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AAOS & ABOS Basic Science MCQs (Set 3): Bone Biology, Biomechanics & Anatomy Review

AAOS & ABOS Anatomy MCQs (Set 2): Musculoskeletal, Neuro, & Regional Topography for Board Review

27 Apr 2026 49 min read 83 Views
Anatomy 2002 MCQs - Part 2

Key Takeaway

This high-yield question set for AAOS/ABOS exams focuses on critical musculoskeletal anatomy, including bone landmarks, joint structures, and muscle actions. It also covers peripheral nerve pathways and key regional topographic anatomy essential for surgical understanding and diagnostic skills, specifically for Set 2.

AAOS & ABOS Anatomy MCQs (Set 2): Musculoskeletal, Neuro, & Regional Topography for Board Review

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

Figure 14 shows a lateral radiograph of a knee joint. The bony structure indicated by the arrow is a sesamoid bone that resides in what tendon?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1





Explanation

The radiograph shows a fabella, a sesamoid bone that is usually found within the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius. It can be confused with a loose body on radiographs. It occurs in 18% of patients and is often bilateral. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4-69.

Question 2

Talar compression syndrome in ballet dancers typically involves injury to which of the following structures?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2





Explanation

Talar compression syndrome is also known as os trigonum syndrome or posterior ankle impingement syndrome and occurs in activities involving extreme ankle plantar flexion. It involves pinching of the posterior talus (os trigonum or posterior process of the talus) between the calcaneus and tibia. The flexor hallucis longus also may be impinged. The other structures are not commonly injured in this syndrome. Brodsky AE, Khalil MA: Talar compression syndrome. Am J Sports Med 1986;14:472-476. Wredmark T, Carlstedt CA, Bauer H, Saartok T: Os trigonum syndrome: A clinical entity in ballet dancers. Foot Ankle 1991;11:404-406.

Question 3

The sartorius muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 3





Explanation

The femoral nerve enters the thigh behind the inguinal ligament, lying on the surface of the iliopsoas muscle lateral to the femoral artery and vein. The nerve divides into numerous muscular and cutaneous branches in the femoral triangle. The first motor branch (sometimes two branches) is to the sartorius. There is a variable branch to the pectineus. Subsequent branches go to the rectus femoris and then the vastus muscles in variable order. The last motor branch is to the articularis genu. The muscular branches can be injured in anterior approaches to the hip, especially the middle window of the ilioinguinal approach. Hollinshead WH: Textbook of Anatomy, ed 3. Hagerstown, MD, Harper and Row, 1974, p 404.

Question 4

Pacinian corpuscles are lamellated nerve endings that are responsible for providing the perception of

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4





Explanation

Pacinian corpuscles are nerve endings that provide the perception of pressure.

Question 5

An elite gymnast injured her ankle in an awkward dismount 36 hours ago. Examination reveals weakness on single leg step-up. A clinical photograph of the medial ankle is shown in Figure 15. Plain radiographs are normal. To help confirm the diagnosis, the next step in evaluation should consist of

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5





Explanation

Ecchymosis on the medial side of the ankle is distributed in the posterior tibialis tendon sheath location, posterior to the medial malleolus, and extending inferiorly to the tendon's attachment on the navicular. MRI is the imaging study of choice to determine the extent of tendon damage. MRI will also help assess the deltoid ligament. Bone scans and CT are helpful in identifying osteochondral fractures and occult fractures; however, these studies are not indicated for this patient. Peroneal tendons are located lateral on the ankle. Arthroscopy of the ankle joint would not be helpful in assessing the posterior tibial tendons. Lutter LD, Mizel MS, Pfeffer GB (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 307-317.

Question 6

Figure 16 shows an axial MRI scan through the knee joint. What structure is identified by the arrow?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 6





Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament can be visualized on an axial MRI scan as a low-signal structure lying in the lateral aspect of the intercondylar notch. Visualization in multiple planes increases the accuracy of MRI to view the anterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament and ligament of Wrisberg are located on the medial wall of the notch. The ligamentum mucosum is anterior to the notch, and the popliteus tendon is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle. Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 675-699.

Question 7

Which of the following nerves is most commonly injured when obtaining a bone graft from the posterior ilium?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7





Explanation

Cutaneous sensation to the buttock is provided by the superior, middle, and inferior cluneal nerves. The superior cluneal nerves are the lateral branches of the dorsal rami of the upper three lumbar nerves and penetrate deep fascia just proximal to the iliac crest. They pass distally to the skin of the buttock and will be injured if the exposure extends more than 8 cm anterolateral to the posterior superior iliac spine. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can be injured in an anterior ilium bone graft. The superior gluteal nerve or even the sciatic nerve can be injured if bone is removed from the sciatic notch or dissection is not kept subperiosteal; however, the rate of injury is far less than cluneal nerve injury. The L5 and S1 nerve roots are anterior and can be injured if the inner table bone is harvested and the dissection is not kept subperiosteal or is too medial; however, the rate of injury still is far less than cluneal nerve injury. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 295-297. Hollinshead WH: Textbook of Anatomy, ed 3. Hagerstown, MD, Harper and Row, 1974, p 379. Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6. London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, p 23.

Question 8

Based on the findings seen in the posteroanterior radiograph of the wrist shown in Figure 17, which of the following structures is torn?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8





Explanation

The radiograph shows widening between the scaphoid and lunate. The normal variance is up to 5 mm. Although several ligaments may be torn, the scapholunate interosseous ligament must be torn for this widening to occur. Cooney WP, Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH: The Wrist: Diagnosis and Operative Treatment. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 503-506.

Question 9

What tendon has an intra-articular (instrasynovial) location in the knee joint?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9





Explanation

The popliteal tendon arises from the posterior aspect of the tibia and courses through the knee joint through the popliteus hiatus of the lateral meniscus before attaching on the lateral femur anterior to the lateral collateral ligament. It is the only tendon in the knee joint that can be viewed directly on arthroscopy. Kimura M, Shirakura K, Hasegawa A, Kobayashi Y, Udagawa E: Anatomy and pathophysiology of the popliteal tendon area in the lateral meniscus: 1. Arthroscopic and anatomical investigation. Arthroscopy 1992;8:419-423.

Question 10

A patient undergoes hip arthroscopy, and the pathology is seen in Figure 18. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10





Explanation

The motorized shaver is adjacent to the acetabular labrum, which is torn. The femoral head and acetabulum are normal in appearance. Neither the fat pad nor a loose body is identified.

Question 11

Figure 19 shows an arthroscopic view from the anterior lateral portal of the knee looking into the suprapatella pouch. The use of an electrothermal device during this procedure most commonly causes significant postoperative complications by damaging which of the following structures?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11





Explanation

While it is possible to damage any of these structures, unrecognized intraoperative laceration without adequate coagulation of the superior lateral geniculate artery is common. This can result in significant postoperative hemarthrosis and a return to surgery when bleeding cannot be controlled. Cash JD, Hughston JC: Treatment of acute patella dislocation. Am J Sports Med 1988;16:244-249.

Question 12

Figure 20 shows the resting and stress radiographs of a patient who has had pain and feelings of instability after undergoing a total knee arthroplasty 1 year ago. Which of the following ligaments is not functional and is therefore responsible for the patient's symptoms?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12





Explanation

The radiographs show posterior instability caused by an absent posterior cruciate ligament. The tibia is significantly displaced posteriorly with respect to the femur. This can be demonstrated with a lateral radiograph obtained with the knee in flexion. The anterior cruciate ligament has been resected but is not responsible for the instability shown.

Question 13

On MRI, a nonsanguinous effusion has what appearance?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13





Explanation

Nonbloody effusions that are greater than 1 mL are readily detected by MRI. They appear black on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images. A sanguinous effusion is seen as white on T1-weighted images and black on T2-weighted images. Resnick D, Kang HS: Synovial joints, in Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 49-53.

Question 14

Which of the following illustrations shown in Figures 21a through 21e correctly shows the projection of the sacroiliac joint on the outer table of the ilium?





Explanation

The projection of the sacroiliac joint on the outer surface of the ilium should be well understood to avoid violation of the joint during bone graft harvesting and to help in insertion of the screw across the joint. The sacroiliac joint has superior and inferior limbs. The average lengths of the superior and inferior limbs are 4.4 cm and 5.6 cm, respectively. The average width of each limb is 2.0 cm. The average distance from the longitudinal axis of the superior limb to the posterior superior iliac spine is 5.5 cm. The average longitudinal axis of the inferior limb is 1.2 cm superior to the inferior margin of the posterior inferior iliac spine. The average angle between the two axes is 93 degrees. Figure 21c most closely shows the projection of the sacroiliac joint on the outer table of the ilium. Waldrop JT, Ebraheim NA, Yeasting RA, Jackson WT: The location of the sacroiliac joint on the outer table of the posterior ilium. J Orthop Trauma 1993;7:510-513.

Question 15

In children between the ages of 4 and 8 years, the major blood supply to the femoral head comes from the

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19





Explanation

From birth until the age of 4 years, the primary blood supply to the femoral head is from the medial and lateral circumflex arteries that traverse the femoral neck. After the age of 4 years, the contribution of the lateral femoral circumflex artery, which traverses the anterior portion of the femoral neck, becomes negligible. The posterosuperior and posteroinferior retinacular vessels, branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery, become the primary blood supply to the epiphysis. The contribution of the artery of the ligamentum teres is minimal after the age of 4 years. Hughes LO, Beaty JH: Fractures of the head and neck of the femur in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:283-292.

Question 16

What is the most anatomic location for placement of the femoral tunnel in anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20





Explanation

It is critical for graft isometry and knee stability that the femoral tunnel be placed as far posterior as possible on the lateral femoral condyle. Superiorly, the graft should be at the one o'clock position on the left knee. Resident's ridge is a false posterior shelf that often seems like the extreme posterior cortex. Abnormal tunnel placement results in a variety of complications, including an unstable knee, early graft failure, and joint stiffness. Johnson RJ, Beynnon BD, Nichols CE, Renstrom PA: The treatment of injuries of the anterior cruciate ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:140-151.

Question 17

In the anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip, dissection is carried out between muscles innervated by the

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 21





Explanation

In the Smith-Petersen approach to the hip, dissection is carried out between the tensor fascia lata laterally (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius and rectus femoris medially (both supplied by the femoral nerve). Crenshaw AH Jr: Surgical techniques and approaches, in Canale ST (ed): Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, ed 9. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 82-85.

Question 18

What structure is marked Q in the diagram of the brachial plexus shown in Figure 22?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 22





Explanation

From proximal to distal, the brachial plexus is divided into roots, trunks, divisions, and cords before forming specific peripheral nerve branches. The structure marked Q is called the posterior cord because it lies posterior to the axially artery at the level of the cords. Its terminal branches are the upper subscapular (V), thoracodorsal (W), lower subscapular (X), axillary (F), and radial (G) nerves. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1978, pp 6-24.

Question 19

A sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan of the knee joint is shown in Figure 23. What structure is identified by the arrow?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 23





Explanation

On T1-weighted images, the posterior cruciate ligament is a low-signal (black) structure that courses from the posterior aspect of the tibia to the medial femoral condyle. The posterior cruciate ligament can appear as arcuate, U-shaped, or kinked. The other structures have similar signal but different anatomic locations. Gross ML, Grover JS, Bassett LW, Seeger LL, Finerman GA: Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior cruciate ligament: Clinical use to improve diagnostic accuracy. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:732-737.

Question 20

Figure 24 shows the arthroscopic view of a patient with ankle impingement syndrome. This is commonly seen after high ankle sprains and represents fibrotic granulation thickening of what structure?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24





Explanation

Chronic anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament sprains can lead to thickening and synovitis that catches or impinges dorsiflexion; patients often note painful clicking with dorsiflexion eversion. The other structures are not affected by this injury. Hopkinson WJ, St Pierre P, Ryan JB, Wheeler JH: Syndesmosis sprains of the ankle. Foot Ankle 1990;10:325-330. Amendola A: Controversies in diagnosis and management of syndesmosis injuries of the ankle. Foot Ankle 1992;13:44-50. Baxter DE: The Foot and Ankle in Sports. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1995, p 30.

Question 21

The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligamentous reconstruction uses which of the following structures to provide supplementary stabilization?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25





Explanation

The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligament stabilization procedure uses the remnants of the anterior talofibular and the calcaneofibular ligaments, supplemented by the inferior retinaculum and the transferred talocalcaneal ligament to stabilize the lateral ankle. Chrisman and associates described the use of one half of the peroneus brevis. Watson-Jones and Evans used the entire peroneus brevis. The peroneus longus has been taken by mistake. The plantaris has been used in triligamentous reconstruction. Gould N, Seligson D, Gassman J: Early and late repair of lateral ligament of the ankle. Foot Ankle 1980;1:84-89. Hamilton WG, Thompson FM, Snow SW: The modified Brostrom procedure for lateral ankle instability. Foot Ankle 1993;14:1-7. Chrisman OD, Snook GA: Reconstruction of lateral ligament tears of the ankle: An experimental study and clinical evaluation of seven patients treated by a new modification of the Elmslie procedure. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1969;51:904-912. Evans DL: Recurrent instability of the ankle: My method of surgical treatment. Proc R Soc Med 1953;46:343. Watson-Jones R: Fractures and Joint Injuries, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1946, p 234.

Question 22

Figure 25 shows an arthroscopic thermal capsular shrinkage device being used in the anterior inferior quadrant of a patient with a subluxating shoulder. Which of the following neurologic complications is most frequently reported with this technique?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26





Explanation

The axillary nerve lies within millimeters of the anterior inferior capsule. The inferior capsule is of varying thickness, and thermal energy used in shortening the ligament can cause damage to the sensory fibers of the axillary nerve. Clinically, this is manifested as a burnt skin sensation in the axillary nerve distribution area. The motor branch of the axillary nerve is usually spared. The suprascapular nerve and the radial nerve are far from the shrinkage zone. The musculocutaneous nerve, frequently at risk with open procedures, lies well anterior. Fanton GS: Arthroscopic electrothermal surgery of the shoulder. Op Tech Sports Med 1998;6:157-160.

Question 23

A coronal MRI scan through the shoulder joint is shown in Figure 26. The cyst indicated by the arrow will most likely cause compression of what nerve?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27





Explanation

The MRI scan shows a ganglion cyst in the region of the spinoglenoid notch. These are difficult to diagnose clinically but are readily apparent on MRI. They usually cause compression of the suprascapular nerve and weakness of the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles. Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 306-309.

Question 24

Which of the following ligaments is most commonly involved in posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28





Explanation

Recurrent posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow is difficult to diagnose. Such instability can be demonstrated only by the lateral pivot-shift test. The cause for this condition is laxity of the ulnar part of the lateral collateral ligament, which allows a transient rotatory subluxation of the ulnohumeral joint and a secondary dislocation of the radiohumeral joint. The annular ligament remains intact, so the radioulnar joint does not dislocate. Treatment consists of surgical reconstruction of the lax ulnar part of the lateral collateral ligament. The anterior band is the most important part of the medial collateral which is lax in valgus instability of the elbow. Morrey BF: Acute and chronic instability of the elbow. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:117-128.

Question 25

Which of the following anatomic structures is labeled 6 in Figure 27?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 29





Explanation

The line labeled 6 points to the A2 pulley. This structure is the condensation of the digital flexor tendon sheath corresponding to the proximal aspect of the proximal phalanx. Grayson's ligament is volar to the digital nerve and artery. Cleland's ligament is dorsal to the digital nerve and artery. The sagittal band anchors the extensor tendons over the metacarpophalangeal joints. The triangular ligament connects the lateral bands just proximal to the terminal tendon inserting onto the base of the distal phalanx. Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, p 467.

Question 26

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the cephalic vein to preserve its primary venous drainage?





Explanation

The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid to preserve its major tributaries. The primary venous tributaries to the cephalic vein in this region arise from the deltoid muscle.

Question 27

A patient sustains a midshaft humerus fracture. Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of injury as it passes through the lateral intermuscular septum?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment of the arm approximately 10 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint. It is at significant risk during lateral distal humerus exposures and midshaft fractures.

Question 28

In the anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), the internervous plane is between muscles supplied by which two nerves?





Explanation

The Smith-Petersen approach utilizes a true internervous plane. Superficial dissection passes between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 29

During an open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture via a volar approach (Henry), the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) is retracted medially. The surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to which of the following structures immediately ulnar to the FCR tendon?





Explanation

In the distal forearm, the median nerve lies immediately ulnar to the FCR tendon and superficial to the flexor digitorum superficialis. The radial artery lies radial to the FCR tendon.

Question 30

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis most commonly involves a transfer of motor nerve fibers from the:





Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a normal anatomical variant present in up to 25% of individuals. It involves motor fibers crossing from the median nerve (or AIN) to the ulnar nerve in the proximal forearm.

Question 31

Which of the following structures forms the roof of the cubital tunnel?





Explanation

Osborne's ligament (the cubital tunnel retinaculum) spans between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon, forming the roof of the cubital tunnel. Thickening of this ligament is a common cause of ulnar nerve compression at the elbow.

Question 32

During a posterolateral approach to the tibia, the surgeon develops a plane between the lateral and superficial posterior compartments. Which nerve is at risk if dissection strays too far anteriorly into the lateral compartment?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve courses in the lateral compartment of the leg. It is at risk if the dissection plane violates the lateral compartment during a posterolateral approach to the tibia.

Question 33

A 45-year-old male presents with weakness in thumb extension and index finger extension following a radial head fracture. Sensation in the first web space is normal. Compression of the involved nerve most commonly occurs at which of the following structures?





Explanation

The patient has posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy, presenting with pure motor loss of the finger/thumb extensors. The PIN is most commonly compressed at the arcade of Frohse, the proximal fascial edge of the supinator muscle.

Question 34

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. Which of the following muscles must be protected during a posterior approach to the hip to avoid injury to the deep branch of the MFCA?





Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA courses superior to the upper border of the quadratus femoris. Leaving a cuff of superior quadratus femoris minimizes the risk of injury to this critical vessel.

Question 35

A surgeon is performing an anterolateral approach to the distal femur. The internervous plane is between the vastus lateralis and the rectus femoris. What is the innervation of these two muscles?





Explanation

The anterolateral approach to the femur utilizes an intermuscular (not true internervous) plane. Both the vastus lateralis and the rectus femoris are innervated by the femoral nerve.

Question 36

During surgical release of De Quervain's tenosynovitis, the surgeon must identify and protect branches of which of the following nerves to avoid painful neuroma formation?





Explanation

The superficial branch of the radial nerve courses over the first dorsal compartment. It is highly susceptible to injury during surgical release for De Quervain's tenosynovitis.

Question 37

A patient demonstrates an inability to actively cross their legs (adduct the hip) following pelvic trauma. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?





Explanation

The obturator nerve innervates the medial compartment of the thigh, including the adductor longus, brevis, and magnus. These muscles are primarily responsible for active hip adduction.

Question 38

During placement of a retrograde intramedullary nail for a femur fracture, the starting point is made in the intercondylar notch. The surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring which of the following ligamentous structures that attaches to the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle?





Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) originates from the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. The standard retrograde femoral nail starting point is strictly anterior to the PCL origin to avoid damaging the ACL.

Question 39

During a lateral approach to the calcaneus for open reduction internal fixation of a calcaneal fracture, the sural nerve is at risk. What is the anatomical course of the sural nerve at the level of the lateral malleolus?





Explanation

The sural nerve courses posterior to the lateral malleolus, traveling alongside the small saphenous vein. It supplies sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg and lateral foot.

Question 40

A patient with a displaced surgical neck fracture of the humerus is found to have weakness of the deltoid and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which of the following spaces does the injured nerve pass through to exit the axilla?





Explanation

The axillary nerve is frequently injured in surgical neck fractures of the humerus. It passes through the quadrangular space, accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 41

The major arterial supply to the talus enters the bone through the tarsal canal. This artery is a branch of which of the following vessels?





Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal provides the predominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It originates from the posterior tibial artery approximately 1 to 2 cm proximal to its bifurcation.

Question 42

During carpal tunnel release surgery, the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve must be avoided. What is the most common anatomical variation of this branch relative to the transverse carpal ligament?





Explanation

The extraligamentous, recurrent course is the most common path of the motor branch of the median nerve (up to 80% of cases). It branches distal to the transverse carpal ligament and curves radially to innervate the thenar muscles.

Question 43

A patient presents with a deep infection of the midpalmar space. The infection is most likely to spread proximally into the forearm via which of the following structures?





Explanation

Parona's space is a deep potential space in the distal volar forearm, located deep to the flexor tendons and superficial to the pronator quadratus. Deep space infections of the hand can spread proximally into this space.

Question 44

During an ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, the external iliac vessels are mobilized. Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of injury when working in the middle window of this approach?





Explanation

The middle window of the ilioinguinal approach lies between the iliopectineal fascia and the external iliac vessels. The femoral nerve rests immediately lateral to the iliopectineal fascia and is particularly vulnerable to retractor injury here.

Question 45

Which of the following tendons is contained within the third extensor compartment of the wrist?





Explanation

The third extensor compartment of the wrist contains solely the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon. It takes a sharp 45-degree angle around Lister's tubercle, predisposing it to rupture following distal radius fractures.

Question 46

During a lateral approach to the fibula, the superficial peroneal nerve is at risk of iatrogenic injury. At what approximate location does this nerve typically pierce the crural fascia to become subcutaneous?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous in the anterolateral leg approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It is highly susceptible to injury here during lateral approaches or fasciotomies.

Question 47

A patient presents with winging of the scapula and an inability to elevate the shoulder above 90 degrees following a diagnostic lymph node biopsy in the posterior cervical triangle. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?





Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) runs superficially in the posterior cervical triangle, putting it at risk during biopsies. Injury leads to trapezius paralysis, resulting in lateral scapular winging and weakness in shoulder abduction/elevation.

Question 48

During an anterior approach to the hip, knowledge of the lumbar plexus is essential. The femoral nerve is formed by which of the following combinations of nerve roots?





Explanation

The femoral nerve is formed by the posterior divisions of the ventral rami of L2, L3, and L4. The obturator nerve is formed by the anterior divisions of the same nerve roots.

Question 49

Which of the following neurovascular structures pass through the quadrangular space of the shoulder?





Explanation

The quadrangular space transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery. It is bounded by the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).

Question 50

The ulnar nerve passes through Guyon's canal at the wrist. Which of the following structures forms the floor of this canal?





Explanation

The floor of Guyon's canal is formed by the transverse carpal ligament and the pisohamate ligament. The volar carpal ligament forms the roof.

Question 51

A Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a well-documented anatomical variant. This anomaly most commonly involves the transfer of motor fibers from which nerve to which nerve?





Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis occurs in the forearm, where motor fibers from the median nerve (or anterior interosseous nerve) cross over to join the ulnar nerve. This variant can alter typical EMG findings in peripheral nerve compression.

Question 52

The superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL) is a primary static stabilizer of the knee. What is the precise location of its distal attachment?





Explanation

The sMCL originates on the medial femoral epicondyle and inserts distally on the medial tibial metaphysis, approximately 4.5 cm distal to the joint line, lying deep to the pes anserinus tendons.

Question 53

The medial plantar nerve provides motor innervation to a specific subset of intrinsic foot muscles. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the medial plantar nerve?





Explanation

The medial plantar nerve innervates four intrinsic foot muscles: Abductor hallucis, Flexor digitorum brevis (FDB), Flexor hallucis brevis (FHB), and the 1st lumbrical. The lateral plantar nerve innervates the remaining intrinsic muscles.

Question 54

The proximal pole of the scaphoid is notoriously susceptible to avascular necrosis following fracture. The major blood supply to the proximal pole enters the scaphoid at which anatomical location?





Explanation

The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply from branches of the radial artery that enter at the dorsal ridge. This blood supply flows in a retrograde fashion to the proximal pole, explaining the high rate of AVN in proximal pole fractures.

Question 55

Lanz classified the anatomical variations of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. Which of the following is the most common anatomic path of this branch?





Explanation

The extraligamentous course is the most common path of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve (around 50%). It typically branches distal to the transverse carpal ligament and recurrently enters the thenar musculature.

Question 56

During the anterior (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) must be protected. Which muscle is fully supinated to carry the PIN away from the surgical field?





Explanation

During the Henry approach to the proximal radius, the forearm is supinated to move the supinator muscle (and the PIN, which passes through it) laterally and safely away from the anterior surgical dissection.

Question 57

From anterior to posterior, what is the correct sequence of structures passing behind the medial malleolus within the tarsal tunnel?





Explanation

The mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, AND Very Nervous Harry' denotes the order from anterior to posterior: Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Artery (Posterior tibial), Nerve (Posterior tibial), and Flexor Hallucis Longus.

Question 58

The upper and lower subscapular nerves provide critical motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. These nerves originate from which specific portion of the brachial plexus?





Explanation

Both the upper and lower subscapular nerves originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. The posterior cord also gives rise to the thoracodorsal, axillary, and radial nerves.

Question 59

Displaced fractures of the talar neck frequently result in osteonecrosis of the talar body due to disruption of its vascular supply. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the body of the talus?





Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, is the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It enters the talus inferiorly and anastomoses with the artery of the tarsal sinus.

Question 60

The sural nerve is frequently harvested for nerve grafts. It is typically formed by the union of the medial sural cutaneous nerve and the sural communicating branch of the lateral sural cutaneous nerve. The lateral sural cutaneous nerve is a direct branch of which nerve?





Explanation

The lateral sural cutaneous nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve. The medial sural cutaneous nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve.

Question 61

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles. In which position is the anteromedial (AM) bundle under the greatest tension?





Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tightest in knee flexion and primarily controls anterior tibial translation. Conversely, the posterolateral (PL) bundle is tightest in extension and controls rotatory stability.

Question 62

Lister's tubercle serves as a bony fulcrum for a major extensor tendon of the wrist and hand. This tendon resides in which dorsal extensor compartment?





Explanation

The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon resides alone in the third dorsal extensor compartment. It hooks around Lister's tubercle, which redirects its line of pull toward the thumb.

Question 63

The radial nerve descends in the spiral groove of the humerus. At approximately what distance proximal to the radiocapitellar joint line does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?





Explanation

The radial nerve passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle/radiocapitellar joint.

Question 64

The pectoralis major muscle has a complex bilaminar insertion onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Which statement correctly describes the distinct anatomy of its sternocostal head insertion?





Explanation

The sternocostal head forms the posterior lamina of the pectoralis major tendon. It undergoes a 180-degree twist such that its most inferior fibers insert highest (most proximally) on the humerus, deep to the clavicular head.

Question 65

Which of the following genicular arteries passes anterior to the popliteus muscle and proximal to the head of the fibula, playing a key role in the knee's collateral circulation?





Explanation

The inferior lateral genicular artery courses laterally over the popliteus muscle, traveling just proximal to the fibular head and deep to the lateral collateral ligament.

Question 66

During an ulnar nerve transposition, the medial intermuscular septum is excised to prevent compression of the nerve. What structure is most at risk of injury when excising this septum?





Explanation

The medial antebrachial cutaneous (MABC) nerve travels closely with the basilic vein and crosses the medial intermuscular septum. Excision of the septum during ulnar nerve transposition places the MABC nerve at significant risk.

Question 67

Which two tendons intersect at the Master Knot of Henry in the plantar aspect of the midfoot?





Explanation

The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendons cross at the Master Knot of Henry, located plantar to the navicular. The FHL runs dorsal to the FDL at this intersection.

Question 68

At what cervical level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at C6 in approximately 90% of individuals. Rarely, it may enter at C7 or higher levels such as C4 or C5.

Question 69

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. Between which two muscles does its deep branch travel to reach the posterior capsule?





Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA travels posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the quadratus femoris. It then crosses the capsule to supply the femoral head via the ascending retinacular vessels.

Question 70

Which of the following structures is NOT a border or content of the rotator interval?





Explanation

The rotator interval is bounded by the supraspinatus (superiorly) and subscapularis (inferiorly). It contains the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 71

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) passes between the two heads of which muscle?





Explanation

The PIN enters the Arcade of Frohse and passes between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator muscle. It provides motor innervation to the extensor compartment of the forearm.

Question 72

In the popliteal fossa, what is the anatomical relationship of the popliteal artery to the popliteal vein and tibial nerve?





Explanation

In the popliteal fossa, the popliteal artery is the deepest (most anterior) and most medial structure. The tibial nerve is the most superficial and lateral, while the vein is intermediate.

Question 73

What is the most radial structure within the carpal tunnel?





Explanation

The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is the most radial structure within the carpal tunnel. The flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon runs in its own separate fibro-osseous tunnel outside the main carpal tunnel.

Question 74

The "corona mortis" is an anomalous vascular anastomosis that is at risk during the ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum. It connects which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis is an anastomosis between the obturator vessels (internal iliac system) and the inferior epigastric vessels (external iliac system). It lies on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic rami.

Question 75

The lumbrical muscles of the hand originate from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus. Which nerve typically innervates the first and second lumbricals?





Explanation

The first and second lumbricals are unipennate muscles typically innervated by the median nerve. The third and fourth lumbricals are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.

Question 76

Which of the following structures form the borders of the quadrilateral space in the shoulder?





Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bordered by the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral). It contains the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 77

Approximately how many centimeters proximal to the lateral malleolus does the superficial peroneal nerve pierce the crural fascia to become subcutaneous?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus. It is at risk during lateral surgical approaches to the fibula.

Question 78

The floor of the cubital tunnel is formed by which of the following structures?





Explanation

The floor of the cubital tunnel is formed by the medial collateral ligament (specifically the anterior and posterior bundles) and the joint capsule. The roof is formed by Osborne's ligament and the FCU aponeurosis.

Question 79

The medial plantar nerve provides motor innervation to which of the following muscles?





Explanation

The medial plantar nerve innervates the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevis, and the first lumbrical. The lateral plantar nerve innervates the remaining intrinsic muscles of the foot.

Question 80

Which ligament is considered the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula relative to the tibia?





Explanation

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) provides approximately 35% of the resistance to lateral fibular displacement and is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula.

Question 81

The saphenous nerve exits the adductor (Hunter's) canal by piercing which structure?





Explanation

The saphenous nerve exits the adductor canal by piercing the vasto-adductor membrane, which spans between the vastus medialis and the adductor magnus. It then runs superficially along the medial leg.

Question 82

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves EXCEPT:





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve arises from the lateral cord. The posterior cord gives rise to the upper subscapular, thoracodorsal, lower subscapular, axillary, and radial nerves.

Question 83

During a lateral transpsoas approach to the lumbar spine, which nerve is most at risk of injury when retracting the psoas muscle posteriorly at the L4-L5 disc space?





Explanation

The femoral nerve lies within the posterior aspect of the psoas muscle, particularly at the L4-L5 level. Posterior retraction during a lateral transpsoas approach places it at significant risk of traction injury.

Question 84

The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and then the spinoglenoid notch. At the spinoglenoid notch, it is accompanied by which blood vessel?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve and artery travel together through the spinoglenoid notch to supply the infraspinatus. Notably, at the suprascapular notch, the artery travels over the transverse scapular ligament while the nerve travels under it.

Question 85

Which structure passes intra-articularly through a hiatus between the lateral meniscus and the posterolateral joint capsule?





Explanation

The popliteus tendon originates on the lateral femoral condyle and passes intra-articularly through a hiatus separating the lateral meniscus from the posterolateral joint capsule. This accounts for the increased mobility of the lateral meniscus compared to the medial meniscus.

Question 86

During a posterior approach to the humerus, the radial nerve is at risk as it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment. On average, what is the distance from the lateral epicondyle to this point of penetration?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 14.2 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. It lies approximately 20 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. Awareness of these landmarks is critical to avoid iatrogenic injury during humeral exposures.

Question 87

Which of the following structures forms the superior border of the quadrilateral space in the shoulder?





Explanation

The boundaries of the quadrilateral space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and the humeral shaft (lateral). It contains the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 88

A surgeon is performing a standard anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip. To prevent denervation of the tensor fasciae latae (TFL), the dissection should remain superficial to what nerve?





Explanation

The internervous plane of the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and TFL (superior gluteal nerve). Dissection deep to the TFL places the branches of the superior gluteal nerve at risk, which can lead to abductor weakness.

Question 89

The lumbrical muscles of the hand play a key role in fine motor movements by flexing the metacarpophalangeal joints and extending the interphalangeal joints. Which of the following best describes the typical origin and innervation of the third lumbrical?





Explanation

The first and second lumbricals are unipennate and innervated by the median nerve. The third and fourth lumbricals are bipennate, originating from the adjacent sides of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons, and are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Question 90

To protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) during an anterior (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the forearm should be positioned in what way and why?





Explanation

During the anterior approach to the proximal radius, supinating the forearm wraps the PIN laterally and posteriorly, protecting it from the surgical field. Pronation would bring the nerve medially into the field, increasing the risk of iatrogenic injury.

Question 91

The corona mortis is a critical vascular anastomosis that can cause life-threatening hemorrhage during pelvic surgery, particularly during the ilioinguinal approach. It represents a connection between which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis ('crown of death') is a retropubic vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels (internal iliac system) and the external iliac vessels (often via the inferior epigastric vessels). It lies on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus.

Question 92

Avascular necrosis of the talus is a well-known complication of talar neck fractures due to its tenuous blood supply. Which structure serves as the primary blood supply to the talar body?





Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, supplies the majority of the talar body. The artery of the tarsal sinus, formed by branches of the dorsalis pedis and peroneal arteries, supplies a smaller anterolateral portion.

Question 93

A 35-year-old male sustains a midshaft clavicle fracture. During open reduction and internal fixation, the surgeon must be mindful of the underlying neurovascular structures. Which of the following structures is most closely applied to the posterior-inferior aspect of the middle third of the clavicle?





Explanation

The subclavian vein is the most medial and anterior structure of the neurovascular bundle at this level. It lies closely applied to the posterior-inferior surface of the medial and middle thirds of the clavicle, separated only by the subclavius muscle.

Question 94

In the cervical spine, the vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which vertebral level?





Explanation

The vertebral artery normally branches from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level. It rarely enters at C7, which instead typically transmits only the accessory vertebral vein.

Question 95

During an open carpal tunnel release, the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve must be avoided. In a standard textbook description (extraligamentous origin), where does this branch typically originate and how does it course?





Explanation

The most common variation (extraligamentous) of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve originates distal to the transverse carpal ligament. It then courses recurrently (curling back proximally) to innervate the thenar musculature.

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