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Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...

Orthopedic With Answer Pe Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...

23 Apr 2026 54 min read 132 Views
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Key Takeaway

We review everything you need to understand about ORTHOPEDIC MCQS BANK WITH ANSWER PEDS 01. Orthopedic care addresses conditions like cleft hand, often an autosomal-dominant trait, and severe torsional malalignment, which may require corrective osteotomies for improved gait and reduced pain. For spastic diplegia, selective dorsal rhizotomy is ideally suited for ambulatory 4-8 year olds participating in physical therapy, a practice supported by recommendations from the ill american academy and other expert bodies.

Orthopedic With Answer Pe Review | Dr Hutaif General Or -...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 65-year-old male presents with massive rotator cuff tear. On physical examination, he demonstrates a positive Hornblower's sign. Which muscle is primarily deficient, and what is the typical pathomorphologic finding?





Explanation

Hornblower's sign (inability to externally rotate the shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction, leading the patient to drop the elbow and use the deltoid) is highly specific for severe degeneration or fatty infiltration of the teres minor. It indicates profound posterior cuff dysfunction.

Question 2

A 28-year-old athlete sustained a knee injury. The Dial test is performed. The examiner notes >10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but equal external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This isolated finding is most indicative of injury to which structure?





Explanation

An increase in external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If asymmetry is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 3

While evaluating a patient with a suspected nerve palsy, the examiner asks the patient to firmly grasp a piece of paper between the thumb and the index finger. As the examiner pulls the paper away, the patient's thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint hyperflexes. This compensatory maneuver is known as Froment's sign. Which muscle is compensating for the underlying deficit?





Explanation

Froment's sign evaluates ulnar nerve function. The adductor pollicis is paralyzed (ulnar nerve), so the patient compensates by firing the flexor pollicis longus (innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve branch of the median nerve) to hold the paper, causing marked thumb IP joint flexion.

Question 4

A 13-year-old overweight boy presents with a limp and vague knee pain. Upon physical examination, passive flexion of the affected hip results in obligate external rotation and abduction. What is this sign called, and what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The Drehmann sign is the obligate external rotation and abduction of the hip during passive flexion, classically seen in Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) due to the altered biomechanics from the posterior and inferior slip of the proximal femoral epiphysis.

Question 5

A patient presents with equinus contracture. The Silfverskiöld test reveals that ankle dorsiflexion is restricted to 0 degrees when the knee is extended, but improves to 15 degrees of dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for this specific finding?





Explanation

The Silfverskiöld test differentiates isolated gastrocnemius tightness from combined gastrocnemius-soleus tightness. Improvement in dorsiflexion with knee flexion indicates isolated gastrocnemius tightness (as the gastroc crosses the knee but the soleus does not). A Strayer procedure (gastrocnemius recession) is the appropriate treatment.

Question 6

A patient presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down to the middle finger, along with weakness in triceps extension. Spurling's test is positive. What is the most likely affected nerve root, and what is the classic mechanism of a positive Spurling's maneuver?





Explanation

The C7 nerve root supplies the triceps and provides sensation to the middle finger. Spurling's maneuver (neck extension and ipsilateral lateral bending/rotation) narrows the neural foramen, exacerbating radicular symptoms in cases of cervical foraminal stenosis or disc herniation.

Question 7

The pivot shift test is pathognomonic for ACL insufficiency. During the maneuver, the tibia translates anteriorly in extension and reduces with a 'clunk' as the knee is flexed. Which anatomical structure is primarily responsible for generating the reducing force during flexion?





Explanation

In an ACL-deficient knee, the tibia subluxates anteriorly in extension. As the knee is flexed past 20-30 degrees, the Iliotibial (IT) band shifts from being an extensor of the knee to a flexor, falling posterior to the axis of rotation and creating a posterior vector that pulls the lateral tibial plateau backward into the reduced position.

Question 8

A 24-year-old patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral cavovarus feet. The Coleman block test is performed by placing the heel and lateral foot on a block while allowing the first metatarsal to hang off. The hindfoot corrects to neutral. What does this indicate about the deformity, and what is the primary driver?





Explanation

The Coleman block test determines if hindfoot varus is flexible and driven by a plantarflexed first ray (forefoot-driven). If the hindfoot varus corrects to neutral when the first ray drops off the block, the hindfoot is flexible. This guides treatment toward addressing the plantarflexed first ray (e.g., dorsiflexion osteotomy) rather than primarily performing a hindfoot corrective fusion.

Question 9

A 25-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain that worsens with deep flexion. The FADIR (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) test elicits sharp groin pain. Imaging reveals a substantial alpha angle. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?





Explanation

The FADIR test is highly sensitive for anterior femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and labral pathology. An increased alpha angle (>50-55 degrees) on the frog-leg lateral or Dunn view indicates a Cam-type FAI deformity.

Question 10

A 40-year-old new mother presents with radial-sided wrist pain. During physical examination, the physician grasps the patient's thumb and sharply ulnar deviates the wrist, eliciting severe pain over the first dorsal compartment. Which specific eponym correctly identifies this provocative maneuver?





Explanation

Grasping the thumb and ulnar deviating the wrist is the true Finkelstein's test. Eichhoff's test involves the patient clenching their thumb inside their fist, followed by the examiner passively ulnar deviating the wrist. Although Eichhoff's is often mistakenly called Finkelstein's in practice, the original description of Finkelstein's specifically mentions the examiner grasping the thumb.

Question 11

During an evaluation for shoulder pain, the patient holds their arm in 90 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and maximal internal rotation (thumb down). Downward force elicits deep shoulder pain. The pain is relieved when the test is repeated in maximal external rotation (palm up). This clinical finding is most specific for pathology of which structure?





Explanation

The O'Brien active compression test is primarily used to evaluate for SLAP tears and AC joint pathology. If the pain is described as 'deep' inside the shoulder and is relieved by external rotation, it is indicative of a SLAP tear. If the pain is localized to the top of the shoulder over the AC joint, it points to AC joint pathology.

Question 12

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain. The moving valgus stress test is performed, producing pain optimally at an arc between 120 and 70 degrees of flexion. Which specific bundle of the Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL) is primarily being evaluated by this test?





Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. It is divided into an anterior band (taut in extension) and a posterior band (taut in flexion). The moving valgus stress test evaluates the UCL, and pain precisely between 120 and 70 degrees points to insufficiency of the anterior bundle, particularly the posterior band which tightens during flexion.

Question 13

A 45-year-old male is evaluated for radiating leg pain. Straight leg raise (SLR) elicits pain at 40 degrees. The examiner drops the leg slightly until the pain stops, then abruptly dorsiflexes the foot, which reproduces the radiating pain. What is the name of this confirmatory test?





Explanation

Bragard's sign confirms a true positive straight leg raise for sciatic nerve root tension. After the SLR elicits pain, the leg is lowered just below the pain threshold, and the examiner passively dorsiflexes the ankle. Reproduction of sciatic pain confirms dural tension. The Bowstring sign involves pressing on the popliteal fossa.

Question 14

A 32-year-old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture. Six hours post-admission, he develops severe leg pain out of proportion to the injury. Which physical examination finding is considered the most sensitive and earliest clinical indicator of acute compartment syndrome?





Explanation

Pain with passive stretch is widely considered the earliest and most sensitive clinical finding for acute compartment syndrome. Pulselessness and pallor are late and unreliable signs. Paresthesia is also reliable but usually occurs after the onset of pain on passive stretch.

Question 15

A 50-year-old female presents with weakness in her hand. The examiner observes that the patient's small finger remains in an abducted posture and she is unable to actively adduct it. This finding (Wartenberg's sign) is caused by the unopposed action of which muscle, and what is its innervation?





Explanation

Wartenberg's sign is seen in ulnar neuropathy. The ulnar-innervated palmar interossei (responsible for adduction) are paralyzed. The small finger is pulled into abduction by the unopposed action of the extensor digiti minimi (EDM), which is innervated by the radial nerve via the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN).

Question 16

During a gait assessment of a patient with right hip osteoarthritis, the examiner observes the patient's pelvis dropping on the left side during the right stance phase. A positive Trendelenburg sign on the right indicates weakness of the right gluteus medius. Which nerve innervates the deficient muscle, and what is its primary spinal root contribution?





Explanation

The gluteus medius is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve (L4, L5, S1). Weakness of the hip abductors causes the pelvis to tilt downwards on the contralateral, unsupported side during the stance phase of the affected limb.

Question 17

A newborn female undergoes screening for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH). The examiner adducts the hip while applying posterior force, resulting in a palpable clunk as the hip dislocates. Which test was performed, and what does it establish?





Explanation

The Barlow maneuver attempts to dislocate a reduced hip by adduction and posterior pressure (assessing if it is 'dislocatable'). The Ortolani maneuver reduces an already dislocated hip by abduction and anterior pressure (assessing if it is 'reducible').

Question 18

A 35-year-old male complains of medial knee joint line catching. The examiner stands the patient on the affected leg, flexes the knee to 20 degrees, and asks the patient to internally and externally rotate their body over the knee. This maneuver reproduces the medial pain. What is the name of this test, and what is its primary purpose?





Explanation

The Thessaly test involves the patient standing flatfooted on one leg while the examiner supports them, and the patient twists their body internally and externally with the knee flexed at 5 and then 20 degrees. It is a highly sensitive and specific clinical test for meniscal tears.

Question 19

A patient complains of numbness in the ring and small fingers and weakness of finger abduction. Tapping over the volar-ulnar aspect of the wrist produces tingling in the small finger. If the lesion is localized to Zone I of Guyon's canal, which neurological deficits would be expected?





Explanation

Guyon's canal is divided into three zones. Zone I is proximal to the bifurcation of the ulnar nerve into superficial (sensory) and deep (motor) branches. A lesion here produces both motor (intrinsic weakness) and sensory (volar small/ring finger) deficits. Zone II lesions cause isolated motor deficits, and Zone III lesions cause isolated sensory deficits.

Question 20

During a low back pain evaluation, the examiner notes that pressing lightly on the patient's head causes severe radiating lumbar pain. The examiner also notes widespread hypersensitivity to light touch over the entire back. These findings fall under Waddell's signs. What is the primary clinical utility of identifying these signs?





Explanation

Waddell's signs (e.g., superficial/non-anatomic tenderness, pain on axial loading, negative seated SLR despite positive supine SLR, non-anatomic sensory/motor deficits) indicate a non-organic or psychological component to the patient's pain presentation. They do NOT rule out organic pathology or prove malingering; rather, they highlight the need for a comprehensive biopsychosocial approach to treatment.

Question 21

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful, swollen thigh. Radiographs reveal a permeative diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a prominent 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Core biopsy is performed. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most likely to be identified in the neoplastic cells?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. t(9;22) is extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma. t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 22

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon achieves equal and symmetric medial and lateral gaps in extension. However, upon flexing the knee to 90 degrees, the joint is symmetrically too tight to accept the trial polyethylene insert. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?





Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires an increase in the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component (when using anterior referencing) removes more posterior femoral condyle, thereby increasing the flexion gap while leaving the extension gap unchanged. Releasing the posterior capsule increases the extension gap. Recutting the tibia affects both the flexion and extension gaps.

Question 23

During the neurological examination of a 62-year-old man presenting with bilateral hand clumsiness and gait instability, the examiner supports the patient's forearm in a neutral position and strikes the brachioradialis tendon with a reflex hammer. This elicits spontaneous flexion of the fingers and thumb. What does this specific finding suggest?





Explanation

The described test elicits the inverted brachioradialis reflex. A positive response (finger/thumb flexion) indicates an upper motor neuron lesion (myelopathy) at the C5-C6 level. This often occurs alongside an absent normal brachioradialis reflex (a lower motor neuron sign at the level of compression) and hyperreflexia below the level of compression.

Question 24

A 13-year-old obese male presents with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. He undergoes in situ percutaneous pinning. According to the modified Oxford bone age score, which of the following is the strongest indication for prophylactic pinning of the asymptomatic right hip?





Explanation

The modified Oxford bone age score assesses skeletal maturity based on the pelvis and proximal femur. A score of 16 (the lowest score) indicates open triradiate cartilage and significant remaining growth potential. This strongly correlates with a high risk of developing a contralateral SCFE, making it a primary indication for prophylactic pinning.

Question 25

A 24-year-old football player sustains an axial load to a plantarflexed foot. Radiographs show a widening of the space between the bases of the first and second metatarsals. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomy of the primary ligament injured in this condition?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. There is no direct transverse ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals, making this articulation mechanically vulnerable.

Question 26

Articular cartilage relies on specific structural components for its unique biomechanical properties. Which of the following correctly pairs the zone of articular cartilage with its distinct collagen fiber orientation and primary function?





Explanation

In articular cartilage, the deep zone contains type II collagen fibers oriented perpendicularly to the articular surface. These fibers cross the tidemark to secure the cartilage to the subchondral bone, providing maximum resistance to compressive forces. The superficial zone has parallel collagen fibers to resist shear forces.

Question 27

A 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a massive, retracted tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Biologically, which of the following best describes the healing process at the tendon-to-bone interface following a successful repair?





Explanation

Following surgical repair of a rotator cuff tear, the tendon-to-bone interface heals via the formation of a fibrovascular scar tissue layer, predominantly consisting of Type III collagen that eventually remodels to Type I. It does not regenerate the native four-zone direct insertion (tendon, uncalcified fibrocartilage, calcified fibrocartilage, bone) present developmentally.

Question 28

A 68-year-old woman is evaluated 4 weeks after an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. She complains of new-onset foot drop. On exam, she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, but inversion and plantarflexion are normal. Which of the following surgical factors most likely contributed to this specific neurological deficit?





Explanation

The patient presents with an isolated peroneal nerve palsy (weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion). The sciatic nerve consists of the peroneal and tibial divisions. The peroneal division is lateral, has larger fascicles with less supportive connective tissue, and is tethered at the fibular head, making it highly susceptible to stretch injuries from excessive leg lengthening during THA.

Question 29

A 22-year-old male sustains a scaphoid fracture. The risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) is heavily dependent on the fracture location due to the unique vascular anatomy of the scaphoid. Which of the following accurately describes the primary vascular supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid (providing 70-80% of its circulation, including the entire proximal pole) comes from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. These vessels enter the scaphoid at the non-articular dorsal ridge near the waist and travel in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole. Proximal pole fractures therefore have the highest risk of AVN.

Question 30

A 72-year-old woman is started on teriparatide for severe osteoporosis following a fragility fracture of the distal radius. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?





Explanation

Teriparatide is a recombinant fragment of human parathyroid hormone (PTH 1-34). While continuous elevation of PTH leads to bone resorption, intermittent daily subcutaneous administration paradoxically stimulates osteoblast activity over osteoclast activity, leading to net bone formation.

Question 31

A 4-month-old female is diagnosed with Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH). She is currently being treated in a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up ultrasound, the alpha angle is measured. What does the alpha angle represent, and what is considered a normal value indicating a mature hip?





Explanation

On a coronal infant hip ultrasound using the Graf method, the alpha angle measures the concavity and depth of the bony acetabular roof relative to the straight ilium. An alpha angle of greater than 60 degrees is considered normal (Type I hip). The beta angle relates to the cartilaginous roof.

Question 32

In the Young-Burgess classification of pelvic ring injuries, which of the following fracture patterns is most characteristic of an Anteroposterior Compression Type II (APC II) injury?





Explanation

An APC II injury involves an 'open book' pelvic ring with symphysis diastasis >2.5 cm and disruption of the anterior SI ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. The strong posterior SI ligaments remain intact, maintaining vertical stability but resulting in rotational instability.

Question 33

A 14-year-old girl with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (AIS) undergoes posterior spinal fusion. Postoperatively, the surgeon evaluates the correction using the Lenke classification criteria. According to the Lenke classification, which of the following determines if a proximal thoracic curve is considered 'structural'?





Explanation

In the Lenke classification for AIS, a minor curve is defined as 'structural' if it fails to correct to <25 degrees on voluntary side-bending radiographs. For the proximal and main thoracic regions, a regional kyphosis of > +20 degrees also defines the curve as structural.

Question 34

A 30-year-old carpenter sustains a laceration to the volar aspect of his index finger at the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, resulting in an inability to flex the DIP joint while the PIP joint can still be flexed against resistance. In which flexor tendon zone did this injury occur?





Explanation

The patient has an isolated laceration of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) tendon. Because the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) remains intact (PIP flexion against resistance is preserved), the injury must be located distal to the insertion of the FDS on the middle phalanx. This characterizes a Zone I flexor tendon injury.

Question 35

A 19-year-old male complains of dull, aching back pain that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs and CT show a 2.5 cm radiolucent nidus in the posterior elements of L4. Histologically, the lesion consists of woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

While the clinical presentation (night pain relieved by NSAIDs) and histology are identical to an osteoid osteoma, the size of the nidus is the distinguishing factor. An osteoid osteoma has a nidus typically < 1.5 cm. A lesion larger than 1.5-2.0 cm with similar histology is classified as an osteoblastoma, which also frequently occurs in the posterior elements of the spine.

Question 36

A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation. An MRI arthrogram reveals an avulsion of the anterior labrum along with the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). The labrum remains attached to the intact periosteum, which is stripped medially down the glenoid neck. What is the eponym for this specific lesion?





Explanation

A Perthes lesion is an avulsion of the anterior labrum and IGHL where the medial scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped off the bone. Because it is non-displaced, it can heal in its anatomic position but remains patulous, often leading to a false-negative MRI if the joint is not adequately distended. An ALPSA involves medial displacement and 'rolling up' of the labrum.

Question 37

A 35-year-old man sustains a closed, displaced fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft (Holstein-Lewis fracture). On examination, he is unable to extend his wrist or fingers. He undergoes closed reduction and splinting, but post-reduction examination reveals the onset of a new, complete radial nerve palsy. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

While primary radial nerve palsies presenting at the time of closed humeral shaft fractures are generally observed, a secondary radial nerve palsy that develops or worsens after closed reduction attempts indicates possible iatrogenic entrapment or laceration of the nerve between the fracture fragments. This is an absolute indication for immediate surgical exploration.

Question 38

In the pathogenesis of periprosthetic joint infections, bacteria often form a biofilm that renders them highly resistant to host defenses and systemic antibiotics. Which of the following best describes the 'quorum sensing' phase of biofilm formation?





Explanation

Quorum sensing is a density-dependent mechanism of bacterial cell-to-cell communication. As bacterial density increases, autoinducers are released. Upon reaching a critical threshold, this triggers coordinated changes in gene expression across the population, leading to massive production of the extracellular polymeric substance (EPS) matrix and biofilm maturation.

Question 39

During the Ponseti method for the correction of idiopathic clubfoot (talipes equinovarus), the deformities are systematically corrected through a series of specific casts. What is the correct sequence of deformity correction using this technique?





Explanation

The mnemonic for the Ponseti method correction sequence is CAVE: Cavus (corrected first by elevating the first ray to align the forefoot with the hindfoot), Adductus, Varus, and finally Equinus (which often requires a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy to fully correct once the talonavicular joint is reduced).

Question 40

Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearing surfaces in total hip arthroplasty offer excellent wear characteristics but come with specific complications. Which of the following is a recognized unique complication associated specifically with CoC articulations?





Explanation

Squeaking is a well-documented and unique complication of ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasties, occurring in a small percentage of patients. It is associated with micro-separation, component malposition, and stripe wear. Trunnionosis and pseudotumors are issues related to metal components, while massive osteolysis is typical of polyethylene wear.

Question 41

A 42-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior elbow during a heavy deadlift. The examiner performs the Hook test. What is the anatomic structure being evaluated, and what constitutes a positive test?





Explanation

The Hook test specifically evaluates the integrity of the distal biceps tendon. A positive test occurs when the examiner's index finger cannot hook under the intact biceps tendon from the lateral side, indicating a complete rupture.

Question 42

A patient presents with persistent abduction posturing of the small finger. This finding (Wartenberg's sign) is caused by unopposed action of which muscle, and what is the underlying nerve injury?





Explanation

Wartenberg's sign is the abducted posture of the small finger due to the unopposed action of the extensor digiti minimi, which is innervated by the radial nerve. It manifests when the ulnar nerve-innervated palmar interossei (specifically the 3rd palmar interosseous) are weak or paralyzed.

Question 43

A 14-year-old with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with a cavovarus foot deformity. A Coleman block test is performed and the hindfoot completely corrects to neutral. What does this finding indicate regarding the foot's biomechanics?





Explanation

The Coleman block test evaluates hindfoot flexibility in a cavovarus foot. If the hindfoot varus corrects to neutral when the first ray is allowed to drop off the block, it confirms that the hindfoot deformity is flexible and is driven by forefoot pathology, specifically a rigid, plantarflexed first ray.

Question 44

A patient with chronic, refractory plantar fasciitis undergoes a Silfverskiold test. Ankle dorsiflexion is 0 degrees with the knee extended and 15 degrees with the knee flexed. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate surgical target?





Explanation

The Silfverskiold test differentiates isolated gastrocnemius contracture from combined gastrocnemius-soleus contracture. Improvement in ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed (relaxing the gastrocnemius, which crosses the knee) indicates isolated gastrocnemius tightness, appropriately treated with a gastrocnemius recession (e.g., Strayer procedure).

Question 45

During the Active Compression Test (O'Brien's test), a patient experiences deep shoulder pain when the arm is in 90 degrees of forward flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and internal rotation (thumb pointing down). The pain is entirely relieved by external rotation (thumb pointing up). Which structure is most likely injured?





Explanation

O'Brien's test evaluates for SLAP tears and AC joint pathology. Deep, internal shoulder pain elicited with the thumb down and relieved with the thumb up is highly specific for a Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) lesion. AC joint pain would typically localize superiorly over the joint.

Question 46

A 55-year-old female complains of weakness and anterior shoulder pain. The examiner places the patient's palm on her contralateral shoulder and asks her to resist as the examiner tries to pull the hand anteriorly away from the shoulder. She is unable to resist the pull. Which tendon is likely torn?





Explanation

The described maneuver is the Bear Hug test, which is highly sensitive and specific for identifying tears of the subscapularis tendon. Weakness in maintaining internal rotation in this position indicates a functional deficit of the subscapularis.

Question 47

The pivot shift test is utilized to evaluate rotatory instability of the knee. Biomechanically, what occurs during a positive pivot shift test as the knee is brought from full extension into flexion?





Explanation

In an ACL-deficient knee, the lateral tibial plateau rests in an anteriorly subluxated position in full extension. As the knee flexes past 20-30 degrees, the iliotibial band transitions from an extensor to a flexor, applying a posterior vector that suddenly reduces the lateral plateau with a palpable clunk.

Question 48

A collegiate baseball pitcher complains of medial elbow pain and decreased velocity. The moving valgus stress test is performed. The test is considered positive if pain is reproduced at the medial elbow during which specific arc of elbow motion?





Explanation

The moving valgus stress test evaluates the integrity of the Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL). A positive test reproduces maximal medial elbow pain in the "shear zone" between 120 and 70 degrees of elbow flexion as the examiner rapidly extends the elbow with valgus torque applied.

Question 49

During the Watson scaphoid shift test, a palpable and painful clunk is appreciated as the examiner removes thumb pressure from the scaphoid tubercle. What is the pathomechanical etiology of this clunk?





Explanation

In a patient with scapholunate ligament disruption, applying pressure to the scaphoid tubercle during ulnar-to-radial deviation prevents normal volar flexion, causing the scaphoid to subluxate dorsally. Releasing the pressure allows the scaphoid to suddenly clunk back (reduce) into the radial fossa.

Question 50

In evaluating a child with cerebral palsy who exhibits a crouch gait, the examiner places the patient prone and rapidly flexes the knee. The examiner observes spontaneous, involuntary flexion of the ipsilateral hip. This positive Ely's test indicates spasticity or contracture of which muscle?





Explanation

Ely's test assesses for rectus femoris spasticity or contracture. Because the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and the knee joints (acting as a hip flexor and knee extensor), flexing the knee pulls on the tight muscle, causing a compensatory, involuntary flexion of the hip.

Question 51

A patient presents with an inability to make a perfect "OK" sign with their fingers, instead demonstrating a flat pinch using the pulps of the thumb and index finger. Which muscle weakness is primarily responsible for this abnormal posture?





Explanation

This deficit indicates an Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN) palsy. The AIN innervates the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (to the index and middle fingers), the Flexor Pollicis Longus, and the Pronator Quadratus. Weakness of the FDP and FPL prevents normal distal interphalangeal flexion, leading to a flat pinch.

Question 52

A 20-year-old swimmer undergoes apprehension and relocation tests of the shoulder. Anterior apprehension is noted, which is subsequently relieved when the examiner applies a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus (relocation test). The relief of apprehension during this maneuver is most specific for what pathology?





Explanation

The apprehension-relocation test is the clinical standard for diagnosing anterior glenohumeral instability. Relief of the subjective feeling of impending dislocation (apprehension, not just pain) with a posteriorly directed force confirms anterior capsulolabral insufficiency.

Question 53

A patient presents with a jammed finger. The examiner flexes the PIP joint to 90 degrees over the edge of a table and asks the patient to extend the DIP joint against resistance. The DIP joint extends rigidly and strongly. What does this positive Elson's test signify?





Explanation

Elson's test evaluates the integrity of the central slip of the extensor tendon. If the central slip is ruptured, the lateral bands displace volarly but still exert tension, allowing rigid extension of the DIP joint against resistance, while the PIP joint lacks extension force.

Question 54

During a physical exam, a patient demonstrates an inability to maintain maximal external rotation of the shoulder when the examiner places the arm in 20 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation. Upon release, the arm drifts into internal rotation. Which tendon is most likely involved?





Explanation

The external rotation lag sign at 20 degrees of abduction is highly specific for evaluating the integrity of the infraspinatus tendon. An inability to actively hold the externally rotated position indicates significant infraspinatus dysfunction or tearing.

Question 55

A 24-year-old hockey player complains of insidious onset groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts, and internally rotates the thigh (FADIR test), which reproduces sharp anterior groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which condition?





Explanation

The anterior impingement test (FADIR) brings the femoral neck into direct contact with the anterior and superior acetabular rim. It is highly sensitive for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and associated anterior labral pathology.

Question 56

During physical examination of the forefoot, applying lateral compression to the metatarsal heads while simultaneously palpating the plantar aspect of the third web space elicits a palpable click and sharp pain radiating into the toes. What is the underlying pathology?





Explanation

Mulder's click is the pathognomonic physical sign associated with Morton's neuroma. Squeezing the metatarsal heads compresses the enlarged interdigital nerve (neuroma) against the deep transverse metatarsal ligament, causing a painful, palpable click.

Question 57

The examiner flicks the distal phalanx of a patient's middle finger downward. A positive Hoffmann's sign is noted. What is the expected motor response, and what does it suggest?





Explanation

A positive Hoffmann's sign manifests as reflexive flexion of the thumb interphalangeal joint and the index finger distal interphalangeal joint. It is a classic clinical sign of upper motor neuron dysfunction, commonly associated with cervical myelopathy.

Question 58

A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. O'Brien's active compression test is positive, eliciting pain with internal rotation that is relieved by external rotation. What is the most likely injured structure?





Explanation

O'Brien's active compression test targets the SLAP lesion. Deep joint pain with internal rotation that is relieved by external rotation is the classic positive finding for a superior labral tear.

Question 59

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. A Belly Press test is equivocal, but the Bear Hug test is strongly positive with inability to hold the hand to the opposite shoulder against resistance. Which portion of the affected muscle is most likely compromised?





Explanation

The Bear Hug test is highly sensitive for upper subscapularis pathology. The Belly Press test primarily evaluates the lower subscapularis.

Question 60

During the pivot shift test for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) insufficiency, the examiner applies a valgus stress and internal rotation while flexing the knee. The distinct clunk observed at 20-30 degrees of flexion represents which biomechanical event?





Explanation

During the pivot shift test, the tibia is subluxated anteriorly in extension. As the knee flexes past 20-30 degrees, the iliotibial band transitions from an extensor to a flexor, rapidly reducing the lateral tibial plateau.

Question 61

A patient with a documented ulnar nerve neuropathy exhibits a persistent abduction posture of the small finger at rest (Wartenberg's sign). Which intact muscle is responsible for this unopposed abduction?





Explanation

Wartenberg's sign is an abduction deformity of the small finger due to ulnar nerve palsy. It results from weakness of the third palmar interosseous muscle and unopposed abduction by the radial nerve-innervated extensor digiti minimi.

Question 62

A 40-year-old with chronic plantar fasciitis undergoes a Silfverskiold test. Ankle dorsiflexion is limited to 0 degrees with the knee extended, but improves to 15 degrees when the knee is flexed. This finding indicates an isolated contracture of which structure?





Explanation

The Silfverskiold test differentiates gastrocnemius from soleus tightness. Improvement in dorsiflexion with knee flexion indicates isolated gastrocnemius contracture, as the gastrocnemius crosses the knee joint.

Question 63

A 60-year-old man complains of progressive clumsiness in his hands. During physical examination, the examiner rapidly flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger, which produces a reflex flexion of the patient's thumb and index finger. What is the name of this sign and its primary clinical implication?





Explanation

Hoffmann's sign is elicited by flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger, causing reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. It indicates an upper motor neuron lesion or cervical myelopathy.

Question 64

During a Thomas test on the right hip, the patient holds the left knee to the chest, causing the right thigh to elevate off the examination table. When the examiner extends the right knee, the right thigh drops completely to the table. Which muscle is responsible for the initial contracture?





Explanation

The Thomas test evaluates hip flexion contractures. If the elevated thigh drops to the table upon extending the knee, the contracture is isolated to the two-joint rectus femoris muscle.

Question 65

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, then adducts and internally rotates it, strictly reproducing the patient's sharp groin pain. This test (FADIR) is most sensitive for diagnosing which condition?





Explanation

The FADIR test (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) creates anterior impingement in the hip joint. It is highly sensitive for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and anterior labral tears.

Question 66

A patient with a complex knee injury demonstrates greater than 10 degrees of increased external rotation at BOTH 30 degrees and 90 degrees of knee flexion during the Dial test, compared to the contralateral side. This specific examination finding indicates combined injury to which structures?





Explanation

Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 67

A long-distance runner presents with lateral knee pain. The examiner places the patient in the lateral decubitus position, abducts and extends the affected hip, and then allows the leg to drop passively into adduction. The leg remains abducted in the air. This positive Ober's test primarily implicates tightness in which structure?





Explanation

Ober's test assesses tightness of the iliotibial band and tensor fasciae latae. A positive test occurs when the abducted hip fails to drop below horizontal into adduction.

Question 68

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the relocation test is performed by applying a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus while the arm is abducted and externally rotated. What specific clinical response constitutes a true positive relocation test?





Explanation

The apprehension test elicits a feeling of impending dislocation. The relocation test is considered positive only when the posteriorly directed force relieves the patient's apprehension, not merely when it relieves pain.

Question 69

An athlete suffers an inversion ankle sprain. The anterior drawer test is positive. A subsequent talar tilt test in inversion is also distinctly positive compared to the normal side. Which ligament is primarily assessed by this talar tilt maneuver?





Explanation

The talar tilt test in inversion primarily evaluates the calcaneofibular ligament (CFL). The anterior drawer test primarily evaluates the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL).

Question 70

A 55-year-old woman complains of pain at the base of her thumb that worsens with pinching activities. Axial loading, pushing, and rotating the first metacarpal on the trapezium elicits sharp pain and crepitus. Which test was performed, and what is the underlying diagnosis?





Explanation

The Grind test evaluates the thumb carpometacarpal joint for osteoarthritis. Axial loading and rotation of the metacarpal base against the trapezium elicits pain and crepitus in a positive test.

Question 71

To differentiate hip intra-articular pathology from lumbar spine pathology, a patient is asked to actively raise their leg against resistance with the knee extended in the supine position. Pain is forcefully elicited in the groin. This provocative maneuver is known as the:





Explanation

The Stinchfield test involves active straight leg raise against resistance. Groin pain indicates hip intra-articular pathology, helping to differentiate it from lumbar or sacroiliac sources.

Question 72

During an evaluation of a 22-year-old soccer player with a knee injury, a pivot shift test is performed. As the knee is brought from extension to flexion with a valgus stress and internal rotation applied, a clunk is felt at 20-30 degrees of flexion. Which anatomical structure is responsible for the reduction of the tibia during this test?





Explanation

In a positive pivot shift test for ACL deficiency, the tibia starts subluxated anteriorly. As the knee flexes past 20-30 degrees, the iliotibial band transitions from an extensor to a flexor, pulling the tibia posteriorly and reducing the joint with a palpable clunk.

Question 73

A 55-year-old patient presents with shoulder pain after a lifting injury. The examiner performs the "bear hug" test by placing the patient's palm on their opposite shoulder and resisting the patient's attempt to press the hand downward. Weakness in this maneuver most specifically indicates a tear of which structure?





Explanation

The bear hug test evaluates the subscapularis muscle. It is considered the most sensitive clinical test for detecting upper subscapularis tendon tears compared to the belly-press or lift-off tests.

Question 74

A 30-year-old male complains of groin pain with deep hip flexion. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts it, and internally rotates the thigh, which reproduces the patient's sharp groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?





Explanation

The Flexion, Adduction, and Internal Rotation (FADIR) test is highly sensitive for anterior femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and labral pathology. It forces the femoral neck against the anterior acetabular rim.

Question 75

A 45-year-old female presents with right-sided neck pain radiating to her index and middle fingers. The examiner extends and side-bends her neck to the right, applying axial compression, which reproduces the radiating pain. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?





Explanation

A positive Spurling's test indicates cervical radiculopathy. Pain radiating to the middle finger classically represents a C7 radiculopathy, which is the most common cervical radicular syndrome.

Question 76

A 34-year-old postpartum woman complains of radial-sided wrist pain. The examiner instructs the patient to clench her thumb inside her fist and ulnarly deviates the wrist, reproducing sharp pain. Which two tendons are being provoked in the first dorsal compartment?





Explanation

The maneuver described is Eichhoff's test, which is commonly used to diagnose De Quervain's tenosynovitis. It places tension on the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) within the first dorsal extensor compartment.

Question 77

A patient presents with persistent numbness in their ring and small fingers. Upon observation, the examiner notes that the patient's small finger rests in an abducted position. This finding (Wartenberg's sign) is due to unopposed action of which muscle?





Explanation

Wartenberg's sign is the abducted resting posture of the small finger resulting from ulnar nerve palsy. The intact radially innervated extensor digiti minimi pulls the finger into abduction, overcoming the paralyzed ulnarly innervated third palmar interosseous muscle.

Question 78

A 40-year-old runner presents with chronic Achilles pain. The examiner assesses ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed and then with the knee extended. Dorsiflexion is 15 degrees with the knee flexed but limits to 0 degrees with the knee extended. What does this test signify?





Explanation

The Silfverskiold test differentiates gastrocnemius tightness from combined gastroc-soleus tightness. Since ankle dorsiflexion normalizes when the knee is flexed (which relaxes the biarticular gastrocnemius), the contracture is isolated to the gastrocnemius.

Question 79

A 24-year-old male presents with medial joint line knee pain. The examiner has the patient stand on the affected leg flexed to 20 degrees, and the patient twists their body internally and externally. This maneuver (Thessaly test) is primarily utilized to diagnose injury to which structure?





Explanation

The Thessaly test is a dynamic weight-bearing test used to diagnose meniscal tears. Applying rotational loads on a flexed knee reliably reproduces meniscal symptoms and has high diagnostic accuracy.

Question 80

A baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain. The examiner flexes the shoulder to 90 degrees, adducts it 10 degrees, and maximally internally rotates the arm, asking the patient to resist downward pressure. Pain is elicited but relieved when the arm is externally rotated and tested again. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

O'Brien's active compression test targets the superior labrum. It is considered positive for a SLAP tear when deep joint pain is provoked with the arm in internal rotation (thumb down) and relieved when in external rotation (palm up).

Question 81

A 20-year-old collegiate javelin thrower presents with medial elbow pain. The examiner grasps the patient's thumb on the affected side and applies a valgus stress to the elbow while it is flexed beyond 90 degrees. A positive test indicates insufficiency of which structure?





Explanation

The milking maneuver evaluates the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow. Flexing the elbow past 90 degrees places maximal stress specifically on the posterior band of the anterior bundle and the posterior bundle of the UCL.

Question 82

During a newborn examination, the pediatrician flexes the infant's hips and knees to 90 degrees. The examiner then gently abducts the hips while applying an anteriorly directed force on the greater trochanters. A palpable "clunk" is felt. What does this positive test indicate?





Explanation

The Ortolani maneuver is an active reduction test for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The palpable clunk occurs as the subluxated or dislocated femoral head slips over the posterior acetabular rim and reduces into the acetabulum.

Question 83

An obese 13-year-old boy presents with right knee pain and a limp. During the physical examination of the hip in the supine position, the hip passively goes into obligatory external rotation as it is flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this physical finding?





Explanation

The Drehmann sign is the obligatory external rotation of the hip during passive flexion. This is a hallmark physical examination finding for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) due to the altered geometry of the displaced proximal femur.

Question 84

A basketball player jammed his finger. The PIP joint is flexed to 90 degrees over the edge of a table, and the patient is asked to extend the middle phalanx against resistance. The examiner feels weak PIP extension, and the DIP joint becomes rigidly extended. This indicates a rupture of which structure?





Explanation

Elson's test evaluates the integrity of the central slip. When the central slip is ruptured, attempting to extend the PIP joint transfers extensor force through the lateral bands, causing paradoxical rigid extension of the DIP joint.

Question 85

A patient complains of anterior shoulder pain. The examiner asks the patient to flex the elbow to 90 degrees with the forearm pronated. The examiner then resists the patient's active attempt to supinate the forearm and externally rotate the humerus. Pain in the bicipital groove indicates pathology of which structure?





Explanation

Yergason's test stresses the long head of the biceps tendon within the bicipital groove. It is positive in cases of biceps tendinitis or instability, which may also indicate subscapularis or transverse humeral ligament pathology.

Question 86

A patient presents with generalized arm pain and weakness. The examiner asks the patient to resist bilateral internal rotation of the shoulders. The examiner then lightly strokes the skin over the patient's cubital tunnel and immediately asks the patient to resist internal rotation again. A sudden, momentary loss of resistance is noted. What does this signify?





Explanation

The scratch collapse test is a highly sensitive provocative test for peripheral nerve entrapment. Stroking the skin over a site of nerve compression (such as the ulnar nerve at the cubital tunnel) triggers a brief inhibitory spinal reflex, causing transient loss of motor tone.

Question 87

A 45-year-old female complains of sharp pain in her forefoot that feels like walking on a pebble. The examiner squeezes the metatarsal heads together while applying plantar and dorsal pressure to the intermetatarsal space, producing a palpable click and reproducing her pain. This finding is highly specific for:





Explanation

Mulder's click is the classic physical exam finding associated with Morton's neuroma. Medial-lateral compression of the metatarsal heads extrudes the enlarged neuroma plantarly, producing a painful, palpable click.

Question 88

A patient is evaluated for shoulder pain. The examiner elevates the arm to 90 degrees in the scapular plane and maximally internally rotates the arm so the thumb points downward. The examiner applies downward pressure. Weakness compared to the contralateral side is primarily indicative of pathology in which muscle?





Explanation

Jobe's test (the Empty Can test) effectively isolates the supraspinatus muscle. While pain alone may indicate impingement, true weakness against downward resistance is highly predictive of a supraspinatus tendon tear.

Question 89

During a gait assessment of a 60-year-old female with right hip osteoarthritis, the examiner notes that when the patient stands on her right leg, her left hemipelvis drops. This positive Trendelenburg sign is caused by weakness of which muscle group?





Explanation

The Trendelenburg sign results from weakness or mechanical dysfunction of the hip abductors (gluteus medius and minimus) on the stance leg. When the patient stands on the right leg, weak right abductors fail to maintain a level pelvis, causing the unsupported left side to drop.

Question 90

A 38-year-old male presents with lower back pain radiating down his posterior left leg. The examiner performs a straight leg raise, which elicits shooting pain below the knee at 40 degrees of elevation. The examiner lowers the leg slightly and dorsiflexes the foot, which reproduces the pain. Which spinal nerve roots are most likely involved?





Explanation

The Straight Leg Raise (Lasegue's sign) applies tension to the sciatic nerve and its roots. Eliciting radiating leg pain between 30 and 70 degrees, particularly when exacerbated by ankle dorsiflexion (Bragard's sign), classically indicates L5 or S1 nerve root compression.

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