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Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1)

23 Apr 2026 56 min read 83 Views
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In this comprehensive guide, we discuss everything you need to know about Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1). Top-rated Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs bank. Practice with clinical case questions, orthopedic surgery board review, and evidence-based answers updated for 2026.

Orthopedic Anatomy 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1)

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Question 1

During a retroperitoneal approach to the L4-5 disk, what structure must be ligated to safely mobilize the common iliac vessels toward the midline from laterally and gain exposure?





Explanation

To mobilize the common iliac vessels across the midline, the iliolumbar vein must be ligated. It has a short trunk and can be torn if mobilization is attempted without ligation. It is the only branch off the common iliacs (there are no arterial branches) prior to the terminal branches, the internal (hypogastric) and external iliacs. The middle sacral vessels run distally from the axilla of the bifurcation and are a factor when accessing the L5-S1 disk. Baker JK, Reardon PR, Reardon MJ, et al: Vascular injury in anterior lumbar surgery. Spine 1993;18:2227-2230.

Question 2

The injection shown in Figures 1a and 1b would most benefit a patient who reports which of the following symptoms?





Explanation

1b The images demonstrate a L5 selective root block as it exits the L5-S1 foramen. This root block best helps relieve pain or paresthesias in the L5 distribution, which is the dorsal first web space and the great toe. The lateral foot is an S1 distribution and would need to be blocked through the posterior first sacral foramen. The anterior shin and thigh represent the L4 root which exits a level above this at the L4-5 foramen. A stocking distribution is nonanatomic and not indicative of a specific root. Magee D: Principles and concepts, in Orthopaedic Physical Assessment, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 1-18.

Question 3

In Figure 2, which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer in preventing valgus instability of the elbow?





Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is the prime stabilizer of the medial aspect of the elbow and is indicated by "B" in the figure. When intact, this anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is a restraint to valgus instability of the elbow. The posterior bundle is regarded as a secondary stabilizer of the medial elbow (C). The transverse bundle (D), annular ligament (A), and biceps tendon (E) do not play a role in valgus stability of the elbow. Jobe F, Elattrache N: Diagnosis and treatment of ulnar collateral ligament injuries in athletes, in Morrey B (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 566.

Question 4

When performing surgical excision of the lesion shown in the MRI scan in Figure 3, what nerve is most likely at risk?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows a large mass (lipoma) in the thenar muscles of the palm. The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar muscles. The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) in the proximal forearm innervates the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and flexor digitorum pollicis to the index and frequently the middle finger. The terminal branch of the AIN innervates only the wrist capsule. The palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve is a sensory structure to the hypothenar area. There is no commonly described recurrent branch of the ulnar nerve.

Question 5

Figure 4a shows the radiograph of a 20-year-old man who has an injury to the right shoulder. Figure 4b shows an arthroscopic view (posterior portal). The arrow points to a





Explanation

4b The radiograph shows an anterior dislocation of the shoulder. A frequently encountered sequela of this is a compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head, commonly referred to as a Hill-Sachs defect. The arthroscopic view of the glenohumeral joint visualizes the posterior aspect of the humeral head. In the image, the area devoid of cartilage to the right is the bare area. The indentation seen to the left is a Hill-Sachs defect. Matsen FA, Thomas SC, Rockwood CA, et al: Glenohumeral instability, in Rockwood CA, Matsen FA (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 611-754.

Question 6

A 15-year-old girl who swims the breaststroke has had hip pain after training excessively for a national level competition. Based on the MRI scans shown in Figures 5a through 5c, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

5b 5c The MRI scans reveal open physes but no evidence of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, labral tear, or acetabular dysplasia. The femoral neck does not show evidence of a fracture. The muscle tear seen on the right side lies near the musculotendinous junction of the external rotators of the hip at the level of the lesser trochanter, representing the obturator externus. This is consistent with the forced motion required for the breaststroke kick. Grote K, Lincoln TL, Gamble JG: Hip adductor injury in competitive swimmers. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:104-108.

Question 7

During placement of an external fixator for a distal radius fracture, the most commonly injured nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves?





Explanation

Pin track infections and sensory injuries are among the most common complications of external fixation for distal radius fractures. The proximal pins of most distal radius external fixators are placed in the "bare area" of the distal radius, about four finger-breadths above the radial styloid. This corresponds to the area where the dorsal sensory branch of the radial nerve penetrates the fascia dorsal to the brachioradialis tendon to become a subcutaneous structure. Injury to the superficial radial nerve may produce painful dysesthesias and neuromas.

Question 8

Figure 6 shows a sagittal oblique MRI scan. The arrow is pointing to what structure?





Explanation

The meniscofemoral ligaments connect the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the intercondylar wall of the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey (arrow) passes anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament, whereas the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the posterior cruciate ligament. One or the other has been identified in 71% to 100% of cadaver knees, with the ligament of Wrisberg being more common. Clarke HD, Scott WN, Insall JN, et al: Anatomy, in Insall JN, Scott WN (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2006, vol 1, pp 3-66.

Question 9

An 18-year-old woman sustains a twisting injury of the knee while skiing. Figures 7a and 7b show the radiograph and coronal MRI scan of the knee. In addition to the injury shown, what is the most likely associated injury?





Explanation

7b The MRI scan shows a Segond fracture, which is a small avulsion of the lateral joint capsule from the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia. It is almost always associated with anterior cruciate ligament rupture and often with a tear of either the medial or lateral meniscus. Goldman AB, Pavlov H, Rubenstein D: The Segond fracture of the proximal tibia: A small avulsion that reflects major ligamentous damage. Am J Roentgenol 1988;151:1163-1167. Sanders TG, Miller MD: A systematic approach to magnetic resonance imaging interpretation of sports medicine injuries of the knee. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:131-148.

Question 10

A 42-year-old athletic trainer has a persistent popping sensation about the lateral ankle associated with weakness and pain following a remote injury. Deficiency in what structure directly leads to this pathology?





Explanation

The patient has instability of the peroneal tendon. The superior peroneal retinaculum is the primary retaining structure preventing peroneal subluxation. It is a thickening of fascia that arises off the posterior margin of the distal 1 to 2 cm of the fibula and runs posteriorly to blend with the Achilles tendon sheath. The inferior peroneal retinaculum attaches to the peroneal tubercle of the calcaneus and is not involved in this pathology. A deficient groove in the posterior distal fibula may also be a contributing factor in the development of the condition.

Question 11

A 21-year-old man sustains multiple gunshot wounds to his right upper extremity. He can not extend his digits or his thumb but can extend and radially deviate his wrist. An injury to the radial nerve or one of its branches has most likely occurred at which of the following locations?





Explanation

In this patient, the radial nerve is most likely injured at the level of the radial neck. The radial nerve emerges from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and travels along the spiral groove of the humerus. At the level of the lateral humeral condyle, the radial nerve branches into the posterior interosseous nerve after giving off two cutaneous branches, the superficial radial and the posterior cutaneous. The posterior interosseous nerve travels through the supinator muscle and winds around the radial neck. At this level, the posterior interosseous nerve is vulnerable to injury, particularly following fracture or penetrating trauma. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, p 53.

Question 12

A woman with a neck and chest tumor has weakness in the biceps and paresthesias in the thumb. Brachioradialis and infraspinatus function are normal. The lesion is affecting which of the following structures?





Explanation

The lateral cord terminates as the musculocutaneous nerve and also contributes sensory fibers to the median nerve. Involvement of the C6 root or upper trunk could potentially cause weakness of the infraspinatus and the brachioradialis. The middle trunk and the posterior cord do not contribute motor fibers to the thumb or sensory fibers to the thumb.

Question 13

Figure 8 shows the radiograph of a 76-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. History reveals that he underwent total knee arthroplasty 18 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The radiograph reveals complete loss of joint space with particulate metal debris consistent with total polyethylene failure and metal-on-metal articulation. The components appear to be well fixed and minimal osteolysis is evident. Kilgus DJ, Moreland JR, Finerman GA, et al: Catastrophic wear of tibial polyethylene inserts. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1991;273:223-231.

Question 14

Which of the following radiographic images is best for detecting anterior acetabular deficiency in the dysplastic hip?





Explanation

The false profile view of Lequesne and de Seze is obtained with the patient standing with the affected hip on the cassette, the ipsilateral foot parallel to the cassette, and the pelvis rotated 65 degrees from the plane of the cassette. This view best assesses anterior coverage of the femoral head. Garbuz DS, Masri BA, Haddad F, et al: Clinical and radiographic assessment the young adult with symptomatic dysplasia. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;418:18-22.

Question 15

Figure 9 shows the AP radiograph of a 65-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Although all the choices are known causes of joint degeneration (secondary osteoarthritis), only chondrocalcinosis shows distinct linear calcification of the cartilage due to deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Gout is a recurrent acute arthritis resulting from the deposition of monosodium urate from supersaturated hyperuricemic body fluids. Hemochromotosis is characterized by focal or generalized deposition of iron within body tissues. Arthritis may be present but is less common than other manifestations such as liver cirrhosis, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, and cardiac disease. Rheumatoid arthritis is a nonspecific, usually symmetric inflammation of peripheral joints resulting in destruction of articular and periarticular structures. Ochronosis is a hereditary enzyme deficiency (homogentisic acid oxidase) resulting in deposition of homogentisic acid polymers in articular cartilage. Barrack RL, Booth RE Jr, Lonner JH, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, p 188.

Question 16

If a surgeon inadvertently burrs through the midlateral wall of C5 during a anterior corpectomy, what structure is at greatest risk for injury?





Explanation

The vertebral artery is contained within the vertebral foramen and thus tethered alongside the vertebral body, making it vulnerable to injury if a drill penetrates the lateral wall. The C5 root passes over the C5 pedicle and is not in the vicinity. The C6 root passes under the C5 pedicle but is posterior to the vertebral artery and is only vulnerable at the very posterior-inferior corner. The carotid artery and the vagus nerve are both within the carotid sheath and well anterior. Pfeifer BA, Freidberg SR, Jewell ER: Repair of injured vertebral artery in anterior cervical procedures. Spine 1994;19:1471-1474.

Question 17

In patients with displaced radial neck fractures treated with open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and screws, the plate must be limited to what surface of the radius to avoid impingement on the proximal ulna?





Explanation

The radial head is covered by cartilage on 360 degrees of its circumference. However, with the normal range of forearm rotation of 160 to 180 degrees, there is a consistent area that is nonarticulating. This area is found by palpation of the radial styloid and Lister's tubercle. The hardware should be kept within a 90-degree arc on the radial head subtended by these two structures. Smith GR, Hotchkiss RN: Radial head and neck fractures: Anatomic guidelines for proper placement of internal fixation. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:113-117.

Question 18

A 57-year-old man reports right hip pain that has been progressive for the past several months. The pain is exacerbated by weight-bearing activities and improves somewhat with rest. A radiograph is shown in Figure 10a and a coronal T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 10b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

10b These are classic findings of osteonecrosis of the hip. The radiograph reveals the subchondral sclerotic pattern commonly seen in osteonecrosis and is quite extensive in this patient. The MRI scan reveals the typical serpentine-like region of low signal intensity with a central zone where the signal is similar to fat. Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 3160-3162.

Question 19

The arrow in Figure 11 points toward a finding consistent with which of the following?





Explanation

The finding of a unilateral absent pedicle is often referred to as a winking owl sign and is a manifestation of pedicle destruction from metastatic disease. As the vertebral body is destroyed from the neoplastic process, it extends into the pedicle and destroys the cortical rim that normally creates the oval ring of the pedicle on an AP image. McLain R, Weinstein J (eds): Rothman-Simeone: The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, p 1173.

Question 20

The attachments of the transverse carpal ligament include which of the following structures?





Explanation

The transverse carpal ligament is the volar boundary of the carpal tunnel. It attaches to the scaphoid and trapezium radially and the pisiform and the hook of the hamate ulnarly. The ulna and trapezoid do not receive attachments of the transverse carpal ligament. Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 471-472.

Question 21

A 23-year-old woman falls from a bicycle and sustains a right knee injury. Figures 12a through 12d show radiographs and MRI scans of the knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

12b 12c 12d The radiographs and MRI scans both show an avulsion of the anterior cruciate ligament, which has been described by Meyers and McKeever in three different fracture patterns. Type I fractures are nondisplaced or have minimal displacement of the anterior margin. Type II fractures have superior displacement of their anterior aspect with an intact posterior hinge. Type III fractures are completely displaced. Although the injury is visible on the radiographs, it is more subtle in adults than children. Thus, MRI is helpful in clarifying this injury in adults. Open or arthroscopic reduction and internal fixation is recommended for type II and type III fractures that do not respond to closed reduction. Meyers MH, McKeever FM: Fracture of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1677-1684. Wiss DA, Watson JT: Fractures of the tibial plateau, in Rockwood CA, Green DP, Bucholz RW, et al (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1920-1953.

Question 22

A 25-year-old man has a mass on the medial aspect of the left knee. He reports that the mass has been present for several years, but a recent increase in physical activity has resulted in periodic tenderness. Radiographs are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

13b The radiographs reveal a sessile lesion projecting from the medial aspect of the distal femur. The lesion shares the cortex with the bone and the base communicates with the medullary space of the femur. This is the classic appearance of an osteochondroma, the most common benign tumor of bone. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.

Question 23

A previously asymptomatic 40-year-old man injures his shoulder in a fall. Examination shows that he is unable to lift the hand away from his back while maximally internally rotated. An axial MRI scan of the shoulder is shown in Figure 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows detachment of the subscapularis from its insertion on the lesser tuberosity. The examination finding is consistent with a positive lift-off test, also indicating a tear of the subscapularis. Lyons RP, Green A: Subscapularis tendon tears. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:353-363.

Question 24

A patient is treated with volar plating for a distal radius fracture. The CT scan shown in Figure 15 is obtained after union of the fracture because the patient reports ongoing symptoms. The prominent hardware is most likely injuring what tendon?





Explanation

Extensor tendon injuries have been reported after volar plating of distal radius fractures. The CT scan shows prominent dorsal hardware a few millimeters ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The second compartment, the ECRL and ECRB, is radial to Lister's tubercle. The ECU runs along the distal ulna. The contents of the fourth dorsal compartment run just ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The EDC tendon is likely irritated in this patient. The EPB runs along the radial border of the radius and is well away from prominent hardware. Benson EC, Decarvalho A, Mikola EA, et al: Two potential causes of EPL rupture after distal radius volar plate fixation. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2006;451:218-222.

Question 25

A 9-year-old child sustains a proximal tibial physeal fracture with a hyperextension mechanism. What structure is at most risk for serious injury?





Explanation

The most serious injury associated with proximal tibial physeal fracture is vascular trauma. The popliteal artery is tethered by its major branches near the posterior surface of the proximal tibial epiphysis. During tibial physeal displacement, the popliteal artery is susceptible to injury. Injuries to the other structures are less common.

Question 26

During the anterior (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the surgeon must mobilize a specific muscle to protect the posterior interosseous nerve. Supination of the forearm helps move this nerve away from the surgical field. Which muscle envelops the nerve and is carefully retracted?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) passes between the two heads of the supinator muscle. Supinating the forearm translates the PIN radially and away from the surgical field during the Henry approach.

Question 27

A surgeon performs a standard anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip for a pelvic osteotomy. The internervous plane utilized is between muscles innervated by which two nerves?





Explanation

The Smith-Petersen approach utilizes the internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius/rectus femoris (femoral nerve).

Question 28

When performing an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for open reduction and internal fixation of a fracture, a "no-touch" technique is strictly employed for the flap. Which of the following structures is most at risk of iatrogenic injury at the proximal and inferior margin of the incision?





Explanation

The sural nerve runs posterior to the lateral malleolus and along the lateral border of the foot, making it highly susceptible to injury during the development of an extensile lateral calcaneal flap.

Question 29

A 45-year-old male presents with an inability to actively extend his metacarpophalangeal joints, but wrist extension is preserved with radial deviation. A compressive neuropathy is suspected. The structure most likely responsible for compression is located between which two muscle parts?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) can be compressed at the Arcade of Frohse, which is the fibrous proximal edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle. This results in loss of digital extension with preserved, radially-deviated wrist extension.

Question 30

A patient sustains a proximal humerus fracture and later demonstrates profound weakness in shoulder abduction and diminished sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. The affected nerve traverses through a space bounded by which of the following structures?





Explanation

The axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space, bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 31

During a posterior approach to the humerus for fracture fixation, the radial nerve is identified. As it courses distally, it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the arm. On average, at what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does this transition occur?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This is a critical anatomical landmark to prevent iatrogenic nerve injury during lateral and posterior humeral approaches.

Question 32

A surgeon is performing an anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip for a core decompression. To safely develop the internervous plane, the initial superficial dissection should proceed between muscles innervated by which two nerves?





Explanation

The anterior approach to the hip utilizes an internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). This superficial plane minimizes the risk of denervating either muscle.

Question 33

When executing a posterior approach to the shoulder to address glenoid pathology, the surgeon splits the deltoid and then develops an internervous plane between the infraspinatus and teres minor. Which nerve provides motor innervation to the teres minor?





Explanation

The teres minor is innervated by the axillary nerve, whereas the infraspinatus is innervated by the suprascapular nerve. Developing the plane between these two muscles constitutes a true internervous plane.

Question 34

A patient is scheduled for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture using an extensile lateral approach. The viability of the full-thickness soft tissue flap relies predominantly on which of the following vessels?





Explanation

The extensile lateral approach involves a full-thickness flap that derives its main blood supply from the lateral calcaneal artery, a terminal branch of the peroneal artery. Careful tissue handling is mandatory to prevent wound necrosis.

Question 35

During a right-sided anterior approach to the lower cervical spine (C5-C7), a structure that loops from lateral to medial is at risk of iatrogenic injury, potentially leading to vocal cord paralysis. Around which vascular structure does this nerve loop?





Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right side loops under the right subclavian artery before ascending in the tracheoesophageal groove. On the left side, it loops under the aortic arch, making right-sided approaches at the lower cervical levels slightly higher risk for nerve injury due to its more variable oblique course.

Question 36

In the proximal portion of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm, the internervous plane is developed between the brachioradialis and the pronator teres. Which critical nerve structure must be identified and protected as it courses deep to the brachioradialis in this region?





Explanation

The superficial radial nerve runs deep to the brachioradialis in the proximal and middle forearm. It must be carefully protected when mobilizing the brachioradialis laterally during the Henry approach.

Question 37

During a standard medial parapatellar approach for a total knee arthroplasty, a branch of the saphenous nerve is frequently sacrificed. What is the typical resulting sensory deficit experienced by the patient?





Explanation

The infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve courses transversely across the proximal tibia and is routinely cut during a midline knee incision. This results in an area of numbness over the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia.

Question 38

While performing an ilioinguinal approach for a complex anterior column acetabular fracture, massive hemorrhage occurs near the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to an inadvertent injury to an arterial anastomosis between which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The "corona mortis" is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator artery (internal iliac system) and the inferior epigastric artery (external iliac system). It lies on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is highly susceptible to injury during the ilioinguinal or Stoppa approaches.

Question 39

An anterolateral approach to the distal tibia is utilized for open reduction and internal fixation of a pilon fracture. During superficial dissection, which nerve is at greatest risk of transection as it crosses the ankle joint?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot and crosses the anterolateral aspect of the ankle. It is at direct risk during the superficial incision and dissection in the anterolateral approach to the distal tibia.

Question 40

An anterior approach to the cubital fossa is performed to repair a distal biceps tendon rupture. Proximal dissection is carried out to expose the deep structures. The radial nerve is typically located between which two muscles in the proximal aspect of this exposure?





Explanation

In the distal arm and cubital fossa, the radial nerve lies in the interval between the brachioradialis laterally and the brachialis medially. It splits into the posterior interosseous nerve and superficial radial nerve at the level of the radiocapitellar joint.

Question 41

During an anterior retroperitoneal approach to the L4-L5 intervertebral disc, lateral mobilization of the great vessels is required. To safely retract the common iliac vessels medially, which structure is routinely identified and ligated?





Explanation

The iliolumbar vein tethers the common iliac vein to the posterior abdominal wall. It must be ligated and divided to allow safe medial retraction of the left common iliac vein and expose the L4-L5 disc space.

Question 42

The anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip is frequently used for hemiarthroplasty. This approach develops an intermuscular plane between which two muscles?





Explanation

The Watson-Jones approach utilizes the intermuscular plane between the tensor fasciae latae and the gluteus medius. Note that this is not a true internervous plane, as both muscles are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

Question 43

A standard deltopectoral approach is utilized for a total shoulder arthroplasty. During the superficial dissection, the cephalic vein is identified in the deltopectoral groove. To best preserve venous drainage and minimize bleeding, how should the vein ideally be managed?





Explanation

While there is debate, retracting the cephalic vein laterally with the deltoid preserves its primary deltoid venous tributaries, preventing them from tearing and causing troublesome bleeding. Medial retraction often avulses these small deltoid branches.

Question 44

A 65-year-old female sustains a severely displaced surgical neck fracture of the proximal humerus. She exhibits weakness in shoulder abduction. The most likely injured nerve exits the axilla through which anatomical space?





Explanation

The axillary nerve is most at risk in proximal humerus surgical neck fractures. It exits the axilla posteriorly via the quadrangular space, accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 45

During a posterior approach to the knee for a popliteal artery injury, the vascular bundle is traced distally. The popliteal artery transitions into the posterior tibial and anterior tibial arteries as it exits the popliteal fossa by passing deep to the tendinous arch of which muscle?





Explanation

The popliteal artery ends by bifurcating into the anterior tibial artery and the tibioperoneal trunk at the distal border of the popliteus muscle, exiting the popliteal fossa deep to the tendinous arch of the soleus.

Question 46

A surgeon performs an open carpal tunnel release. To avoid iatrogenic injury to the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve, its anatomical variations must be understood. According to the Lanz classification, what is the most common anatomical path of the recurrent motor branch?





Explanation

The extraligamentous course (Lanz Group I) is the most common path of the recurrent motor branch. It branches off the median nerve distal to the transverse carpal ligament and recurves to innervate the thenar musculature.

Question 47

A dorsal approach to the wrist is performed for a scaphoid nonunion. The surgeon makes an incision and enters the interval between the 3rd and 4th extensor compartments. Which tendon exclusively occupies the 3rd extensor compartment?





Explanation

The 3rd dorsal extensor compartment contains solely the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon. It hooks around Lister's tubercle, serving as a reliable landmark during dorsal wrist surgery.

Question 48

In the anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for acetabular fracture fixation, dissection proceeds along the pelvic brim. Which nerve lies directly on the anterior surface of the obturator internus muscle and is highly vulnerable during placement of sub-pelvic retractors?





Explanation

The obturator nerve runs along the lateral pelvic wall on the anterior surface of the obturator internus muscle before exiting through the obturator canal. It is at significant risk of neuropraxia or transection during the Stoppa approach.

Question 49

A lateral approach to the distal femur is utilized for plating a supracondylar femur fracture. As the vastus lateralis is elevated from the lateral intermuscular septum, robust vessels are encountered piercing the septum. These perforating vessels are primarily branches of which artery?





Explanation

The perforating arteries encountered at the lateral intermuscular septum during a lateral femoral approach are branches of the profunda femoris artery. They must be carefully identified and coagulated to prevent postoperative hematoma.

Question 50

A patient is evaluated for foot drop following a traumatic knee dislocation. An MRI reveals an intact common peroneal nerve that is compressed by a fibular head hematoma. In this anatomical region, the nerve wraps around the fibular neck deep to the origin of which muscle?





Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the neck of the fibula deep to the origin of the peroneus longus muscle. It is highly susceptible to injury at this location due to direct trauma, traction, or compression.

Question 51

During an anterolateral approach to the distal third of the humerus, the brachialis muscle is split longitudinally. Which nerve innervates the lateral half of the split brachialis muscle?





Explanation

The brachialis muscle possesses dual innervation. The medial portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, while the lateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve.

Question 52

A surgeon is performing a standard deltopectoral approach to the shoulder. Which of the following best describes the internervous plane utilized in this approach?





Explanation

The deltopectoral approach utilizes a true internervous plane between the deltoid (axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (medial and lateral pectoral nerves). The cephalic vein is the primary landmark for this interval.

Question 53

During an anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip, a superficial internervous plane is developed. Between which two muscles is this plane located?





Explanation

The superficial plane in the Smith-Petersen approach lies between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus minimus.

Question 54

A patient requires surgical excision of a tumor located within the quadrangular space of the shoulder. Which vascular structure normally accompanies the axillary nerve in this space?





Explanation

The quadrangular space transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery. Its boundaries include the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the surgical neck of the humerus.

Question 55

A 45-year-old female presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. EMG reveals isolated denervation of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus function. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment specifically at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 56

During a volar Henry approach to the forearm for a radius fracture, the surgeon must mobilize the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and brachioradialis. What represents the internervous plane for the proximal third of this approach?





Explanation

The proximal internervous plane of the volar Henry approach is between the brachioradialis (radial nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve). Distally, the plane is between the brachioradialis and the FCR.

Question 57

A surgeon performs an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for an intra-articular fracture. Which nerve is most at risk during the initial skin incision and elevation of the full-thickness flap?





Explanation

The sural nerve runs posterior to the lateral malleolus and along the lateral border of the hindfoot. It is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during the standard extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus.

Question 58

Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture via a standard volar approach, a patient cannot actively flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb. Which tendon was most likely injured?





Explanation

The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon runs deep in the volar forearm and crosses the distal radius. It can be iatrogenically injured by retractors or prominent distal plate screws.

Question 59

When repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture via a two-incision technique, what structure is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury during the deep posterolateral muscle-splitting exposure?





Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) lies within the supinator muscle. It is highly susceptible to injury during the posterior approach of a two-incision distal biceps repair if the forearm is not adequately pronated.

Question 60

During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, life-threatening hemorrhage occurs behind the superior pubic ramus. What vascular anomaly is the most likely source?





Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels and the obturator vessels. It is consistently located posterior to the superior pubic ramus and is at risk during pelvic exposures.

Question 61

Blood supply to the adult femoral head is predominantly derived from the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). Which specific branch of the MFCA provides the vast majority of this perfusion?





Explanation

The lateral epiphyseal arteries, which are terminal extensions of the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery, supply the majority of the blood to the adult femoral head and are at risk in femoral neck fractures.

Question 62

A 25-year-old runner complains of chronic exertional anterior compartment syndrome. During surgical release, the surgeon must protect the deep peroneal nerve, which runs closely with which artery?





Explanation

The anterior compartment of the leg contains the deep peroneal nerve. This nerve travels in close proximity to the anterior tibial artery to supply the anterior musculature.

Question 63

When performing a standard posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), which structure is utilized to protect the sciatic nerve during deep retraction?





Explanation

The short external rotators, particularly the obturator internus and gemelli, are tagged and reflected posteriorly over the sciatic nerve. This provides a soft tissue cushion protecting the nerve from retractors.

Question 64

A patient presents with a severe knee dislocation. Post-reduction examination reveals intact plantar flexion and inversion, but isolated weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. Which nerve is injured?





Explanation

The common peroneal nerve innervates both the anterior compartment (deep peroneal) and lateral compartment (superficial peroneal). Injury results in combined weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion.

Question 65

During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, the surgeon must identify the common peroneal nerve. Immediately distal to the fibular head, which muscle does the common peroneal nerve dive beneath?





Explanation

After coursing distally and wrapping around the fibular neck, the common peroneal nerve dives deep to the origin of the peroneus longus muscle before bifurcating.

Question 66

A displaced fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus often compromises the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve enters the anterior forearm by passing between the two heads of which muscle?





Explanation

The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel posterior to the medial epicondyle. It then enters the forearm by passing exactly between the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU).

Question 67

During arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon drills the tibial tunnel. To maximally protect the popliteal artery from injury, how should the knee be positioned?





Explanation

Flexing the knee allows the popliteal artery to fall further posteriorly away from the posterior capsule. This safely increases the distance between the artery and the exiting guide pin or drill.

Question 68

A patient requires a surgical release for De Quervain's tenosynovitis. Which two tendons are located within the targeted first dorsal compartment of the wrist?





Explanation

The first dorsal extensor compartment of the wrist anatomically contains the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons. Multiple subcompartments for the APL are common.

Question 69

A 55-year-old male undergoes open plating for a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove of the humerus between which two muscle heads?





Explanation

The radial nerve travels in the spiral groove (radial sulcus) along the posterior aspect of the humerus. It lies securely between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps brachii muscle.

Question 70

While performing a direct anterior approach to the hip, placement of a blunt retractor directly over the anterior rim of the acetabulum can inadvertently compress which nerve?





Explanation

Anterior retractors placed aggressively over the anterior acetabular rim during the direct anterior approach can inadvertently compress the femoral nerve against the iliopsoas muscle belly.

Question 71

During the proximal extension of the anterior (Henry) approach to the radius, the surgeon identifies a leash of vessels that must be ligated to mobilize the mobile wad laterally. These vessels are direct branches of which of the following structures?





Explanation

The 'leash of Henry' consists of recurrent radial artery branches given off by the radial artery just distal to the brachial artery bifurcation. Ligation allows lateral mobilization of the brachioradialis and superficial radial nerve.

Question 72

A surgeon is performing an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture. While working in the second (middle) window, which of the following structures is found immediately medial to the iliopectineal fascia?





Explanation

The second window of the ilioinguinal approach is bordered laterally by the iliopectineal fascia and medially by the external iliac vessels. The external iliac artery lies immediately medial to the iliopectineal fascia.

Question 73

When placing lateral mass screws in the subaxial cervical spine (C3-C6) using the Magerl technique, the drill is directed 25 degrees outward (laterally) and 25 degrees upward (cephalad) to primarily avoid injury to which two structures?





Explanation

The Magerl technique directs the drill laterally to avoid the vertebral artery (which runs directly anterior to the lateral mass) and superiorly to avoid the exiting spinal nerve root, which runs inferior to the lateral mass.

Question 74

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with isolated external rotation weakness of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical exam findings is most expected?





Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch selectively denervates the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.

Question 75

During an anatomic reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, identifying the normal anatomic footprint of the popliteus tendon on the femur is critical. Where is it located relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) origin?





Explanation

On the lateral femoral epicondyle, the footprint of the popliteus tendon is located distal and anterior to the origin of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Respecting this anatomy ensures appropriate graft isometry.

Question 76

When establishing the anterolateral portal during ankle arthroscopy, the incision should be made just lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon. This placement primarily minimizes the risk of injury to which of the following nerves?





Explanation

The anterolateral portal is placed just lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon to avoid the intermediate dorsal cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. Transillumination is often used to further identify and protect it.

Question 77

A patient sustains a complete sharp laceration of the ulnar nerve at the level of the pisiform. Despite this, they surprisingly maintain normal strength in the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis and the adductor pollicis. Which of the following anatomical variants best explains this?





Explanation

The Riche-Cannieu anastomosis is a neural connection between the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve in the palm. It allows median nerve innervation to typically ulnar-innervated intrinsic hand muscles.

Question 78

During a surgical dislocation of the hip to treat a femoral head fracture, the surgeon performs a trochanteric flip osteotomy. To preserve the primary blood supply to the femoral head, the osteotomy must remain superficial to the external rotator muscles to protect branches of which artery?





Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. Leaving the short external rotators attached to the intact proximal femur during a trochanteric flip osteotomy protects the deep branch of the MFCA.

Question 79

A 35-year-old male presents with vague anterior elbow pain and numbness in the radial three and a half digits. Radiographs demonstrate a bony spur projecting from the anteromedial aspect of the distal humerus. Compression at this specific level involves which of the following structures?





Explanation

A supracondylar process is an anatomical variant on the anteromedial distal humerus connected to the medial epicondyle by the Ligament of Struthers. This structure can entrap and compress both the median nerve and the brachial artery.

Question 80

When performing a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius must be strictly limited to less than 3 to 5 cm from the tip of the greater trochanter. This safe zone prevents denervation of the muscle by protecting which nerve?





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve courses between the gluteus medius and minimus. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 3 to 5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter risks denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae.

Question 81

During resection of a soft tissue sarcoma in the proximal thigh, the surgeon carefully traces the femoral nerve. Which of the following muscles is primarily innervated by a branch of the femoral nerve despite functioning as a medial compartment adductor?





Explanation

The pectineus muscle is anatomically located in the medial (adductor) compartment of the thigh but is predominantly innervated by the femoral nerve. It functions primarily to flex and adduct the thigh.

Question 82

A patient undergoes ORIF of a scaphoid fracture via a volar approach. The surgeon must open the wrist capsule while preserving the critical volar radiocarpal ligaments. Which of the following ligaments is the primary stabilizer preventing volar dislocation of the lunate?





Explanation

The short radiolunate ligament is a thick, stout ligament that binds the lunate securely to the volar rim of the radius. It acts as the primary restraint against volar translation and dislocation of the lunate.

Question 83

During a microdiscectomy at the L4-L5 level via a traditional posterior interlaminar approach, the surgeon encounters a large paracentral disc herniation. Anatomically, which nerve root is most commonly compressed by this specific herniation, and where does it ultimately exit the spinal canal?





Explanation

A paracentral disc herniation at L4-L5 typically compresses the traversing L5 nerve root in the lateral recess. The L5 root then travels inferiorly to exit the spinal canal through the L5-S1 neural foramen.

Question 84

Repair of a posterior horn tear of the medial meniscus using an inside-out technique places certain extra-articular structures at risk. What is the most critical neural structure at risk when placing sutures blindly in the posteromedial corner of the knee?





Explanation

During an inside-out repair of the medial meniscus, the saphenous nerve (and its infrapatellar branch) is at highest risk in the posteromedial joint space. A protective retractor must be placed carefully anterior to the medial head of the gastrocnemius.

Question 85

The Lisfranc ligament is essential for the stability of the midfoot and is often implicated in high-energy tarsometatarsal fracture-dislocations. Which of the following best describes its exact true anatomical attachments?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a stout, interosseous ligament that originates on the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform and inserts onto the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. There is notably no direct ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals.

Question 86

When performing a surgical dislocation of the hip for a femoroacetabular impingement procedure, preservation of the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is paramount to prevent avascular necrosis. In relation to the short external rotators, where is this critical vessel consistently located?





Explanation

The deep branch of the MCFA consistently passes deep (anterior) to the quadratus femoris and superficial (posterior) to the obturator externus. Protecting the obturator externus and leaving the quadratus femoris intact (or performing a trochanteric flip) preserves this vascular supply.

Question 87

A 28-year-old elite pitcher presents with isolated wasting and severe weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. He has full strength in shoulder abduction, and external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees is intact. Entrapment of the involved nerve is most likely occurring at which of the following anatomic locations?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at this specific notch isolates the infraspinatus, completely sparing the supraspinatus which is innervated more proximally.

Question 88

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at the C5-C6 level, the surgeon develops the standard plane between the carotid sheath laterally and the trachea/esophagus medially. Which of the following specific fascial layers must be incised to enter this internervous plane?





Explanation

The anterior approach to the cervical spine utilizes the plane between the carotid sheath and the visceral axis. Accessing this interval requires splitting the pretracheal fascia, which is the middle layer of the deep cervical fascia.

Question 89

A 45-year-old woman complains of proximal volar forearm pain and paresthesias in the radial three and a half digits. Electrodiagnostic testing confirms a high median nerve compression. Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely responsible for this specific entrapment syndrome?





Explanation

The Ligament of Struthers connects an anomalous supracondylar process of the humerus to the medial epicondyle, which can compress the median nerve. The Arcade of Struthers is associated with the ulnar nerve, and the Arcade of Frohse with the posterior interosseous nerve.

Question 90

In reconstructing the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, the surgeon must anatomically restore the insertion of the popliteus tendon on the femur. What is its correct anatomic relationship to the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) attachment on the lateral femoral condyle?





Explanation

On the lateral femoral condyle, the popliteus tendon consistently inserts anterior and inferior to the origin of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL). Re-establishing this exact footprint is critical for restoring normal PLC kinematics.

Question 91

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified. It is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid to preserve its major tributaries. If the dissection proceeds too aggressively medial to the conjoined tendon, which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of direct injury?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Retracting the conjoined tendon too vigorously or dissecting medial to it places this nerve at significant risk for neuropraxia or laceration.

Question 92

A trauma surgeon is performing an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture. While working in the second (middle) window, massive acute hemorrhage occurs. Which of the following vascular structures is the most likely source of this bleeding?





Explanation

The second window of the ilioinguinal approach lies between the iliopectineal fascia and the external iliac vessels. The corona mortis, a highly variable arterial or venous anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator systems, traverses over the superior pubic ramus here.

Question 93

Surgical treatment of a recalcitrant trigger finger involves incising the A1 pulley. During flexor tendon exploration, which of the following combinations of pulleys are the most critical biomechanical stabilizers that must be preserved to prevent significant tendon bowstringing?





Explanation

The A2 pulley (located over the proximal phalanx) and A4 pulley (located over the middle phalanx) are the major biomechanical stabilizers of the flexor tendon system. Iatrogenic division of both these pulleys leads to clinically significant bowstringing and loss of active flexion.

Question 94

The anterolateral approach to the distal humerus is often utilized for fracture fixation, requiring exposure and protection of the radial nerve. At what approximate distance proximal to the radiocapitellar joint does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle (and radiocapitellar joint). This anatomic landmark is essential when extending the approach proximally.

Question 95

During an anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip, a true internervous plane is utilized. Proximally, this surgical interval is developed between muscles innervated by which two nerves?





Explanation

The proximal internervous plane for the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). Distally, the plane falls between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 96

Tarsal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the tibial nerve. In relation to the other structures located posterior to the medial malleolus, where does the main neurovascular bundle lie within the tarsal tunnel?





Explanation

From anterior to posterior, the structures are the Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Artery, Vein, Nerve, and Flexor Hallucis Longus (Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry). Therefore, the neurovascular bundle lies safely sandwiched between the FDL and FHL tendons.

Question 97

During the distal extent of the volar (Henry) approach to the radius, the pronator quadratus must be elevated to visualize the volar cortex. To maintain its blood supply and allow for an adequate repair at closure, from which border should the muscle be detached?





Explanation

The pronator quadratus is supplied by the anterior interosseous artery, which enters the muscle proximally and dorsally. It should be elevated subperiosteally from the lateral border of the radius and reflected medially toward the ulna to preserve its neurovascular pedicle.

Question 98

The transpsoas lateral approach to the lumbar spine places the lumbar plexus at significant risk of iatrogenic injury. At the L4-L5 disc space level, where is the lumbar plexus most consistently located within the psoas major muscle?





Explanation

At the L4-L5 level, the neural elements of the lumbar plexus are predominately located within the posterior third of the psoas muscle. Due to this posterior migration, the safest working corridor is typically in the anterior or middle thirds of the disc space.

Question 99

A 30-year-old bodybuilder presents with poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst compressing the contents of the quadrilateral space. Which of the following muscles acts as the superior border of this anatomic space?





Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bordered by the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), long head of the triceps (medially), and the humeral shaft (laterally). Compression here affects the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 100

Surgical release for De Quervain's tenosynovitis requires incising the extensor retinaculum over the first dorsal extensor compartment. Which of the following sensory nerves is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury or neuroma formation during this superficial dissection?





Explanation

The superficial branch of the radial nerve (SBRN) runs subcutaneously directly over or very close to the first dorsal extensor compartment. Extreme care with blunt longitudinal subcutaneous dissection must be employed to avoid injuring the SBRN branches.

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