma of bone: a report from the Children's Oncology Group. Cancer. 2015 Feb 1;121(3):467-
[75/. doi: 10.1002/cncr.29065. Epub 2014 Sep 23. PubMed PMID: 25251206. ](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25251206)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25251206)
Question 8High Yield
A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the long term differences between possible treatment options for this injury?
Explanation
Elderly patients with femoral neck fractures (FNF) undergoing total hip arthroplasty (THA) are less likely to require reoperation than those undergoing internal fixation.
Intracapsular FNF are common in elderly patients after a fall from standing height. Treatment depends on physiological age and displacement (Garden's classification). For displaced fractures, physiologically young patients are treated with internal fixation while physiologically old patients are treated with
either hemiarthroplasty (debilitated, less active patients) or THA (more active patients, those with acetabular disease or preexisting inflammatory arthritis).
Chammout et al. retrospectively compared the long term (17 years) results of THA (cemented both component) and ORIF (2 cannulated screws) in elderly patients (>65 years). They found no difference in mortality. But hip scores were higher and pain was better in the THA group, while reoperation rates were higher in the ORIF group. Walking speed was initially faster in the THA group, but later did not differ between groups. They recommend THA for elderly patients with displaced FNF.
Rogmark et al. prospectively compared closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) with arthroplasty (combining hemiarthroplasty and THA) at 2 years in elderly patients (>70 years). Failure rates were higher, pain was worse, and walking was more impaired after CRIF. They recommend arthroplasty for patients >70 with FNF.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Patients undergoing THA are more likely to have less pain than internal fixation.
Answer 3: Patients undergoing THA have superior functional outcome scores. Answer 4: Patients undergoing THA perform ADL better in the short term. In the long term, there is no difference in ADL between the groups.
Answer 5: Mortality rates are similar after the two procedures.
Question 9High Yield
A 12-year-old boy with hemophilia A has a painless mass in his thigh. The femur is eroded anterolaterally and there is a large overlying soft tissue mass. Magnetic resonance imaging shows a 5 cm x 7 cm mass arising from the bone. The most likely diagnosis is:
Explanation
A pseudotumor is a hemophilic subperiosteal hematoma. The pseudotumor expands by repeated bleeds and increasing osmotic pressure.
There was no periosteal reaction or intralesional calcification.
The bone wall itself is not expanded as in aneurysmal bone cyst.
There is nothing in the physical examination or patient history to point to infection.
Question 10High Yield
Figures 64a and 64b are the clinical photographs of a 46-year-old man with diabetes who has wound drainage and worsening hand pain. Which treatment is most appropriate?



Explanation
This patient has the classic appearance of a collar button hand abscess. Although antibiotics, soaks, and elevation are important interventions, surgery is required. This infection rarely evolves into a flexor tenosynovitis, so decompression of the flexor tendon sheath is not indicated. Both volar and dorsal incisions often are required to effectively drain the abscess. Amputation is not appropriate as first-line treatment.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
26. McDonald LS, Bavaro MF, Hofmeister EP, Kroonen LT. Hand infections. J Hand Surg Am. 2011 Aug;36(8):1403-12. doi: 10.1016/j.jhsa.2011.05.035. Review. PubMed PMID: 21816297.
27. Osterman M, Draeger R, Stern P. Acute hand infections. J Hand Surg Am. 2014 Aug;39(8):1628-35; quiz 1635. doi: 10.1016/j.jhsa.2014.03.031. Review. PubMed PMID: 25070032.
**
Question 11High Yield
Which 2 tendons are identified in the dissection shown in Video 92?
Explanation
- Semitendinosus and gracilis
The demonstration in Video 92 shows the tendons of the semitendinosus and gracilis muscles. They insert on the tibia deep to the sartorial fascia. The semimembranosus inserts more proximal and posterior on the tibia.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
1. Babb JR, Detterline AJ, Noyes FR. AAOS Orthopaedic Video Theater. The Key to the Knee: A Layer-by-Layer Video Demonstration of Medial and Anterior Anatomy. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2009.
2. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P. Surgical Exposures in Orthopedics. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003:493-568.
Question 12High Yield
A 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher has had pain in the axillary region of his dominant shoulder for the past several weeks. While throwing a pitch during a game, he notes a sharp pulling sensation with a “pop” in his shoulder. Examination the following day reveals tenderness along the posterior axillary fold and pain and weakness with resisted extension of the shoulder. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Explanation
Injury to the latissimus dorsi tendon recently has been reported as a cause of pain in the thrower’s shoulder. The etiology of this injury is felt to be eccentric overload during the follow-through of the throwing motion. Recommended management for this unusual injury consists of a short period of rest, followed by physical therapy to restore shoulder motion and strength. Throwing is allowed when the athlete demonstrates full, pain-free motion and good strength and balance of the rotator cuff and scapular rotator muscles. Currently there are no defined indications for surgical repair.
REFERENCES: Schickendantz MS, Ho CP, Keppler L, et al: MR imaging of the thrower’s shoulder: Internal impingement, latissimus dorsi/subscapularis strains and related injuries.
Magn Reson Imaging Clin N Am 1999;7:39-49.
Livesey JP, Brownson P, Wallace WA: Traumatic latissimus dorsi: Tendon rupture. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:642-644.
Question 13High Yield
Which of the following statements is true of demineralized bone matrix:
Explanation
Demineralized bone matrix is weakly osteoinductive.
The term osteogenic refers to direct transmittal of cells capable of making bone. Demineralized bone matrix is not osteogenic.
Demineralized bone matrix varies in efficacy between different forms and different methods of sterilization. The term osteoconduction refers to provision of a favorable scaffold and environment for bone formation. Demineralized bone matrix is osteoconductive.
Question 14High Yield
The daily elemental calcium requirement for a pregnant woman is:
Explanation
The guidelines for the daily elemental calcium requirement are as follows:
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,500 mg
Question 15High Yield
Figure 68 shows the view from a posterosuperior shoulder arthroscopic portal. The muscle associated with the tendinous structure shown is innervated by what nerve? ](http://www.orthobullets.com/anatomy/10017/biceps-brachii)
Explanation
No detailed explanation provided for this question.
Question 16High Yield
1217) A 55-year-old male sustained the injury in Figure A. His injury was complicated by an acute compartment syndrome. He underwent external fixation of his extremity and four compartment fasciotomy. When should the treatment shown in Figure B be performed to minimize the risk of infection?

Explanation
The timing of definitive fixation of tibial plateau fractures in patients with fasciotomies has no impact on infection risk.
The incidence of compartment syndrome is high in tibial plateau fractures. In the presence of tense anterior and lateral tibial compartments, combined with pain with passive stretch of involved muscles or unrelenting pain, compartment pressures should be measured and fasciotomies performed when necessary.
Schatzker type V and VI fractures are more likely to have this potential complication. Examination of leg compartments should be repeated at regular intervals because compartment syndrome may occur 24 hours or more after injury.
Zura et al. performed a study to analyze whether there is an association between infection and the timing of definitive fracture fixation in relation to fasciotomy closure or coverage. They found that no statistical difference in the rate of infection when tibial plateau fractures with four-compartment fasciotomies were treated with open reduction and internal fixation before fasciotomy closure, at fasciotomy closure, or after fasciotomy closure. They conclude that timing of definitive fracture treatment can be determined by the medical condition of the patient.
Shah et al. performed a retrospective chart review of all bicondylar tibial plateau fractures that had fixation with two incisions. They reported an infection rate of 13.8% which is lower than historical reports. They concluded that the lower infection rate was due to their treatment algorithm that requires recovery of the soft tissue envelope prior to definitive fixation.
Figure A demonstrates a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture. Figure B demonstrates fixation of a tibial plateau fracture through a dual plating technique.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1, 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as infection risk is unchanged with timing of definitive fracture fixation.
Question 17High Yield
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 51-year-old active man who injured his right shoulder after a fall while sailing 4 days ago. Optimal surgical management of the patient’s pathology is expected to involve
35
Explanation
The MRI scans show a full-thickness tear of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and medial subluxation of the long head of biceps tendon. Teres minor appears intact on the images. Although the tear of the subscapularis is not as well-visualized, medial subluxation of the long head of biceps is reliably correlated with a subscapularis tear.
Question 18High Yield
Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of a 65-year-old right-hand dominant man who has finger contracture and stiffness. He experiences minimal pain but has severe functional limitations and elects for treatment with injectable collagenase _Clostridium histolyticum_. What types of collagen will be affected by this injection?
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Explanation
Type II collagen is the predominant type found in articular cartilage. Type IV collagen is the predominant type found in the basement membranes of neurovascular structures. Collagenase _Clostridium_ __histolyticum__ _injection targets type I and type III collagen._
Question 19High Yield
Computer navigation in total knee arthroplasty (TKA) has demonstrated which of the following?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Computer navigation has been shown to improve the accuracy of placement of TKA components with fewer outliers. However, the surgical time and cost are increased. No studies to date have demonstrated improved clinical outcomes or implant survivorship.

REFERENCE: Haaker RG, Stockheim M, Kamp M, et al: Computer-assisted navigation increases precision of component placement in total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;433:152-159.
Question 20High Yield
Which of the following has been associated with an increased likelihood of stress shielding after cementless total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Although stress shielding has not been associated with adverse clinical outcomes to date, it is a commonly observed process after cementless total hip arthroplasty. Factors that increase the magnitude of stress shielding include the use of distally fixed cobalt-chrome stems, particularly in patients with osteoporosis. Large diameter femoral components (larger than 18 mm in diameter) have also been associated with an increased prevalence of stress shielding.

REFERENCE: Barrack RL, Booth RE Jr, Lonner JH, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 345-368.
Question 21High Yield
Internal impingement is characterized by which of the following anatomic lesions?

Explanation
DISCUSSION: Internal impingement is characterized by articular-sided partial-thickness rotator cuff tears and superior glenoid labral tears. The capsule is characterized by laxity anteriorly and tightness posteriorly.

Scientific References

    : Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, p 82.
    Burkhart SS, Morgan CD, Kibler WB: The disabled throwing shoulder: Spectrum of pathology. Part I:
    Pathoanatomy and biomechanics. Arthroscopy 2003;19:404-420.

    Figure 27
Question 22High Yield
Figures 33a and 33b show the standing posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 59-year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She underwent a prior decompressive laminectomy and fusion at L4-S1 to address lumbar stenosis. She now reports progressive lower back pain and a feeling of being shifted to the right. If surgical intervention is considered, what is the most important goal in improving her healthrelated quality of life (HRQL) outcomes?
Explanation
Sagittal balance is the most reliable predictor of clinical symptoms and HRQL outcomes on the SRS 29, SF-12, and Oswestry Disability Index. Coronal balance, shoulder balance,curve magnitude, and degree of curve correction are less critical in determining clinical symptoms and outcomes.
Question 23High Yield
A 21-year-old football player had severe pain and immediate swelling in the left anteromedial chest wall while bench pressing near maximal weights several days ago. Examination at the time of injury revealed a mass on the anteromedial chest wall. Follow-up examination now reveals decreased swelling, and axillary webbing is observed. The patient has weakness to adduction and forward flexion. The injured muscle originates from the
Explanation
The patient has a pectoralis major rupture, an injury that occurs most commonly during weight lifting. Grade III injuries represent complete tears of either the musculotendinous junction or an avulsion of the tendon from the humerus, the most common injury site. Examination will most likely reveal ecchymoses and swelling in the proximal arm and axilla, and strength testing will show weakness with internal rotation and in adduction and forward flexion. Axillary webbing, caused by a more defined inferior margin of the anterior deltoid as the result of rupture of the pectoralis, can be seen as the swelling diminishes. Surgical repair is the treatment of choice for complete ruptures. Nonsurgical treatment is associated with significant losses in adduction, flexion, internal rotation, strength, and peak torque. The pectoralis major originates from the proximal clavicle and the border of the sternum, including ribs two through six. The pectoralis major inserts (rather than originates) on the humerus. The coracoid process is the insertion site for the pectoralis minor, as well as the origin for the conjoined tendon. The pectoralis major has no attachment or origin from the scapula. The anterior deltoid originates from the lateral one third of the clavicle and the anterior acromion.
REFERENCES: Miller MD, Johnson DL, Fu FH, Thaete FL, Blanc RO: Rupture of the pectoralis major muscle in a collegiate football player: Use of magnetic resonance imaging in early diagnosis. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:475-477.
Wolfe SW, Wickiewicz TL, Cavanaugh JT: Ruptures of the pectoralis major muscle: An anatomic and clinical analysis. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:587-593.
Question 24High Yield
Treatment should address predictable
Explanation
- instability of the fracture.
Question 25High Yield
Figure 84


Explanation
- Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding_
Question 26High Yield
The ideal range of micromotion to stimulate bone ingrowth into cementless implants is:
Explanation
Ideal values of micromotion that stimulate bone ingrowth are 28 microns to 150 microns. Values greater than 150 microns are associated with fibrous ingrowth
Question 27High Yield
A 35-year-old woman is bitten on her left index finger by a snake in her backyard. Management of snake bites includes all of the following except:
Explanation
There are different snake bite protocols depending on the species of snake. However, common steps in all snake bite protocols include keeping the patient emotionally and physically still, calling for help immediately, applying a moderately tight tourniquet proximally to prevent further spread of venom, and capture or identification of the snake. Local injection of the antivenin in the fingers or toes is contraindicated.
Question 28High Yield
The abrupt appearance of which of the following collagens heralds the onset of ossification in the physis:
Explanation
The terminal hypertrophiCchondrocytes in the hypertrophiCzone produce Type X collagen. The appearance of Type X collagen heralds ossification. Remember that Type II collagen is the most abundant collagen in the hypertrophiCzone
Question 29High Yield
During the course of a revision total knee arthroplasty via a medial parapatellar exposure, the surgeon does a complete intra-articular release and synovectomy but exposure is still inadequate. A quadriceps snip is performed and, at the end of the procedure, the knee is stable throughout a range of motion and the postoperative radiographs show acceptable alignment of the components. The patient’s postoperative physical therapy regimen should include which of the following?


Explanation

**DISCUSSION** : A quadriceps snip is performed by extending a medial parapatellar approach superiorly and laterally across the quadriceps tendon. It is then repaired primarily at the end of the procedure. The primary advantage of this technique over other surgical maneuvers that improve exposure at the time of revision total knee arthroplasty is that the postoperative regimen for physical therapy does not need to be altered.

**

Scientific References

    : Younger AS, Duncan CP, Masri BA: Surgical exposures in revision total knee arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:55-64.
    Della Valle CJ, Berger RA, Rosenberg AG: Surgical exposures in revision total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2006;446:59-68.
    Barrack RL, Smith P, Munn B, et al: The Ranawat Award. Comparison of surgical approaches in total knee
    arthroplasty. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1998;356:16-21.

    Question 2
    A healthy 72-year-old woman is seen 14 days after cemented total knee arthroplasty. She reports increasing pain and swelling for the last 4 days accompanied by 4 days of wound drainage. Examination reveals that she is afebrile, and has erythema and moderate serosanguinous drainage from the wound. The knee is moderately swollen. Aspiration of the knee reveals no organisms on Gram stain. Culture results are expected back in 48 hours. Optimal management should consist of

    1. ### initiation of a first-generation cephalosporin while awaiting culture results.
    2. ### initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics while awaiting culture results.
    3. ### ultrasound to evaluate for fluid collection around the knee.
    4. ### surgical debridement of the knee before culture results are available.
    5. ### inpatient observation and no antibiotics until culture results are available.

    PREFERRED RESPONSE: 4**

    **DISCUSSION** : Increased pain, swelling, erythema, and drainage 2 weeks removed from the primary arthroplasty are all signs of a probable infection. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein may not be helpful as they are elevated postoperatively even in the absence of infection. Even in the absence of infection, persistent wound drainage is an indication for surgical debridement to prevent subsequent infection. When a postoperative infection is easily recognized by clinical examination, there is no need to wait for a positive culture before proceeding with debridement.

    REFERENCES: Weiss AP, Krackow KA: Persistent wound drainage after primary total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1993;8:285-289.
    Jaberi FM, Parvizi J, Haytmanek CT, et al: Procrastination of wound drainage and malnutrition affect the outcome of joint arthroplasty. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2008;466:1368-1371.
    Insall JN, Windsor RE, Scott, WN: Surgery of the Knee, ed 2. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1993, pp 959-964.

    Figure 3a Figure 3b

Question 30High Yield
Figure 1 is the axial MRI scan of a 45-year-old brick mason who experienced acute right elbow pain after attempting to lift a wheelbarrow. Examination reveals pain and swelling in the antecubital fossa, weakness with forearm supination, and an abnormal hook test. The surgeon performs an anterior repair with two anchors. Three months after surgery, the patient has appropriate strength and range of motion but reports persistent radiating paresthesias along the radial side of the forearm. What is the best next step in management?
Explanation
This is a classic presentation of an acute traumatic distal biceps tendon rupture. In the dominant extremity of a manual laborer, this injury can result in approximately 40% loss of supination strength. Although not required, an MRI scan can confirm
the diagnosis. In general, a single incision anterior or two incision anterior/ posterior repair can be utilized for surgical intervention with similar success rates. Although the percentage of complications is similar between surgical approaches, the type of complications can vary. Anterior only repairs have a
20
higher risk of traction injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) secondary to the degree of retraction required for exposure in muscular patients. Posterior repairs have a higher risk for radiographic heterotopic bone formation. Fortunately, most LABC injuries are neuropraxias and resolve with observation, but resolution may take up to 6 months. In this case, ongoing observation is appropriate, with surgical exploration being considered only in chronic cases. Patients should be appropriately counseled about this issue prior to surgery.
Question 31High Yield
While attempting to recreate the inclination of the distal radius during volar fixation of an intra-articular sagittal split fracture, use of intraoperative fluoroscopic imaging in the position shown in Figure 1 would be helpful in showing
Explanation
The image demonstrates a rotational fluoroscopic view of the lateral distal radius while attempting to recreate the inclination of the distal radius. This view is most useful to ensure against intra-articular screw penetration. The overall alignment of the joint surface is best viewed with a posteroanterior tilt of 11 degrees. The alignment of the sigmoid notch is not seen well on lateral images. Carpal alignment is seen
well on lateral images. Dorsal screw penetration is best viewed dynamically with a flexed wrist tangential _view._
Question 32High Yield
Which of the following is an advantage of unreamed nailing of the tibia compared to reamed nailing?
Explanation
The debate between reamed versus unreamed intramedullary nailing of the tibia continues. Although unreamed nailing was proposed for open fractures to minimize infection, its simplicity made it appealing for closed fractures. However, most studies to date show that the only advantage of unreamed nailing is less surgical time. All studies show higher nonunion rates with increased hardware failure and increased time to union for unreamed nailing. Even in open fractures graded up to Gustilo Grade IIIA, the reamed tibial nail performs better.
REFERENCES: Larsen LB, Madsen JE, Hoiness PR, et al: Should insertion of intramedullary nails for tibial fractures be with or without reaming? A prospective, randomized study with 3.8 years’ follow-up. J Orthop Trauma 2004;18:144-149.
Blachut PA, O’Brien PJ, Meek RN, et al: Interlocking intramedullary nailing with or without reaming for the treatment of closed fractures of the tibial shaft: A prospective randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:640-646.
Question 33High Yield
What is the goal of surgical treatment in this scenario?
Explanation
This patient has a metastatic neuroendocrine tumor. Surgical treatment should prioritize palliation of her symptoms. She has high-grade spinal cord compression without neurologic signs or symptoms. Steroids are beneficial for patients with high-grade spinal cord compression caused by tumors, and these drugs should be administered in the acute setting. This patient was appropriately initially treated with conventional radiation. However, she is not a candidate for further radiation because of spinal cord tolerance limits and insufficient clearance between the tumor and spinal cord. Consequently, stereotactic radiation is not an option.
The goal of surgical treatment of this tumor should be palliation of her symptoms rather than cure. A costotransversectomy approach offers the advantage of ventral and dorsal spinal cord access, which is necessary in this case. A sternotomy or transthoracic approach would offer ventral access, but dorsal access would be less than optimal.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
[Rose PS, Buchowski JM. Metastatic disease in the thoracic and lumbar spine: evaluation and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2011 Jan;19(1):37-48. Review. PubMed PMID: 21205766.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21205766)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21205766)
Rades D, Abrahm JL. The role of radiotherapy for metastatic epidural spinal cord compression. Nat Rev Clin Oncol. 2010 Oct;7(10):590-8. doi: 10.1038/nrclinonc.2010.137. Epub 2010 Aug
[31/. Review. PubMed PMID: 20808299. ](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20808299)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20808299)
Question 34High Yield
Which surgical procedure should be considered for treatment of chronic plantar fasciitis?
Explanation
Imaging studies in the evaluation of plantar fasciitis should always include weight-bearing foot radiographs to reveal alignment and exclude calcaneal stress fracture, tumor, subtalar arthritis, and insertional posterior spurs. MRI is occasionally indicated in problematic cases. Ultrasound can be helpful to evaluate thickening and disease in the proximal plantar fascia. Ultrasound is quick and much more cost effective than MRI. Laboratory screenings to evaluate inflammatory arthritis are indicated only for patients with bilateral heel pain who may be more likely to have systemic disease.
In the nonsurgical treatment of plantar fasciitis, high-impact loading exercises may make the condition worse. Corticosteroid injections may provide short-term relief only and can occasionally cause plantar fascia rupture. They should be used with caution. PRP injections are expensive and currently not covered by insurance. Studies have not demonstrated long-term pain relief with PRP. Plantar fascia-specific stretching has been shown more effective than Achilles tendon stretching alone.
Surgical treatment is indicated for fewer than 5% of patients. It is not necessary to resect the heel spur because the spur is not attached to the plantar fascia and rarely contributes to a patient's pain. The open extensile approach is associated with a much longer recovery than the open or endoscopic approaches and is no longer justified. Multiple studies have demonstrated the efficacy of endoscopic and open plantar fasciotomy techniques.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Bader L, Park K, Gu Y, O'Malley MJ. Functional outcome of endoscopic plantar fasciotomy. Foot Ankle Int. 2012 Jan;33(1):37-43. doi: 10.3113/FAI.2012.0037. PubMed PMID:
[22381234.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22381234)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22381234)
Lareau CR, Sawyer GA, Wang JH, DiGiovanni CW. Plantar and medial heel pain: diagnosis and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2014 Jun;22(6):372-80. doi: 10.5435/JAAOS-22-06-
[372/. PubMed PMID: 24860133.](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24860133)[View Abstract at PubMed](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24860133)
Question 35High Yield
A 25-year-old laborer sustains a transverse fracture of the proximal 25% of the scaphoid. CT reconstructions reveal a 1-mm fracture gap. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
A higher risk of nonunion and the need for prolonged immobilization is seen after nonsurgical management of proximal pole fractures of the scaphoid. Because of the relatively poor blood supply of the proximal pole, surgical treatment with a compression screw is advocated for fractures of the proximal third of the scaphoid.
REFERENCES: Clay NR, Dias JJ, Costigan PS, et al: Need the thumb be immobilized in scaphoid fractures? A randomised prospective trial. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:828-832.
Ring D, Jupiter JB, Herndon JH: Acute fractures of the scaphoid. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:225-231.
Question 36High Yield
Macrodactyly that is present at birth is termed:
Explanation
Barsky described macrodactyly as either static or progressive. Static macrodactyly is present at birth, and the affected digit grows larger as the child develops. In the progressive type of macrodactyly, growth begins soon after birth. This form of the disorder is more common than static macrodactyly.
Question 37High Yield
In the upright standing position, approximately what percent of the vertical load is borne by the lumbar spine facet joints?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Direct measurement and finite element modeling results show that
approximately 20% of the vertical load is borne by the posterior structures of the lumbar
spine in the upright position.

Scientific References

    : Adams MA, Hutton WC: The effect of posture on the role of the apophyseal joints in resisting intervertebral compressive forces. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1980;62:358-362.
    Goel VK, Kong W, Han JS, Weinstein JN, Gilbertson LG: A combined finite element and optimization investigation of lumbar spine mechanics with and without muscles. Spine 1993;18:1531-1541.
Question 38High Yield
A 77-year-old man who underwent right total knee replacement surgery 2 and a half years ago has had knee pain since surgery. The pain is diffuse, constant, and made worse with activity. He notes warmth and swelling in his knee. Examination shows a well-healed incision, no erythema, moderate warmth, synovitis, and an effusion. The knee is stable, and has an arc of flexion between 3° and 120°. Radiographs show well-fixed and well-aligned implants. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Explanation
This patient's history and physical findings are concerning for deep infection. Inflammatory markers, including ESR and CRP, should be obtained first. If the levels are elevated, knee aspiration should be performed for the synovial cell count and culture. A bone scan is not indicated in an initial investigation for deep infection; it is rarely helpful and is not cost effective. CT to assess implant rotation is an appropriate investigation for knee pain when the clinical scenario is not suspicious for a deep infection
and when infection has been excluded.
Question 39High Yield
Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of a 64-year-old man who crashed while riding his motorcycle. An examination reveals his long-finger metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint is stuck in extension. He cannot passively or actively flex at the MP joint. A hand radiograph is seen in Figure



Explanation
This patient has a dorsally dislocated MP joint. In these cases, the volar plate can be displaced dorsal to the metacarpal head, preventing reduction. Although early publications described a “noose effect” of the lumbrical and flexor tendons, the primary block to reduction is the volar plate. Simple MP dislocations can be reduced closed by flexing the wrist and then gently sliding the base of the proximal phalanx over the end of the metacarpal. Longitudinal traction on the finger will only incarcerate the volar plate further and should be avoided. Patients with complex dislocations that fail closed reduction require open
reduction.
Question 40High Yield
What phase of overhead throwing puts the rotator cuff at most risk of injury from internal impingement?
Explanation

DISCUSSION
Internal impingement occurs when there is repetitive contact of the posterior superior aspect of the glenoid with the humeral head causing damage to the undersurface of the supraspinatus and anterior aspect of the infraspinatus tendons, as well as posterior superior glenoid labrum. This occurs when the arm is in maximum abduction and external rotation such as during the late cocking phase of the normal throwing motion. The 6 phases of throwing are wind up, early cocking, late cocking, deceleration, and follow through. When the arm is repeatedly placed in the abducted externally rotated position, the anterior capsule can become lax and posterior capsular contractures can develop. When there are kinetic chain abnormalities such as scapular internal rotation or muscle fatigue, there is exacerbation of abnormal anterior humeral head translation and increased contact of the rotator cuff on the posterior glenoid rim, with concomitant increased risk of injury
and symptoms.
Question 41High Yield
A 40 year-old-man was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained the pelvic injury seen in Figures 24a and 24b. Definitive management of the injury should consist of reduction by
Explanation
The radiograph reveals disruption of the symphysis pubis and a displaced left sacral fracture. A posterior injury with displacement of greater than 1 cm is unstable, and a sacral fracture is particularly unstable. Surgical stabilization is required for these unstable anterior and posterior injuries. External fixation provides little stability to an unstable posterior pelvic injury. Reduction and internal fixation of the symphysis pubis and sacral fracture will provide the most stable pelvis with the least resultant deformity and allow patient mobilization.
REFERENCES: Tile M: Management of pelvic ring injuries, in Tile M, Helfet DL, Kellam JF (eds): Fractures of the Pelvis and Acetabulum, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 168-202.
Kabak S, Halici M, Tuncel M, et al: Functional outcome of open reduction and internal fixation for completely unstable pelvic ring fractures (type C): A report of 40 cases. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:555-562.
Question 42High Yield
A 16-year-old boy falls while playing soccer. He reports that his knee buckled when he planted his leg to kick a ball. He noticed an obvious deformity of his knee, which spontaneously resolved with a “clunk.” He could not finish the game but was able to bear weight with a limp. He has had two similar episodes but has never sought medical attention. An initial examination demonstrated an effusion, tenderness at the proximal medial collateral region and medial patellofemoral retinaculum, decreased range of motion, and patella apprehension. A lateral patellar glide performed at 30° of flexion was 3+. He was otherwise ligamentously stable, and there were no other noteworthy findings. What do Figures 1 and 2 reveal?
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Explanation
This patient’s examination and history indicate recurrent patellar dislocations. Radiographs show an osseous or osteochondral loose fragment. There is no evidence of an obvious nondisplaced fracture or physeal changes. In the setting of suspected patella dislocation or subluxation with loose fragment seen on radiograph, an MRI is indicated. Lateral release alone is seldom indicated in a knee that is normal before injury. The examination and MRI do not indicate a need for medial collateral ligament repair. Treatment should consist of arthroscopy or arthrotomy and attempted internal fixation of this fragment. If fixation is not possible, the loose body can be removed. Normal TT-TG values, an increased lateral patellar glide, and a history of recurrent patellar dislocations after trauma suggest MPFL incompetence and the need for reconstruction.
Question 43High Yield
Which of the following describes fretting corrosion:
Explanation
Fretting corrosion occurs when micromotion exists between two metals in contact. One of the most common examples of fretting corrosion is micromotion between a modular femoral head and the tapered neck junction. Modular components, such as the S- ROM system (DePuy Orthopaedics Inc., Warsaw, Ind), are subject to fretting corrosion at each of the junctions.
Techniques to minimize fretting corrosion include:
Making sure the head-neck junctions are dry and clean
Eliminating micromotion but having an exact fit (ie, not mixing manufacturers)
The other responses refer to:
Galvanic corrosion: Impurities within a metal implant C revice corrosion: At a surface defect of an implant Galvanic corrosion: At sites of electrochemical gradients
Oxidative degradation: Irradiation of high-density polyethylene in an ambient environment
C orrect Answer: Relative micromotion under load
Question 44High Yield
An orthopaedic surgeon in his first year of practice is negotiating with a private for-profit hospital to be their employed trauma specialist. The state of employment is known to have a high rate of malpractice claims because of a favorable plaintiff legal environment. During the course of negotiations, malpractice insurance is being discussed. The surgeon should ask the hospital to provide which type of malpractice insurance policy?
Explanation
**
An occurrence policy provides coverage for all claims made during employment irrespective of when it is filed (during or postemployment) and therefore is the best option. Claims made policy only covers suits for the time employed. A prepurchased "tail" is needed to provide coverage for cases that occurred during employment but filed postemployment. Nose coverage is applicable if the surgeon was previously employed and did not have tail coverage from previous employment, but this surgeon just emerged from training where it is not applicable. Claims made without tail coverage is unwise because the surgeon would be unprotected or have to purchase his own policy postemployment.
Only in certain situations does sovereign immunity exist, and generally not in a for-profit system. Occurrence coverage with nose coverage
is incorrect because it does not apply to this surgeon with no previous employment or claims policy lacking tail coverage.
Question 45High Yield
A 23-year-old woman has had a 3-year history of snapping and pain in her left hip. She notes that the snapping started while marathon training and is only problematic about 15 minutes into a run. Examination is consistent with a negative Stinchfield, negative logroll, negative flexion abduction/external rotation test (FABER) of the hip; however, she has a positive Ober test as she has difficulty adducting her hip across the midline in the lateral decubitus position. Management consisting of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and stretching has failed to improve her snapping. What is the most reliable surgical treatment?
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has external-type snapping hip (coxa saltans). It is not uncommon for patients to have a very long duration of symptoms that limit running or other sporting activities, and commonly affects the downward leg (usually the left leg when running on the left side of the road). The snapping causes a profound bursitis at the greater trochanter, and occasionally corticosteroid injections may be helpful. Her physical examination does not suggest an intra-articular process, and is not consistent with an internal-type snapping hip, usually caused by the iliopsoas tendon as it moves over the iliopectineal eminence. Stretching is the mainstay of treatment, as testing with a positive Ober signifies a tight iliotibial band as the thigh has difficulty crossing the midline with adduction. Various iliotibial band lengthening procedures have been described, including a Z-plasty near the proximal origin of the iliotibial band. Release at Gerdy’s tubercle has not been described.
REFERENCES: Provencher MT, Hofmeister EP, Muldoon MP: The surgical treatment of external coxa saltans (the snapping hip) by Z-plasty of the iliotibial band. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:470-476.
Faraj A A, Moulton A, Sirivastava VM: Snapping iliotibial band: Report of ten cases and review of the literature. Acta Orthop Belg 2001;67:19-23.
Brignall CG, Stainsby GD: The snapping hip: Treatment by Z-plasty. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991 ;73:253-
254.
Question 46High Yield
The chances of an arthroplasty revision becoming re-infected by a different organism or the initial infection after a two-stage revision is approximately:
Explanation
In one series, 23% of arthroplasty revisions became re-infected by a different organism even after a two-stage revision. However, re-infection is usually, although not always, caused by the same microorganism that caused the initial infection. Once the white blood cell count, sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein count return to normal, it is usually safe to re-implant the prosthesis
Question 47High Yield
A 68-year-old woman undergoes a hemiarthroplasty for a proximal humerus fracture through a deltopectoral approach. What
range of motion exercise should not be utilized in the immediate postoperative period due to concerns about lesser tuberosity fixation?
Explanation
Frankle et al found that passive external rotation of the shoulder placed the most stress on the lesser tuberosity fixation. The subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity and is the deforming force when placed under tension during external rotation. They also found that non-anatomic tuberosity reduction of 4-part proximal humerus fractures treated with hemiarthroplasty increased torque and impaired external rotation kinematics.
Question 48High Yield
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) returns to normal how long after a total hip replacement:
Explanation
The ESR takes more than a year to return to normal after a total hip replacement
Question 49High Yield
A baby born with diastrophic dysplasia today may eventually require all of the following orthopedic procedures during childhood or adulthood except:
Explanation
Patients with diastrophic dysplasia rarely have instability of the upper cervical spine.
Babies with diastrophic dysplasia often have rigid equinovarus feet that require surgery to become plantigrade and wear normal shoes.
A number of patients with diastrophic dysplasia develop progressive scoliosis that requires surgical treatment. Degenerative disease of the hips is common and often requires arthroplasty in early adulthood.
Degenerative disease of the knees is common and often requires arthroplasty in early adulthood.
Question 50High Yield
Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs and MRI obtained from a 40-year-old man who has a 6-week history of ring finger pain, redness, and swelling after puncturing the finger with a toothpick. Purulent drainage from the puncture wound site grew _Eikenella corrodens_. The patient was initially treated with oral antibiotics for 10 days and then intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 3 weeks. What is the best next step in treatment?
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Explanation
This patient has a septic distal interphalangeal joint, which was treated with antibiotics alone. As a result, the patient developed osteomyelitis with bone destruction and abscess. The best way to treat this problem is to perform surgical débridement of bone and soft tissue, along with abscess drainage and an appropriate antibiotic regimen. Antibiotic treatment without surgery would not be successful in eliminating this particular infection. Bone scan with biopsy is not the correct option, because this problem is an infection _and not a tumor, and MRI already has provided enough diagnostic information._

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