AAOS Orthopedic Anatomy MCQs (Set 5): Musculoskeletal & Regional Review

Key Takeaway
This high-yield question set for the AAOS/ABOS exams focuses on core orthopedic anatomy. It covers the musculoskeletal system, major joint structures, and critical neurovascular pathways. Perfect for solidifying foundational knowledge and preparing for board certification in orthopedics.
AAOS Orthopedic Anatomy MCQs (Set 5): Musculoskeletal & Regional Review
Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
You are interested in learning a new technique for minimally invasive total knee arthroplasty. The Keyhole Genuflex system seems appealing to you because the instrumentation comes with wireless controls. Which of the following represents an acceptable arrangement?
Explanation
Question 2
During the proximal extension of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm, the surgeon elevates the supinator muscle to expose the proximal radius. Which nerve lies within the substance of the supinator and is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury if the muscle is elevated aggressively or incorrectly?
Explanation
Question 3
During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the conjoint tendon is identified and retracted medially to access the subscapularis. Excessive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon places which of the following nerves at greatest risk of neuropraxia?
Explanation
Question 4
A surgeon is performing a posterior (Moore) approach to the hip. The short external rotators are detached near their trochanteric insertions and reflected posteriorly. Which muscle is intentionally left intact to protect the medial circumflex femoral artery (MFCA) from iatrogenic injury?
Explanation
Question 5
The anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip utilizes both superficial and deep internervous planes. Which of the following describes the deep internervous plane for this approach?
Explanation
Question 6
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the gluteus medius and vastus lateralis are split. The proximal split of the gluteus medius must not extend beyond 3 to 5 cm from the tip of the greater trochanter to avoid denervating the anterior portion of the muscle. Which nerve is at risk?
Explanation
Question 7
While performing a modified Stoppa approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, the surgeon encounters severe hemorrhage when dissecting over the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from the corona mortis, an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 8
During an anterior approach to the ankle for arthrodesis, the surgeon develops the interval between the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) and the extensor digitorum longus (EDL). Which neurovascular bundle lies deep within this interval and must be mobilized and protected?
Explanation
Question 9
When performing an anterolateral approach to the distal half of the humerus, the radial nerve must be identified and protected. In this distal region, the primary internervous plane is developed between which two muscles?
Explanation
Question 10
The posteromedial approach to the knee is often utilized for repairing tibial avulsions of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) or accessing the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. This approach develops an interval between which of the following muscle bellies?
Explanation
Question 11
During an open in-situ ulnar nerve decompression at the cubital tunnel, the skin incision is made just posterior to the medial epicondyle. To avoid painful neuroma formation, the surgeon must carefully identify and protect a sensory nerve branch that crosses the proximal forearm transversely. Which nerve is this?
Explanation
Question 12
To safely execute a standard open carpal tunnel release while minimizing the risk of injuring the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, the surgeon should align the longitudinal incision with which anatomical landmark?
Explanation
Question 13
During a tarsal tunnel release, the surgeon sequentially identifies structures from anteromedial to posterolateral behind the medial malleolus. Which structure lies immediately posterior to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon?
Explanation
Question 14
The Wiltse paraspinal approach to the lumbar spine is frequently used for minimally invasive pedicle screw placement or far-lateral disc excisions. This approach relies on a natural avascular cleavage plane between which two muscle groups?
Explanation
Question 15
A surgeon is performing a posterior approach to the upper cervical spine to treat an atlantoaxial subluxation. Deep dissection exposes the suboccipital triangle. Which critical structure lies within the borders of this triangle?
Explanation
Question 16
When harvesting an autogenous structural bone graft from the medial distal tibia, a longitudinal incision is typically made over the medial aspect of the medial malleolus. Which structure is most susceptible to iatrogenic injury during the superficial exposure in this region?
Explanation
Question 17
During a posterior approach to the humeral shaft for open reduction internal fixation of a spiral midshaft fracture, the radial nerve is identified within the spiral groove. Which blood vessel accompanies the radial nerve in this anatomic location?
Explanation
Question 18
When establishing a posterolateral portal during knee arthroscopy, the surgeon makes an incision posterior to the fibular collateral ligament. The incision must remain strictly anterior to the biceps femoris tendon and superior to the fibular head to prevent injury to which structure?
Explanation
Question 19
During diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy, an anterior portal is created using an outside-in technique. The portal should be placed just lateral to the coracoid process. Misplacement of this portal too far medially significantly increases the risk of injuring which neurovascular bundle as it enters the conjoint tendon?
Explanation
Question 20
A patient undergoes a minimally invasive percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture using a specialized passing jig. Following surgery, the patient reports severe lateral foot numbness and radiating pain. Entrapment of which nerve by a proximolateral locking suture most likely occurred?
Explanation
Question 21
During a posterior approach to the shoulder, the surgeon identifies the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the humeral shaft. Which of the following neurovascular structures traverses this specific anatomic space?
Explanation
Question 22
A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Compression of the involved nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will selectively denervate which of the following muscles?
Explanation
Question 23
When performing a lateral approach to the distal humerus, the surgeon must protect the radial nerve. On average, at what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?
Explanation
Question 24
A patient exhibits an inability to actively extend the metacarpophalangeal joints of the fingers and thumb, but maintains normal wrist extension with radial deviation. Which of the following anatomic structures is the most common site of compression for the affected nerve?
Explanation
Question 25
Electrodiagnostic testing of a patient reveals an anomalous median-to-ulnar nerve communication in the forearm. This anomaly most commonly involves crossing motor fibers that eventually innervate which of the following muscles?
Explanation
Question 26
During an ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, severe hemorrhage occurs over the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to an injury to the corona mortis, which is an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 27
A direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip utilizes an internervous plane between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae. Which of the following structures is most at risk of injury in the superficial dissection of this approach?
Explanation
Question 28
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius must be limited to prevent denervation of its anterior portion and the tensor fasciae latae. What is the generally accepted maximal safe distance for this split proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?
Explanation
Question 29
In the normal anatomic variant, the sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. What is its relationship to the piriformis muscle in the vast majority of the general population?
Explanation
Question 30
A patient is undergoing reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. Which of the following structures constitutes the primary static stabilizer to external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion?
Explanation
Question 31
During a lateral approach to the fibula for a distal third fracture, the surgeon identifies the intermuscular septum between the lateral and anterior compartments. Which nerve resides immediately deep to the fascia in the anterior compartment, traveling with the anterior tibial artery?
Explanation
Question 32
To avoid iatrogenic injury during placement of the anterolateral portal for ankle arthroscopy, the surgeon must be aware of the path of the superficial peroneal nerve. On average, where does this nerve pierce the deep crural fascia to become subcutaneous?
Explanation
Question 33
During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is typically identified and retracted laterally to protect its tributaries. The cephalic vein marks the internervous plane between muscles innervated by which of the following pairs of nerves?
Explanation
Question 34
During a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for a posterior wall acetabular fracture, a blunt retractor is placed over the anterior rim of the acetabulum to assist with exposure. Which of the following structures is most at risk of iatrogenic injury due to improper placement of this anterior retractor?
Explanation
Question 35
When performing an extensile lateral approach for an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the peroneal tendons must be mobilized in the full-thickness flap. At the level of the fibular tubercle (trochlea) on the lateral calcaneus, what is the anatomical relationship of the peroneal tendons?
Explanation
Question 36
A surgeon utilizes the anterior Henry approach to the proximal radius to treat a radial head fracture. The dissection proceeds between the brachioradialis and pronator teres. Which nerve provides motor innervation to the muscle forming the lateral border of this interval?
Explanation
Question 37
In the modified Stoppa approach to the anterior pelvic ring, the surgeon must identify and often ligate the "corona mortis" to prevent massive hemorrhage. This structure is typically an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 38
A patient presents with isolated weakness of external rotation of the shoulder following a posterior labral repair. Abduction is full and symmetric to the contralateral side. Which of the following anatomical locations is the most likely site of neural compression or injury?
Explanation
Question 39
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip for arthroplasty, the gluteus medius is split longitudinally. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae, the split should not extend proximally beyond the tip of the greater trochanter by more than what distance?
Explanation
Question 40
The deltopectoral approach utilizes a true internervous plane. Which two nerves supply the muscles defining this surgical interval?
Explanation
Question 41
During an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia, the extensor retinaculum is incised. To safely expose the bone, a specific neurovascular bundle must be identified and mobilized medially. Which structures compose this bundle?
Explanation
Question 42
A patient requires a surgical release for tarsal tunnel syndrome. The flexor retinaculum is divided. What is the correct anterior-to-posterior (medial-to-lateral) order of the structures passing behind the medial malleolus?
Explanation
Question 43
When repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture via a two-incision technique, the surgeon must avoid placing retractors forcefully against the radial neck. Which structure is most at risk of injury in this region?
Explanation
Question 44
In the Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach to the hip, an internervous plane is utilized both superficially and deep. What are the innervating nerves of the muscles comprising the superficial interval?
Explanation
Question 45
A surgeon is executing a posterior approach to the shoulder. The superficial dissection interval is between the deltoid and the teres minor. The deep internervous plane separates which two muscles?
Explanation
Question 46
When splitting the brachialis muscle during an anterolateral approach to the humeral shaft, the muscle is divided longitudinally. Why is this split considered safe, and what is the underlying innervation pattern?
Explanation
Question 47
During a right anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is at greater risk than on the left side. Which anatomical characteristic explains this increased vulnerability?
Explanation
Question 48
During a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for an acetabular fracture, the surgeon extends the split in the gluteus maximus proximally. Which structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if the split extends more than 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?
Explanation
Question 49
When performing a two-incision four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg, the lateral incision is used to release the anterior and lateral compartments. The surgeon must identify and protect the superficial peroneal nerve. What is the anatomic course of this nerve relative to the muscular compartments?
Explanation
Question 50
A 25-year-old sustains a laceration over the volar middle phalanx of the index finger, transecting both the FDS and FDP tendons. Regarding the intrinsic hand musculature, the first lumbrical associated with the index finger originates from which of the following structures?
Explanation
Question 51
A 30-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and deltoid weakness. MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. Which of the following anatomic boundaries defines the quadrilateral space through which the affected nerve passes?
Explanation
Question 52
During an ulnar nerve transposition at the elbow, the surgeon must carefully identify and mobilize the first motor branch of the ulnar nerve to prevent tethering. Which muscle does this specific branch typically supply?
Explanation
Question 53
When placing thoracic pedicle screws at the T6 level, understanding the local morphometry is critical for safe instrumentation. Compared to the lumbar spine, which of the following best describes the typical anatomic characteristics of the mid-thoracic pedicle?
Explanation
Question 54
A patient undergoes surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. The surgeon reconstructs the popliteofibular ligament, which originates from the popliteus musculotendinous junction and inserts onto the fibular styloid. What is its primary biomechanical role?
Explanation
Question 55
During open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture via an extensile lateral approach, screws are targeted into the "constant" fragment. Which anatomical structure represents this fragment and serves as a roof for the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon?
Explanation
Question 56
During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, massive hemorrhage occurs near the superior pubic ramus. The bleeding is most likely originating from the "corona mortis", which is an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 57
An orthopedic surgeon is performing a posterior approach to the humerus. The radial nerve is identified in the spiral groove. At what approximate distance proximal to the radiocapitellar joint does the radial nerve typically pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?
Explanation
Question 58
During a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the surgeon supinates the forearm to protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). Supination achieves this protection by displacing the PIN in which direction relative to the surgical plane?
Explanation
Question 59
A 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. In evaluating the pathogenesis of avascular necrosis in this age group, which of the following arteries provides the predominant blood supply to the capital femoral epiphysis?
Explanation
Question 60
A surgeon is performing a complex microvascular reconstruction of the hand. The deep palmar arch is primary formed by the terminal continuation of the radial artery and completes an anastomosis with which of the following vessels?
Explanation
Question 61
A patient presents with intractable heel pain and a positive Tinel's sign posterior to the medial malleolus. The surgeon elects to release the tarsal tunnel. The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter's nerve) typically passes between which two muscles in the foot?
Explanation
Question 62
When planning for C1-C2 transarticular screw placement, preoperative imaging is reviewed to assess the vertebral artery course. In standard cervical anatomy, the vertebral artery arises from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?
Explanation
Question 63
A 22-year-old athlete requires an anatomic repair of a completely avulsed superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL). The femoral origin is on the medial epicondyle. Where is the normal anatomic insertion of the sMCL on the proximal tibia?
Explanation
Question 64
A 45-year-old patient presents postoperatively with profound isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation following a massive rotator cuff repair. Electromyography reveals denervation of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus function. At what anatomical site is the suprascapular nerve most likely entrapped?
Explanation
Question 65
During a direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip, an internervous plane is utilized to minimize muscle denervation. Which of the following best describes the nerves supplying the muscles that define this superficial internervous plane?
Explanation
Question 66
A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and deltoid weakness. MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. Compression in the quadrilateral space is suspected. What are the correct anatomical boundaries of this space?
Explanation
Question 67
A patient has isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder but demonstrates normal active abduction. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. In which anatomical location is the cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?
Explanation
Question 68
During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage occurs while dissecting the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to iatrogenic injury to an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 69
While utilizing a lateral approach to the distal humerus, the surgeon must identify the radial nerve as it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum. At what average distance proximal to the radiocapitellar joint does the radial nerve cross this septum?
Explanation
Question 70
A surgeon is performing a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip for arthroplasty. To prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the gluteus medius, the proximal split of the muscle should not extend beyond what maximum distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?
Explanation
Question 71
During a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy for an adult-acquired flatfoot deformity, excessive medial and superior translation of the posterior tuberosity fragment puts which of the following nerves at the highest risk of injury?
Explanation
Question 72
An anterolateral approach to the ankle is chosen for open reduction and internal fixation of a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which nerve must be carefully identified and protected as it crosses the ankle joint in this surgical interval?
Explanation
Question 73
A patient sustains a high-energy posterior knee dislocation. An angiogram shows an intimal tear of the popliteal artery. The artery is tightly tethered and particularly vulnerable to injury at which proximal and distal anatomical boundaries?
Explanation
Question 74
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), aggressive lateral dissection over the uncinate process risks iatrogenic injury to the vertebral artery. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery most commonly enter the transverse foramen?
Explanation
Question 75
While performing an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon notes an aberrant nerve branch piercing directly through the transverse carpal ligament to innervate the thenar musculature. This corresponds to which Lanz classification of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve?
Explanation
Question 76
The dorsal (Thompson) approach to the proximal radius is often used to treat proximal third radius fractures. This approach exploits an internervous plane between which two muscles?
Explanation
Question 77
A patient presents with a symptomatic right-sided far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this specific herniation?
Explanation
Question 78
A medial approach is used to buttress a posteromedial tibial plateau fracture. The surgeon must dissect meticulously near the pes anserinus. From anterior/superior to posterior/inferior, what is the correct arrangement of the tendinous insertions of the pes anserinus?
Explanation
Question 79
A competitive cyclist presents with isolated weakness of finger abduction and adduction but normal sensation over the volar hypothenar eminence and small finger. Entrapment of the ulnar nerve is suspected at Guyon's canal. Which zone of Guyon's canal is most likely affected?
Explanation
Question 80
During a four-compartment fasciotomy for acute compartment syndrome of the leg, the deep posterior compartment must be adequately released. Which of the following muscles is NOT contained within the deep posterior compartment?
Explanation
Question 81
A surgeon is reconstructing the posterolateral corner of the knee. The fibular collateral ligament (FCL) and the popliteus tendon (PT) both insert on the lateral femoral epicondyle. What is the spatial relationship of the FCL footprint relative to the PT footprint on the femur?
Explanation
Question 82
During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach to the acetabulum, the obturator nerve is visualized before it exits the pelvis. In relation to the deep pelvic musculature, what is the expected path of the obturator nerve as it heads toward the obturator canal?
Explanation
Question 83
During a Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach to the hip, the superficial internervous plane is utilized. Between which two muscles is this plane, and what are their respective innervations?
Explanation
Question 84
A 28-year-old overhead throwing athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and teres minor atrophy on MRI. Entrapment of the axillary nerve in the quadrilateral space is suspected. What are the boundaries of this anatomical space?
Explanation
Question 85
During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage is encountered while dissecting over the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Explanation
Question 86
An extensile lateral approach is planned for a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. The full-thickness flap must be carefully elevated directly off the periosteum to protect vascular supply. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the apex of this lateral flap?
Explanation
Question 87
A surgeon is reconstructing the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) for recurrent patellar instability. Anatomically, the femoral origin of the native MPFL is located in a saddle-like depression between which two osseous landmarks?
Explanation
Question 88
A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding corresponds to this specific level of entrapment?
Explanation
Question 89
A patient undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) for a right-sided C5-C6 paracentral disc herniation. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this disc herniation?
Explanation
Question 90
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and vastus lateralis are split. Proximal propagation of the split in the gluteus medius is typically limited to 3-5 cm superior to the greater trochanter to prevent injury to which nerve?
Explanation
Question 91
The posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee provides primary restraint to varus stress and posterolateral rotation. Which of the following structures is considered one of the three major static stabilizers of the PLC?
Explanation
Question 92
A 45-year-old female presents with burning pain in the plantar foot consistent with tarsal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following represents the correct anatomical order of structures within the tarsal tunnel from anterior/medial to posterior/lateral?
Explanation
Question 93
A 30-year-old male presents with elbow clicking and apprehension when pushing up from a chair. Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is diagnosed. The primary deficient structure originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?
Explanation
Question 94
Dissection for a distal radius fracture utilizes the volar approach of Henry. The superficial surgical interval is developed between the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and the brachioradialis. Which structure runs immediately deep to the brachioradialis and must be protected and retracted laterally during this exposure?
Explanation
Question 95
A surgeon is performing a complex wrist reconstruction requiring mobilization of the arterial supply. The deep palmar arch provides critical collateral flow to the hand. It is primarily formed by the anastomosis of the deep branch of the ulnar artery with the terminal continuation of which vessel?
Explanation
Question 96
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with an inability to actively extend their thumb interphalangeal joint. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon is suspected. The EPL tendon normally routes around Lister's tubercle, separating which two dorsal extensor compartments?
Explanation
None