Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Q&A Part 3

Question 1

Following a vertebroplasty of L2, cement is noted to protrude directly anterior to the L2 vertebral body. The cement is closest to which of the following structures?

Explanation

At the level of L2, the liver and the vena cava lie to the right. The pancreas and duodenum are anterior to the aorta. The aorta lies in the midline just in front of the vertebral body. Clement CD: Anatomy: A Regional Atlas of Human Anatomy, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Munich, Germany, Urban and Schwarzberg, 1987, Figure 331.

Question 2

Figures 28a and 28b show AP and lateral radiographs of the knee. Based on these findings, which of the following structures has most likely been injured?

Explanation

28b The radiographs show a posterior knee dislocation. Knee dislocations almost always involve rupture of both the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments. Collateral ligament injuries also are common. Arterial, nerve, and tendon injuries each occur in less than half of knee dislocations. Schenck RC Jr, Hunter RE, Ostrum RF, et al: Knee dislocations. Instr Course Lect 1999;48:515-522.

Question 3

A patient who sustained a knife wound to the axilla 4 months ago now has profound interosseous wasting and generalized hand weakness. A brachial plexus injury is likely at which of the following locations in Figure 29?

Explanation

Penetrating sharp wounds in proximity to major nerve or vascular structures should always be acutely explored. Because this patient did not seek treatment for a potentially treatable injury, interosseous wasting implies injury to the C8 and T1 nerve roots that contribute to ulnar nerve function. The most likely location for the brachial plexus injury is the location marked L or the inferior trunk. A wrist drop that is the result of radial nerve dysfunction would be expected with an injury at K or O. An upper brachial plexus palsy with loss of elbow flexion and shoulder abduction would be expected with an injury at B. A loss of elbow flexion alone would be expected following an injury at C. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System. Part 1, Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy, 1991, vol 8, pp 28-29. Wolock B, Millesi H: Brachial plexus-applied anatomy and operative exposure, in Gelberman RH (ed): Operative Nerve Repair and Reconstruction. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991, vol 2, pp 1255-1272.

Question 4

During an anterior retroperitoneal approach to the low lumbar spine, the iliac vessels are mobilized along the lateral side, allowing them to be retracted toward the midline. To gain adequate mobility of the common iliac vein for exposure of L5, it is important to identify which of the following structures?

Explanation

The iliolumbar vein is a large tributary that sits along the lateral surface of the common iliac vein. It can be quite substantial in size and must be identified prior to mobilizing the common iliac vein toward the midline. The other structures are not of surgical significance in performing this exposure.

Question 5

Figure 30 shows an axial T1-weighted MRI scan of a patient's right shoulder. The arrows are pointing to what normal structure?

Explanation

Tears of the pectoralis major tendon are frequently missed during examination. MRI provides excellent visualization of the tendon if the study extends low enough down the arm. The pectoralis major tendon inserts on the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus, just lateral to the long head of the biceps tendon. The latissimus dorsi tendon inserts medial to the long head of the biceps tendon on the lesser tubercle. The subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity more proximally. The deltoid insertion is more distal. Connell DA, Potter HG, Sherman MF, et al: Injuries of the pectoralis major muscle: Evaluation with MR imaging. Radiology 1999;210:785-791. Carrino JA, Chandnanni VP, Mitchell DB, et al: Pectoralis major muscle and tendon tears: Diagnosis and grading using magnetic resonance imaging. Skeletal Radiol 2000;29:305-313.

Question 6

The arthroscopic views shown in Figures 31a and 31b reveal extensive synovitis in the anterolateral corner of the ankle overlying a band of tissue sometimes implicated in soft-tissue impingement of the ankle following a chronic sprain injury. This band is a portion of the

Explanation

31b The arthroscopic views show the lateral side of the ankle as demonstrated by the presence of the tibiofibular articulation. As is typical in chronic anterolateral impingement, synovitis overlies the anteroinferior band of the tibiofibular ligament, the most distal portion of the anterior syndesmosis. Hypertrophic scar formed on or in this ligament can impinge on the lateral margin of the talar dome and has been associated with chronic anterolateral ankle pain. Bassett FH III, Gates HS III, Billys JB, et al: Talar impingement by the anteroinferior tibiofibular ligament: A cause of chronic pain in the ankle after inversion sprain. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:55-59.

Question 7

Figures 32a and 32b show the AP and lateral radiographs of an 11-year-old boy who has a severe limp, a fever, and swelling and tenderness of the thigh. Aspiration of the bone reveals purulent material. The patient has most likely been symptomatic for

Explanation

32b In patients with an osteomyelitic infection, radiographic findings at 1 to 5 days usually show soft-tissue swelling only. Seven to 14 days after symptoms begin, radiographs will most likely show the classic signs of acute osteomyelitis. Reactive bone formation would be expected by 6 months. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 149-161.

Question 8

Figure 33 shows the CT scan of a 40-year-old man who injured his left shoulder while skiing. What structure is attached to the bony fragment?

Explanation

The scan reveals a bony Bankart lesion. The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament is the major restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head and is usually injured with anterior shoulder dislocations. It inserts onto the glenoid labrum at the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid rim. The labrum most frequently avulses from the glenoid (Bankart lesion), but occasionally the bony attachment is avulsed. O'Brien SJ, Neves MC, Arnoczky SP, et al: The anatomy and histology of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex of the shoulder. Am J Sports Med 1990;18:449-456.

Question 9

What structure is located immediately posterior to the capsule at the posterior cruciate ligament tibial insertion?

Explanation

The popliteal artery lies just posterior to the posterior cruciate ligament tibial insertion, separated only by the posterior capsule of the knee. When performing a posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, this artery is at risk for injury during creation of the tibial tunnel. Jackson DW, Proctor CS, Simon TM: Arthroscopic assisted PCL reconstruction: A technical note on potential neurovascular injury related to drill bit configuration. J Arthroscopy 1993;9:224-227.

Question 10

A 21-year-old man has mild but persistent aching pain in his left proximal thigh during impact loading activities. He denies pain at rest and has no other symptoms. Figures 34a through 34e show the radiographs and T1-weighted, T2-weighted, and gadolinium MRI scans of the left hip. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

34b 34c 34d 34e The radiographs show a centrally located radiolucent lesion with cortical thinning and mild osseous expansion; these findings are the hallmarks of a simple bone cyst. Whereas this particular lesion does not demonstrate sclerosis, the distinct margin of this lesion with sharp transition to normal bone is common. The MRI scans reveal a purely cystic lesion with bright T2 signal, and the gadolinium image shows the classic rim enhancement of cystic lesions. Fibrous dysplasia with cystic degeneration might have a very similar appearance and should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL (eds): Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2002, pp 1027-1035. May DA, Good RB, Smith DK, et al: MR imaging of musculoskeletal tumors and tumor mimickers with intravenous gadolinium: Experience with 242 patients. Skeletal Radiol 1997;26:2-15.

Question 11

What nerve is at greatest risk when developing the superficial plane between the tensor fascia lata and sartorious during the anterior (Smith-Peterson) approach to the hip?

Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve pierces the fascia between the tensor fascia lata and the sartorius approximately 2.5 cm distal to the anterosuperior iliac spine and is at risk when the interval is defined. The superior gluteal and femoral nerves define the internervous plane between the tensor fascia lata and the sartorius and are not at risk for injury. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 302-316.

Question 12

An axial T1-weighted MRI scan of the pelvis is shown in Figure 35. Which of the following structures is enclosed by the circle?

Explanation

The obturator vessels and nerve pass along the lateral pelvic wall along the true pelvic brim (nerve lies anterior to the vessels and lies on the obturator internus muscle) and descend into the obturator groove at the upper portion of the obturator foramen. Higuchi T: Normal anatomy and magnetic resonance appearance of the pelvis, in Takahashi HE, Morita T, Hotta T, et al (eds): Operative Treatment of Pelvic Tumors. Tokyo, Japan, Springer-Verlag, 2003, pp 4-21.

Question 13

At the level of the midcalf, the plantaris tendon is found at which of the following locations?

Explanation

The plantaris tendon is often harvested to augment a tendon reconstruction. The origin of the plantaris muscle is on the posterolateral aspect of the distal femur, and the muscle lies lateral to the tibial nerve and the posterior tibial artery. The tendon then courses posteriorly between the soleus and the medial head of the gastrocnemius. Clement CD: Anatomy: A Regional Atlas of Human Anatomy, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Munich, Germany, Urban and Schwarzberg, 1987, Figure 475.

Question 14

In the posterior approach to the proximal radius (proximal Thompson approach), the supinator is exposed through the interval between what two muscles?

Explanation

The proximal exposure of the radius is most often used for internal fixation of fractures, resection of tumors, or decompression of the posterior interosseous nerve beneath the supinator muscle. The supinator muscle is exposed through the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the extensor digitorum comminus muscles. This interval can be more easily palpated further distal in the forearm. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 136-146.

Question 15

Figure 36 shows the hip arthrogram of a newborn. Which of the following structures is enclosed by the circle?

Explanation

The structure enclosed by the circle is the acetabular labrum. It is visible as the white point of tissue outlined by the darkly radiopaque contrast. The appearance of the contrast surrounding the sharp white point of a normal labrum is called the "rose thorn sign." The limbus is the term reserved for a rounded, infolded labrum seen with arthrography. The pulvinar is the fatty tissue seen in the empty acetabulum when the hip is dislocated. The ligamentum teres is seen as a white stripe outlined by contrast coursing from the central acetabulum to the dislocated femoral head. The transverse acetabular ligament courses across the inferior portion of the acetabulum and is not clearly seen with arthrography. Herring JA: Tachdjian's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 1, pp 532-533.

Question 16

Figures 37a and 37b show radiographs of a 24-year-old man who has a humeral bone lesion that was found during a screening chest radiograph. He denies any symptoms despite leading a very active lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

37b The radiographs reveal a geographic, diaphyseal lesion with very subtle cortical expansion, cortical thinning, relatively sharp demarcation, and angular rather than rounded borders, suggesting a fibrous bone lesion. This lesion demonstrates the classic ground glass appearance of fibrous dysplasia. Ewing's sarcoma, metastases, and aneurysmal bone cyst all typically have a more aggressive appearance. Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL (eds): Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2002, pp 1027-1035.

Question 17

Figures 38a and 38b show the CT scans of a 64-year-old woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

38b The CT scans show large cystic lesions in the talus and calcaneus with complete subluxation of the subtalar joint, allowing the calcaneus to slide laterally until it becomes blocked by the fibula. The cause of this subluxation is severe posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. Although no fibular fracture has yet appeared, it can occur with continued stress from the calcaneus. There is, however, a pathologic fracture in the medial calcaneus through a medial degenerative cyst. The joint space is irregular and not symmetrical as would be seen in an inflammatory arthropathy. Cystic lesions are not present in the tibia. No stress fracture is seen in the talus. Coughlin MJ: Sesamoids and accessory bones of the foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 437-499.

Question 18

The arrow in Figure 39 is pointing to which of the following ligaments?

Explanation

The lunotriquetral interosseous ligament stabilizes the lunotriquetral joint. The scapholunate interosseous ligament stabilizes the scapholunate joint. The ulnolunate ligament originates from the base of the ulnar styloid and inserts in the lunate. The ulnotriquetral ligament originates from the base of the ulnar styloid and inserts on the triquetrum. The ulnolunate and the ulnotriquetral ligaments are important stabilizers to the ulnar side of the wrist. The short radiolunate ligament originates on the volar ulnar margin of the distal radius and inserts in the ulnar margin of the lunate. Berger RA: Ligament anatomy, in Cooney WP, Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH (eds): The Wrist, Diagnosis and Operative Management. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1998, pp 73-105.

Question 19

The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow originates on what portion of the medial epicondyle?

Explanation

The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow consists of three portions: the anterior bundle, the posterior bundle, and a transverse component that has little biomechanic significance. The origin of the ligament is from the central two thirds of the anteroinferior undersurface of the medial epicondyle.

Question 20

Figures 40a and 40b show the pre- and postoperative radiographs of an 82-year-old woman with bilateral hip pain who has had staged total hip arthroplasties. To minimize potential injury to the sciatic nerve at the time of surgery, the surgeon should

Explanation

40b To improve hip biomechanics and secure more suitable bone for acetabular fixation, the true acetabulum is often resurfaced in patients who have developmental dysplasia of the hip, thus lowering the hip center and lengthening the leg. Acute lengthening of more than 3 cm will place excessive tension on the sciatic nerve and require a femoral shortening to avoid sciatic nerve injury. The other maneuvers will not relieve sciatic nerve tension because of limb lengthening. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 430-431.

Question 21

Based on the radiographic findings shown in Figure 41, which of the following wrist ligaments is most likely disrupted?

Explanation

The radiograph shows a diastasis of the scapholunate interval, caused by certain failure of the scapholunate interosseous ligament. The lunotriquetral interosseous ligament stabilizes the lunotriquetral joint. The long radiolunate ligament originates in the volar radius and inserts in the lunate. The short radiolunate ligament originates on the ulnar margin of the radius and inserts on the ulnar margin of the lunate. The ulnolunate ligament originates at the ulnar styloid base and inserts on the volar aspect of the lunate. Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH, Beabout JW, et al: Traumatic instability of the wrist: Diagnosis, classification, and pathomechanics. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1972;54:1612-1632. Mayfield JK, Johnson RP, Kilcoyne RK: Carpal dislocations: Pathomechanics and progressive perilunar instability. J Hand Surg Am 1980;5:226-241.

Question 22

Which of the following extensor tendons commonly have multiple slips?

Explanation

The extensor digiti mini quinti is most typically a tendon with two slips. The abductor pollicis longus has multiple slips that insert in order of frequency on the base of the first metacarpal, trapezium, and thenar muscles. The extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor indicis proprius consistantly have only one slip. von Schroeder HP, Botte MJ: Anatomy of the extensor tendons of the fingers: Variations and multiplicity. J Hand Surg Am 1995;20:27-34.

Question 23

The nerve to the abductor digiti quinti, implicated in some patients who have chronic heel pain, is most commonly a branch of what larger nerve?

Explanation

The nerve to the abductor digiti quinti is the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. It branches off while the nerve is still on the medial side of the foot and also innervates a portion of the plantar fascia. It can become entrapped beneath the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle and has been associated with some forms of chronic heel pain. Baxter DE, Pfeffer GB: Treatment of chronic heel pain by surgical release of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. Clin Orthop 1992;279:229-236.

Question 24

Figure 42 shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan of a patient's right knee. These findings are most commonly seen with a complete tear of the

Explanation

The MRI scan reveals disruption of the lateral capsule and ligaments with fluid in the soft tissues laterally. Additionally, there is a large bone bruise on the medial femoral condyle. This combination indicates injury to the posterolateral complex. These injuries often have coexisting anterior and/or posterior cruciate ligament injuries. Failure to recognize the posterolateral corner injury can lead to failure of anterior or posterior cruciate ligament reconstructions. LaPrade RF, Gilbert TJ, Bollom TS, et al: The magnetic resonance imaging appearance of individual structures of the posterolateral knee: A prospective study of normal knees and knees with surgically verified grade III injuries. Am J Sports Med 2000;28:191-199.

Question 25

Thermal capsulorrhaphy of the inferior glenohumeral ligament can cause iatrogenic injury to which of the following nerves?

Explanation

The axillary nerve courses from anterior to posterior just below the inferior shoulder capsule. Thermal energy applied to the inferior aspect of the shoulder capsule can result in injury to this nerve. Wong KL, Williams GR: Complications of thermal capsulorrhaphy of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:151-155.

Question 26

A patient undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal fibula fracture via a standard lateral approach. Postoperatively, she complains of numbness over the dorsum of her foot, sparing the first web space. The injured structure typically crosses the fibula from posterior to anterior at what average distance proximal to the distal tip of the fibula?

Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot. It typically crosses the fibular shaft from posterior to anterior and pierces the crural fascia approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.

Question 27

During an anatomic reconstruction of the posterolateral corner of the knee, the surgeon must accurately identify the femoral footprints of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) and the popliteus tendon (PT). On the lateral femoral epicondyle, what is the anatomic relationship of the PT insertion relative to the FCL origin?

Explanation

The popliteus tendon insertion is situated approximately 18.5 mm anterior and distal to the origin of the fibular collateral ligament on the lateral femoral epicondyle. Accurate tunnel placement here is critical for restoring normal posterolateral kinematics.

Question 28

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain and selective deltoid weakness. An MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst compressing the axillary nerve within the quadrilateral space. Which of the following muscles forms the superior border of this space?

Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. Compression of the axillary nerve within this space leads to quadrilateral space syndrome.

Question 29

A patient presents with an inability to extend the metacarpophalangeal joints of the fingers following a surgical approach to the proximal radius. The most likely injured nerve typically enters the supinator muscle beneath a dense fibrous arch. What is the proper anatomical name of this arch?

Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during approaches to the proximal radius. The PIN dives under the superficial head of the supinator muscle at the Arcade of Frohse, the most common site of PIN compression.

Question 30

A surgeon is performing a posterolateral approach to the hip for total hip arthroplasty. To minimize the risk of avascular necrosis and preserve the main blood supply to the femoral head, aggressive release or division of the quadratus femoris muscle near its femoral insertion should be avoided. The vessel protected by this maneuver is the:

Explanation

The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It courses deep (anterior) to the quadratus femoris muscle, meaning preservation of the quadratus femoris protects the MCFA.

Question 31

A patient sustained a deep laceration to the thenar eminence, resulting in an inability to oppose the thumb despite intact sensation. The injured nerve branch typically takes which of the following paths relative to the transverse carpal ligament to innervate the thenar musculature?

Explanation

The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar muscles. In roughly 50-80% of individuals, it branches off distal to the transverse carpal ligament and takes an extraligamentous (recurrent) path back to the thenar eminence.

Question 32

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), excessive lateral bone removal using a burr puts the vertebral artery at significant risk. The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen first at which cervical level?

Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at C6 in over 90% of individuals. Dissection too far laterally during lower cervical exposures places it at high risk.

Question 33

During a plantar approach to the foot for an extensive midfoot fusion, the surgeon encounters the "Master knot of Henry." This structure is anatomically defined as the location where:

Explanation

At the Master knot of Henry, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) courses medially toward the great toe, crossing dorsal to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL). This anatomical intersection occurs in the deep plantar compartment of the foot.

Question 34

During an anterior retroperitoneal approach to the L4-L5 disc space, the surgeon is at risk of injuring a neural structure situated on the anterolateral aspect of the L4 vertebral body. Injury to this structure most commonly results in which of the following?

Explanation

The sympathetic trunk is located on the anterolateral aspect of the lumbar vertebral bodies. Injury to the sympathetic trunk results in a warm, dry lower extremity on the ipsilateral side due to loss of sympathetic tone.

Question 35

A patient sustains a laceration to the volar wrist, dividing the ulnar nerve distal to the takeoff of the dorsal ulnar cutaneous branch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely to be observed?

Explanation

The deep branch of the ulnar nerve innervates the adductor pollicis. Division of the ulnar nerve at the wrist spares the dorsal ulnar cutaneous branch and the motor branches to the FDP, but causes weakness in thumb adduction.

Question 36

During an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular fracture, a specific nerve is contained within the inferior (plantar) full-thickness flap. Which nerve is most at risk if this flap is poorly handled?

Explanation

The sural nerve is located in the inferior flap of the standard extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. Careful retraction is necessary to avoid injury to this nerve, which supplies sensation to the lateral aspect of the hindfoot.

Question 37

To avoid iatrogenic injury to the axillary nerve during a lateral deltoid-splitting approach to the proximal humerus, the split should not extend beyond what distance distal to the lateral edge of the acromion?

Explanation

The axillary nerve runs horizontally across the deep surface of the deltoid approximately 5 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. A deltoid split should be limited to this distance to prevent denervating the anterior portion of the muscle.

Question 38

During reconstruction of the posterolateral corner of the knee, a graft is placed at the anatomical femoral attachment of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL). Relative to the lateral epicondyle, where is the precise origin of the FCL?

Explanation

The fibular collateral ligament originates 1.4 mm proximal and 3.1 mm posterior to the lateral epicondyle of the femur. The popliteus tendon inserts 18.5 mm anterior and distal to the FCL.

Question 39

The Smith-Petersen approach to the hip utilizes a superficial internervous plane between which of the following muscle pairs?

Explanation

The Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 40

A surgeon is performing a surgical exposure of the hip via the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach. Which of the following represents the correct internervous plane for the superficial dissection?

Explanation

The superficial internervous plane of the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 41

A 45-year-old mechanic presents with vague dorsal forearm pain and an inability to actively extend the metacarpophalangeal joints of his fingers and thumb. There is no sensory deficit. Compression of a nerve at which of the following anatomic structures is the most likely cause?

Explanation

The patient presents with posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) syndrome. The most common site of PIN compression is the Arcade of Frohse, the proximal tendinous edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle.

Question 42

A 28-year-old patient sustains a displaced talar neck fracture (Hawkins Type III). Which of the following arteries provides the major blood supply to the body of the talus, placing it at highest risk for avascular necrosis if disrupted?

Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, is the predominant blood supply to the body of the talus. Disruption leads to a high risk of avascular necrosis in displaced talar neck fractures.

Question 43

During an open reduction and internal fixation of a distal humerus shaft fracture via an anterolateral approach, the surgeon identifies a supracondylar process. An anomalous fibrous band extending from this process to the medial epicondyle can compress which of the following structures?

Explanation

The Ligament of Struthers extends from a supracondylar process of the humerus to the medial epicondyle. It can cause compression of the median nerve and the brachial artery, which pass deep to it.

Question 44

A 32-year-old bodybuilder complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing structures within the quadrangular space. Which of the following muscles forms the superior border of this space?

Explanation

The quadrangular space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. It contains the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery.

Question 45

A surgeon is planning an extensile posterolateral approach to the tibia to plate a complex tibial plateau fracture. Which internervous plane is predominantly utilized in this approach?

Explanation

The posterolateral approach to the tibia utilizes an internervous plane between the peroneal muscles (superficial peroneal nerve) anteriorly and the soleus, flexor hallucis longus, and gastrocnemius (tibial nerve) posteriorly.

Question 46

A 22-year-old soccer player develops an acute compartment syndrome of the leg following a tibial fracture. To adequately decompress the deep posterior compartment, the surgeon must identify and protect its neurovascular contents. Which of the following structures normally resides within the deep posterior compartment of the leg?

Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, tibial nerve, and posterior tibial and peroneal arteries.

Question 47

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with progressive weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle, while the supraspinatus is clinically normal. Where is the most likely location of nerve entrapment?

Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Compression at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 48

While performing an open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture via a dorsal approach, the surgeon elevates the third extensor compartment. Which of the following tendons is contained within this compartment?

Explanation

The third dorsal extensor compartment of the wrist contains only the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon. It wraps around Lister's tubercle, which serves as a biomechanical pulley.

Question 49

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes reconstruction of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow. Which bundle of the UCL is considered the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of elbow flexion?

Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial (ulnar) collateral ligament of the elbow originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts onto the sublime tubercle. It is the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion.

Question 50

During an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for open reduction and internal fixation, the vertical limb of the incision is placed between the posterior aspect of the fibula and the Achilles tendon. If the incision is placed too anteriorly, which of the following structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

Explanation

The sural nerve courses posterior to the lateral malleolus. Placing the vertical limb of the extensile lateral incision too anteriorly places the sural nerve and lesser saphenous vein at direct risk of transection.

Question 51

The standard deltopectoral approach to the shoulder utilizes a true internervous plane. This interval is developed between muscles innervated by which of the following combinations of nerves?

Explanation

The deltopectoral interval lies between the deltoid (axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (medial and lateral pectoral nerves). This creates a safe internervous plane for anterior shoulder exposure.

Question 52

During a dorsal approach to the proximal radius (Thompson approach), the interval is developed between the extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi radialis brevis. To safely expose the proximal radial shaft, how should the supinator muscle be managed to best protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)?

Explanation

Pronating the forearm moves the PIN medially and safely away from the radial insertion of the supinator. The muscle is then detached from its radial insertion and reflected ulnarly to protect the nerve.

Question 53

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the short external rotators are divided. The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the main blood supply to the femoral head. It is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if which of the following structures is released too close to its femoral insertion?

Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA courses adjacent to the superior border of the quadratus femoris. Releasing the quadratus femoris, especially near its femoral insertion, risks dividing this critical vessel.

Question 54

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of the right shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. An MRI is most likely to show a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following anatomical locations?

Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.

Question 55

A rock climber experiences a sudden "pop" in his middle finger while aggressively pulling on a crimp hold. He subsequently demonstrates visible bowstringing of the flexor tendons over the proximal phalanx. Complete rupture of which of the following flexor tendon pulleys is the primary cause of this bowstringing?

Explanation

The A2 (proximal phalanx) and A4 (middle phalanx) pulleys are the most critical biomechanical pulleys in the finger. Rupture of the A2 pulley leads to significant mechanical bowstringing and loss of flexor efficiency.

Question 56

Anatomical femoral tunnel placement is critical during reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. Relative to the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) femoral attachment, where is the femoral footprint of the popliteus tendon located?

Explanation

According to the anatomical studies by LaPrade et al., the popliteus femoral insertion is located approximately 18.5 mm anterior and distal to the femoral insertion of the FCL.

Question 57

When placing a pedicle screw at the L4 vertebral level, the ideal anatomical starting point is identified at the intersection of a line bisecting the transverse process and a vertical line plumb with which of the following structures?

Explanation

In the lumbar spine, the standard entry point for pedicle screw placement is the intersection of the bisected transverse process and the lateral border of the superior articular facet.

Question 58

A patient is treated nonoperatively for a closed proximal radius fracture. Four weeks later, they are unable to form a true "OK" sign, instead making a flat pinch with the thumb and index finger. Sensation in the hand is entirely normal. Which of the following muscles is definitively denervated?

Explanation

The patient has Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN) syndrome, which innervates the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (index/long), and pronator quadratus. Weakness of the FPL prevents flexion of the thumb IP joint, causing a flat pinch.

Question 59

During an external rotation injury to the ankle resulting in a syndesmotic disruption, the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is avulsed from its fibular attachment. This specific anatomical bony prominence is known as the:

Explanation

The AITFL attaches laterally to the anterior tubercle of the fibula, known as the Wagstaffe-Le Fort tubercle. Its medial attachment on the tibia is the Tillaux-Chaput tubercle.

Question 60

During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for acetabular fracture fixation, significant hemorrhage occurs while dissecting over the superior pubic ramus. This is likely due to an injury to the corona mortis, an anastomosis connecting the obturator vessels with which of the following systems?

Explanation

The corona mortis is an anatomical vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) vessels and the obturator vessels. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus.

Question 61

A 45-year-old mechanic with severe cubital tunnel syndrome undergoes surgical decompression. The ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris. The thick fascial band bridging these two heads is known anatomically as:

Explanation

Osborne's ligament, also known as the cubital tunnel retinaculum, spans the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris. It is a primary site of ulnar nerve compression in cubital tunnel syndrome.

Question 62

During a medial approach to the midfoot for an acquired flatfoot deformity correction, the surgeon identifies the "Master Knot of Henry". Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical relationship at this site?

Explanation

At the Master Knot of Henry, located plantar to the navicular, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) as it heads toward the great toe.

Question 63

Following a severe motorcycle crash, a patient presents with paralysis of the latissimus dorsi, deltoid, and all extensor muscles of the arm, forearm, and hand. Sensation is preserved over the lateral aspect of the forearm. The lesion is most accurately localized to which structure of the brachial plexus?

Explanation

The posterior cord gives rise to the upper/lower subscapular, thoracodorsal (latissimus dorsi), axillary (deltoid), and radial (extensors) nerves. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is a branch of the musculocutaneous nerve (lateral cord), explaining the preserved sensation.

Question 64

A 65-year-old patient treated non-operatively for a distal radius fracture presents 8 weeks later with a sudden inability to actively extend the interphalangeal joint of the thumb. The involved tendon typically travels through which extensor compartment of the wrist?

Explanation

The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon routes around Lister's tubercle through the third extensor compartment. It is highly susceptible to delayed rupture following distal radius fractures.

Question 65

A 30-year-old athlete complains of vague lateral shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated teres minor and deltoid atrophy. An MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst within the quadrilateral space. Which muscle forms the superior boundary of this anatomical space?

Explanation

The quadrilateral space transmits the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. Its boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and surgical neck of humerus (lateral).

Question 66

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) consists of two distinct functional bundles. Which of the following statements correctly describes the kinematic behavior of the anteromedial (AM) bundle?

Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tense in flexion and is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tighter in extension and restrains rotation.

Question 67

The Lisfranc ligament is crucial for midfoot stability. Anatomically, this ligament provides a direct, stout connection between which of the following two osseous structures?

Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament bridges the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal. Notably, there is no direct ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals.

Question 68

During a multi-level anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), lateral dissection places the vertebral artery at risk. In normal cervical anatomy, the vertebral artery typically enters the foramen transversarium at which cervical vertebral level?

Explanation

The vertebral artery ascends from the subclavian artery and classically enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level, continuing upwards through the cervical spine.

Question 69

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a multiligamentous knee injury with a severe posterolateral corner injury. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon identifies the correct anatomical footprint for the fibular collateral ligament on the fibular head. This footprint is located in which anatomical relationship to the biceps femoris tendon?

Explanation

The fibular collateral ligament (FCL) inserts onto the lateral aspect of the fibular head, positioned slightly anterior to the insertion of the biceps femoris tendon. The biceps femoris tendon partially envelops the FCL insertion.

Question 70

A 25-year-old sustains a displaced fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. On examination, weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation is noted. The injured nerve exits the axilla through a space that is bordered superiorly by which of the following muscles?

Explanation

The axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space, which is bordered superiorly by the teres minor (posteriorly) and subscapularis (anteriorly), inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck.

Question 71

During a right-sided anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6, the surgeon carefully mobilizes the visceral structures to avoid nerve injury. Which of the following anatomic characteristics makes the recurrent laryngeal nerve more susceptible to injury on the right compared to the left?

Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and has a more variable, oblique course in the neck. The left nerve loops lower under the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove, making it less prone to surgical injury.

Question 72

A surgeon is performing a modified Hardinge (direct lateral) approach for total hip arthroplasty. To prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the gluteus medius, the proximal split in the muscle should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius and minimus. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter risks transecting the nerve branches, potentially leading to a postoperative Trendelenburg gait.

Question 73

During a Henry (volar) approach to the proximal radius for plate fixation of a fracture, the surgeon heavily supinates the forearm while exposing the radial shaft. What is the primary anatomic rationale for this maneuver?

Explanation

Supinating the forearm wraps the supinator muscle around the proximal radius, pulling the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) laterally and away from the volar surgical field. Pronation would shift the PIN medially, increasing the risk of iatrogenic injury.

Question 74

A trauma patient undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of an anterior pelvic ring fracture via an ilioinguinal approach. The surgeon identifies substantial bleeding from a vascular anastomosis coursing over the superior pubic ramus. This structure primarily connects which two vessel systems?

Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) system and the obturator system. It typically crosses the superior pubic ramus approximately 5 to 6 cm from the pubic symphysis, making it highly vulnerable during anterior pelvic surgery.

Question 75

A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with shoulder pain and isolated wasting of the infraspinatus muscle without supraspinatus involvement. An MRI is expected to show a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following anatomic locations?

Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch causes isolated infraspinatus atrophy, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles.

Question 76

While performing a tarsal tunnel release for compressive neuropathy, the surgeon identifies a sensory nerve branch originating from the tibial nerve proximal to its bifurcation into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. This branch courses distally to supply the medial heel pad. Which structure is this?

Explanation

The medial calcaneal nerve branches from the tibial nerve proximal to or within the tarsal tunnel to supply sensation to the medial heel. Baxter's nerve (the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve) provides motor innervation to the abductor digiti minimi.

Question 77

A patient sustains a midshaft femur fracture. During an anterolateral approach, the surgeon utilizes the interval between the rectus femoris and the vastus lateralis. Which of the following nerves innervates the muscle that is retracted medially?

Explanation

The anterolateral approach utilizes an intermuscular plane between the rectus femoris (retracted medially) and vastus lateralis (retracted laterally). Both muscles are innervated by the femoral nerve, meaning this is not a true internervous plane.

Question 78

A 27-year-old rock climber presents with a closed rupture of the A2 pulley in the ring finger. To plan surgical reconstruction, the surgeon reviews the local anatomy. The A2 pulley is anatomically attached directly to which of the following skeletal structures?

Explanation

The A2 pulley arises from the periosteum of the proximal half of the proximal phalanx. It is one of the most crucial pulleys for preventing bowstringing of the flexor tendons during digit flexion.

Question 79

A 35-year-old male suffers a traction injury to his brachial plexus following a motorcycle accident. Examination reveals profound winging of the scapula with forward elevation of the arm. The injured nerve originates from which of the following anatomic components?

Explanation

Scapular winging indicates paralysis of the serratus anterior, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This nerve originates directly from the ventral rami of the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots before the formation of the trunks.

Question 80

During a posterior lumbar interbody fusion at L4-L5, the surgeon places pedicle screws into the L4 vertebrae. To avoid radicular injury, the surgeon must remember that the exiting L4 nerve root passes in which relationship to the L4 pedicle?

Explanation

In the lumbar spine, the exiting nerve root travels inferior and lateral to the pedicle of its corresponding vertebral body. Therefore, the L4 nerve root exits below the L4 pedicle.

Question 81

When establishing the 3-4 portal for wrist arthroscopy, the surgeon places the trocar between the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) and the extensor digitorum communis (EDC) tendons. Which of the following extensor compartments is immediately radial to this portal?

Explanation

The 3-4 portal is located between the 3rd dorsal compartment (EPL) and the 4th dorsal compartment (EDC). Thus, the 3rd extensor compartment lies immediately radial to the portal.

Question 82

Following a traumatic posterior knee dislocation, a patient presents with an ischemic lower extremity. The popliteal artery is highly susceptible to stretch injury due to its fixed anatomic location between the adductor hiatus proximally and which of the following structures distally?

Explanation

The popliteal artery is firmly tethered proximally at the adductor hiatus and distally by the fibrous arch of the soleus muscle. This rigid fixation makes it vulnerable to severe stretch and intimal tearing during high-energy knee dislocations.

Question 83

A 28-year-old bodybuilder tears his pectoralis major at the musculotendinous junction. During the surgical repair, the surgeon must restore the normal bilaminar insertion footprint on the humerus. The clavicular head inserts at which relative position on the humerus?

Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist before insertion. The clavicular head inserts anteriorly and distally, while the sternal head twists underneath to insert posteriorly and proximally on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove.

Question 84

A patient develops acute compartment syndrome of the lateral compartment of the leg following a complex fibular shaft fracture. Which of the following nerves courses through this specific compartment and is at greatest risk for ischemic injury?

Explanation

The lateral compartment of the leg contains the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, along with the superficial peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal nerve is located within the anterior compartment.

Question 85

A surgeon uses a single-incision anterior approach to repair an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. During dissection, a cutaneous nerve is identified and protected to avoid lateral forearm numbness. This nerve is the terminal sensory branch of which parent nerve?

Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve provides sensation to the lateral forearm and is frequently injured during anterior approaches to the elbow. It is the terminal branch of the musculocutaneous nerve, piercing the deep fascia lateral to the biceps tendon.

Question 86

During a posterior approach to the humerus for plate fixation of a midshaft fracture, the radial nerve is identified within the spiral groove. Which muscle head must be sharply split to expose the bone directly beneath the nerve in this region?

Explanation

In the posterior approach to the humerus, the superficial interval is between the lateral and long heads of the triceps. Deeper exposure of the humeral shaft requires splitting the medial head of the triceps, which lies directly over the periosteum.

Question 87

An orthopedic surgeon is evaluating an ankle MRI for a suspected syndesmotic injury. Which ligament in the syndesmotic complex constitutes the primary restraint to excessive anterior translation of the distal fibula relative to the tibia?

Explanation

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is the weakest of the syndesmotic ligaments but serves as the primary anatomical restraint against anterior translation of the distal fibula.

Question 88

During an anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), careful hemostasis is required as major vessels are encountered traversing the surgical interval. The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery crosses between which two muscles?

Explanation

The internervous plane of the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The ascending branches of the lateral femoral circumflex artery traverse this interval and must be ligated for safe exposure.

Question 89

During a posterior approach to the hip, an artery is at risk of iatrogenic injury if the quadratus femoris is divided too far proximally. This artery typically courses between the quadratus femoris and which of the following structures?

Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It is located in the interval between the obturator externus and the quadratus femoris, making it vulnerable if the quadratus femoris is released too proximally.

Question 90

A patient undergoes surgical decompression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon's canal. Which of the following structures forms the primary floor of this anatomic canal?

Explanation

The floor of Guyon's canal is primarily formed by the transverse carpal ligament and the pisohamate ligament. The roof is formed by the volar carpal ligament and the palmaris brevis muscle.

Question 91

When reconstructing the posterolateral corner of the knee, anatomic placement of the popliteus tendon on the femur is critical. What is the normal anatomic relationship of the popliteus femoral attachment relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) attachment?

Explanation

The popliteus tendon footprint on the lateral femoral condyle is located approximately 18.5 mm distal and anterior to the femoral attachment of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Accurate identification of this relationship is essential for isometric posterolateral corner reconstruction.

Question 92

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder for a fracture dislocation, you must identify the boundaries of the quadrangular space to protect the axillary nerve. Which of the following constitutes the superior boundary of this space?

Explanation

The quadrangular space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the humeral shaft. It transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 93

A 45-year-old mechanic presents with an inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints following a proximal radius fracture. Sensation in the hand is completely normal. The injured nerve most commonly becomes entrapped at which of the following anatomic structures?

Explanation

The patient has a posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy, characterized by pure motor loss of finger and thumb extension. The PIN most commonly becomes compressed at the Arcade of Frohse, which is the proximal tendinous edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle.

Question 94

Transforaminal endoscopic lumbar discectomy utilizes the Triangle of Kambin for safe access to the disc space. Which of the following structures forms the anterior boundary (hypotenuse) of this anatomic triangle?

Explanation

The Triangle of Kambin is a safe anatomical zone for endoscopic spine procedures. Its hypotenuse (anterior border) is the exiting nerve root, the base (inferior border) is the superior endplate of the inferior vertebra, and the height (posterior border) is the traversing nerve root and dura.

Question 95

A patient with adult-acquired flatfoot deformity requires a repair of the spring ligament complex. Which of the following bands of the spring ligament is the primary stabilizer of the talar head and longitudinal arch?

Explanation

The spring ligament complex consists of three portions, with the superomedial calcaneonavicular ligament being the strongest and most critical for supporting the talar head. It originates from the sustentaculum tali and inserts on the navicular tuberosity.

Question 96

During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for an acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage occurs near the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to injury to an anastomotic vessel (corona mortis) communicating between the obturator vessels and the:

Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator system and the external iliac or deep inferior epigastric systems. It rests on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is highly susceptible to iatrogenic injury during anterior pelvic approaches.

Question 97

In flexor tendon repairs of the hand (Zone II), preserving the pulley system is crucial to prevent bowstringing. Which of the following pulleys is considered most biomechanically critical and originates directly from the periosteum of the proximal phalanx?

Explanation

The A2 and A4 pulleys are the most biomechanically important for preventing tendon bowstringing. The A2 pulley originates from the periosteum of the proximal half of the proximal phalanx, whereas the A4 pulley is located over the middle phalanx.

Question 98

A patient undergoes a fasciotomy for acute compartment syndrome of the lower leg. The deep posterior compartment is decompressed. Which of the following structures is located most anteriorly and medially within the retromalleolar groove as it passes into the foot?

Explanation

From anterior/medial to posterior/lateral behind the medial malleolus, the structures are the Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus (Tom, Dick, AND Very Nervous Harry). The tibialis posterior is the most anterior and medial structure.

Question 99

A surgeon is performing a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius for plate fixation. The internervous plane for this exposure lies between muscles supplied by which of the following nerve pairs?

Explanation

The internervous plane for the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius lies between the brachioradialis (supplied by the radial nerve) and the pronator teres (supplied by the median nerve). Further distally, the plane is between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis (median nerve).

AAOS & ABOS Basic Science MCQs (Set 3): Bone Biology, Biomechanics & Anatomy Review

Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 3)

Key Takeaway

Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 3)

Chapter Index