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Orthopedic Board Review Set 675: 100 MCQs for ABOS, OITE, FRCS – Hip Focus

AAOS Orthopedic Anatomy Board Review (Set 4): Hip & Pelvic Girdle MCQs | ABOS, SMLE

23 Apr 2026 55 min read 92 Views
Anatomy 2000 MCQs - Part 4

Key Takeaway

This high-yield question set for AAOS and ABOS exams, Set 4, meticulously covers advanced orthopedic hip and pelvic anatomy. Topics include precise bony landmarks, joint biomechanics, critical neurovascular structures, and clinical correlations essential for board success. Master these core anatomical principles for comprehensive review.

AAOS Orthopedic Anatomy Board Review (Set 4): Hip & Pelvic Girdle MCQs | ABOS, SMLE

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

Figure 42 is a transverse MRI scan of the left shoulder. The arrow points to which of the following structures?





Explanation

The figure shows an axial image of the shoulder immediately inferior to the coracoid process. The subscapularis tendon, which can be traced from the myotendinous junction, is torn and detached from its lesser tuberosity attachment on the humerus. Lateral to the lesser tuberosity, the bicipital groove is empty. The arrow points to the subluxated biceps tendon. Superficial fibers of the subscapularis tendon are contiguous with the biceps retinaculum, which covers the bicipital groove and hold the biceps tendon in place. The vast majority of subscapularis tendon tears result in disruption of the biceps retinaculum with resultant subluxation of the tendon. Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangement of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 308-317.

Question 2

Within the menisci, the majority of the large collagen fiber bundles are oriented in what configuration?





Explanation

The majority of large collagen fibers within the menisci are oriented circumferentially. It is these fibers that develop the hoop stress with compressive loading of the menisci. Most meniscal tears are longitudinal and occur between these circumferential fibers. Mow VC, et al: Structure and function relationships of the menisci of the knee, in Mow VC, Arnoczky SP, Jackson DW (eds): Knee Meniscus: Basic and Clinical Foundations. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992, pp 37-57.

Question 3

For halo traction, what is the preferred site for anterior pin placement?





Explanation

The safe zone for anterior halo pin insertion is marked laterally by the anterior border of the temporalis muscle (to avoid penetration of this muscle and relative thin cortex of the skull). Medially, the pin should be placed 4.5 cm lateral to the midline to avoid injury to the supraorbital nerve or the frontal sinus. The safe area is marked superiorly by the head equator to avoid cephalad migration of the pin and inferiorly by the supraorbital ridge to prevent displacement or penetration into the orbit.

Question 4

A 12-year-old boy has had progressive pain and flatfeet for the past year. Pain is increased with weight-bearing activities. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is absent. On standing, the patient has obvious hindfoot valgus and loss of the normal arch bilaterally. Plain radiographs are shown in Figures 43a through 43c, and a CT scan is shown in Figure 43d. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The axial views show fusion of the talus and calcaneus at the medial facet (talocalcaneal coalition). Peroneal spastic flatfoot is a descriptive term applying to the symptoms of painful flatfoot associated with apparent peroneal spasm and is sometimes caused by tarsal coalition; however, this is not the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient. Flexible flatfoot with a short Achilles tendon often causes symptoms similar to the ones listed above, but subtalar motion should be normal. A diagnosis of calcaneonavicular coalition can be made based on plain oblique views of the foot but is not seen in these views. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction in the absence of other pathology is uncommon in children. Vincent KA: Tarsal coalition and painful flatfoot. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:274-281.


Question 5

When performing ankle arthroscopy through the anterolateral portal, what anatomic structure is at greatest risk?





Explanation

The superficial branch of the peroneal nerve travels subcutaneously anterior to the lateral malleolus at the ankle. It can be easily damaged by deep penetration of the knife blade when making this portal or when passing shavers in and out of the portal. Anesthesia or dysesthesia from laceration or neuroma formation can cause significant postoperative morbidity. The anterior tibialis tendon, anterior tibial artery, and the deep peroneal nerve are located much more anterior and central on the ankle. The sural nerve is posterior lateral to the ankle and is not at risk from this portal. Ferkel RD, Heath DD, Guhl JF: Neurological complications of ankle arthroscopy. Arthroscopy 1996;12:200-208.

Question 6

Figure 44 shows the AP radiograph of the hip of a patient who underwent screw fixation of the acetabulum. Which of the following structures is at least risk for injury during screw placement in the acetabular component?





Explanation

Acetabular screws are inserted to supplement fixation. The acetabular component can be divided into four quadrants. Anatomic studies have shown that screws placed in the anterior superior and anterior inferior quadrants of the cup may injure the external iliac vein and obturator artery, respectively. Posterior superior and posterior inferior placement (in screws greater than 25 mm) may injure the sciatic nerve or the superior gluteal artery. The common iliac artery is proximal to the acetabulum and is at least risk for injury from acetabular screw placement.


Question 7

Figure 45 shows the lateral radiograph of a 19-year-old swimmer who has had back pain for the past 2 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The patient has a pars interarticularis defect of L5 without apparent listhesis. The other diagnoses are not present. Papanicolaou N, Wilkinson RH, Emmans JB, Treves S, Micheli LJ: Bone scintigraphy and radiography in young athletes with low back pain. Am J Roentgenol 1985;145:1039-1044.


Question 8

Figure 46 shows the AP radiograph of a patient with right shoulder pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Posttraumatic osteolysis of the distal portion of the clavicle is a condition that can be a complication of acute or repetitive trauma. The distal end of the clavicle is frayed and resorbed. Resorption may occur after weeks or months. The end of the clavicle may reconstitute over a period of months, or the acromioclavicular joint may remain widened. The differential diagnosis for distal clavicular erosion also includes rheumatoid arthritis, hyperparathyroidism, neoplastic destruction, cleidocranial dysplasia, and pyknodysostosis. Acutely, a type 2 acromioclavicular joint injury does not result in erosion or resorption of the clavicle. Periosteal sleeve injuries radiographically mimic acromioclavicular joint dislocation. Rickets occurs only in childhood.


Question 9

The main arterial supply to the humeral head is provided by which of the following arteries?





Explanation

The main arterial supply to the humeral head is provided by the ascending branch of the anterior humeral circumflex artery and its intraosseous continuation, the arcuate artery. There are significant intraosseous anastomoses between the arcuate artery, the posterior humeral circumflex artery through vessels entering the posteromedial aspect of the proximal humerus, the metaphyseal vessels, and the vessels of the greater and lesser tuberosities. Four-part fractures and dissection during exposure affect perfusion of the humeral head. Brooks CH, Revell WJ, Heatley FW: Vascularity of the humeral head after proximal humeral fractures: An anatomical cadaver study. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:132-136.

Question 10

Figure 47 shows a transverse MRI scan of a patient's left shoulder. The findings reveal which of the following abnormalities?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows a defect in the posterior aspect of the humeral head, commonly referred to as a Hill-Sachs lesion. This is an impaction fracture of the humeral head that occurs during anterior shoulder dislocation. The abnormality on this image is an irregularity of the posterior humeral head; the humeral head otherwise has a homogenous appearance. The coracoid, subscapularis, and posterior labrum are normal. Griffin LY (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 47-63.


Question 11

An 18-year-old man sustains an injury to the right brachial plexus after falling off his bicycle. Examination reveals no rhomboideus major or minor muscle function. This finding most likely indicates a preganglionic injury to which of the following nerve roots?





Explanation

The rhomboideus major and minor muscles are innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve, which is supplied entirely by the C5 nerve root. The dorsal scapular nerve arises just distal to the dorsal root ganglion of the C5 nerve root. A functioning rhomboid muscle indicates that an injury involving C5 nerve root fibers must be postganglionic or distal to the C5 dorsal root ganglion. Woodburne RT, Crelin ES, Kaplan FS, Dingle RV (eds): The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations. Summit, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, pp 23-28.

Question 12

A 53-year-old man with a history of severe left hip pain has a significant limp that is the result of a 5-cm limb-length discrepancy. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 48. The underlying etiology is most likely related to a history of





Explanation

Radiographic abnormalities such as coxa magna, coxa breva secondary to growth arrest, and coxa plana and acetabular deformities are associated with healed Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Femoral heads that were flat yet congruent with the acetabulum are at risk for disabling arthritis in the sixth decade of life in 50% of these untreated patients. As the normal ball-and-socket joint deforms to a flattened cylinder, the hip loses abduction and rotation capability, while retaining flexion and extension potential. If the femoral head is flat and is not concentric with the acetabulum, early severe arthritis occurs. Hinge abduction and anterior impingement are known sequelae of a flat, incongruent femoral head.


Question 13

Where does the median nerve pass in the proximal forearm?





Explanation

The median nerve passes through the pronator teres and deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis. The ulnar artery passes deep to both. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1978, pp 6-55.

Question 14

The vascularity of the digital flexor tendons is significantly richer in what cross-sectional region?





Explanation

The vascularity of the dorsal portion of the digital flexor tendons is considerably richer than the volar portion. The other regions are not preferentially more vascular. Hunter JM, Scheider LH, Makin EJ (eds): Tendon Surgery in the Hand. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1987, pp 91-99.

Question 15

Figures 49a and 49b show MRI scans of the shoulder. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The supraspinatus tendon shows clear detachment and retraction from its greater tuberosity attachment by the absence of the normal dark subacromial signal extending to the attachment on the greater tuberosity. There is no anterior inferior glenoid labral detachment that usually is seen in a Bankart lesion. The acromioclavicular joint shows no evidence of separation. The humeral head is migrated cranially, indicating a chronic rotator cuff tear. Iannotti JP, Zlatkin MB, Esterhai JL, Kressel HY, Dalinka MK, Spindler KP: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder: Sensitivity, specificity, and predictive value. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:17-29. Seeger LL, Gold RH, Bassett LW, Ellman H: Shoulder impingement syndrome: MR findings in 53 shoulders. Am J Roentgenol 1988;150:343-347.


Question 16

A fracture of the radial head is surgically exposed using a posterolateral approach to the elbow. Once the radial head is exposed, how should the arm be positioned to best protect the posterior interosseous nerve from injury?





Explanation

As long as the dissection stays proximal to the annular ligament, the posterior interosseous nerve is not at risk for injury. However, to ensure that the nerve is as far removed from the surgical field as possible, the forearm should be placed in pronation. Forearm supination of any degree will bring the nerve toward the surgical field. A neutral position of the forearm or elbow extension with wrist extension will not protect the posterior interosseous nerve. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, p 100.

Question 17

Figure 50 shows the MRI scan of a 20-year-old female college soccer player with knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows an acute complete tear of the posterior cruciate ligament. No evidence is seen of a quadriceps tendon rupture, a tibia fracture, or a bone contusion. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 533-557.


Question 18

The tibiofibular overlap used to diagnose syndesmotic diastasis on an AP view is most commonly measured between the





Explanation

The tibiofibular overlap is measured between the medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the anterior tibial tubercle. Plain radiographic assessment of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis requires AP and mortise views. The following criteria have been used as the normal limits in adults: a talocrural angle of + or - 83 degrees with up to 5 degrees of normal difference between both sides, a medial clear space of less than 4 mm, a talar tilt of less than 2 mm, a tibiofibular clear space of less than 5 mm, a tibiofibular overlap of greater than or equal to 0 mm, and a talar subluxation that is a subjective assessment of congruity of the tibial articular surface and the talar dome; any incongruity is abnormal. It has been recommended to obtain the first three measurements on the mortise view and the other three on the AP view. Wuest TK: Injuries to the distal lower extremity syndesmosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:172-181.

Question 19

Figures 51a and 51b show subluxation of the





Explanation

The extensor carpi ulnaris tendon is shown subluxated from its tunnel at the ulnar head; this requires disruption of the tendon's subsheath. Rowland SA: Acute traumatic subluxation of the extensor carpi ulnaris tendon at the wrist. J Hand Surg Am 1986;11:809-811.


Question 20

The so-called high ankle sprain from an external rotation mechanism of injury typically involves injury to which of the following structures?





Explanation

Ankle sprains most commonly involve injury to the lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle (anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular, and calcaneofibular) from an inversion mechanism of injury. A different entity has been more recently described that involves an external rotation mechanism of injury that widens the ankle mortise and disrupts the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament. Deltoid ligament and extensor retinaculum injuries do occur, although infrequently, and involve eversion and extreme plantar flexion mechanisms, respectively. Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6. London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, p 182. Kaye RA: Stabilization of ankle syndesmosis injuries with a syndesmosis screw. Foot Ankle 1989;9:290-293. Baxter DE: The Foot and Ankle in Sports. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1995, p 30.

Question 21

In the first dorsal compartment of the wrist, what tendon most frequently contains multiple slips?





Explanation

The first extensor compartment of the wrist typically contains a single extensor pollicis brevis tendon and the abductor pollicis longus tendon that nearly always has multiple tendon slips. The extensor pollicis brevis tendon is frequently found to be separated from the slips of the abductor pollicis longus tendon by an intracompartmental septum. During surgery, this septum must be divided to complete the release of the compartment. Jackson WT, Viegas SF, Coon TM, Stimpson KD, Frogameni AD, Simpson JM: Anatomical variations in the first extensor compartment of the wrist: A clinical and anatomical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:923-926.

Question 22

The preferred surgical approach to the elbow of a child with an irreducible type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture and pulseless extremity is through which of the following muscle intervals?





Explanation

In a type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture of the elbow, the brachial artery can become incarcerated, yielding a pulseless extremity. In this situation, closed reduction may not be effective; therefore, open management is often necessary. The preferred surgical approach to the brachial artery and to this fracture is the anterior approach to the cubital fossa. The lacertus fibrosis is incised, and the dissection is carried out between the brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve), mobilizing the brachial artery. Once the brachial artery is mobilized, the anterior elbow joint capsule may be exposed. The interval between the brachialis and the biceps describes the anterolateral approach to the elbow more commonly used for exposure of the proximal aspect of the posterior interosseous nerve. The dissection interval between the brachioradialis and the pronator teres describes the proximal extent of the anterior approach to the radius. Tubiana R, McCullough CJ, Masquelet AC: An Atlas of Surgical Exposures of the Upper Extremity. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1990, p 115.

Question 23

A 48-year-old man has recurrent right knee pain. Figure 52a shows the sagittal proton density T2-weighted MRI scan, and Figure 52b shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan at the same level. The arrow is pointing to a





Explanation

Meniscal tears have many configurations and locations. The normal medial meniscus has a bow-tie configuration on the two most medial consecutive sagittal views. Toward the center of the joint the anterior and posterior horns have a triangular shape. These images show an abnormal intra-articular low-signal structure located anterior to the intact posterior cruciate ligament. This most likely represents a torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus, sometimes called "double PCL sign". A popliteal cyst and ligaments of Wrisberg and Humphry are not visible on these figures. Helms CA: MR image of the knee, in Fundamentals of Skeletal Radiology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 172-191.


Question 24

Figure 53 shows a thoracolumbar specimen as viewed from posterior to anterior following removal of all posterior elements. Which of the following structures does the red string pass under?





Explanation

The string passes under the ligamentum flavum as it runs from the posterior aspect of the vertebra above to the inferior aspect of the vertebra below in the sagittal midline. This is an important structure in diskectomy and in posterior approaches to the thoracolumbar spine and neural elements. It is rarely visualized in its entirety because typical exposures provide only a limited view.


Question 25

A 5-year-old girl sustained a comminuted Salter-Harris type IV fracture of the left distal tibia 2 years ago. The AP radiograph shown in Figure 54a reveals a growth arrest and a 1.4-cm limb-length discrepancy. The ankle is in approximately 20 degrees of varus. Figure 54b shows a coronal reconstruction image of the distal tibial physis, and Figure 54c shows a sagittal reconstruction image of the same area. On the sagittal reconstruction image, the bar extends from the 9-mm mark to the 24-mm mark in 3-mm increments. On the coronal image, the bar extends from the 9-mm mark to the 24-mm mark, also in 3-mm increments. A map of the physeal bar based on these measurements is shown in Figure 54d. Initial treatment should consist of





Explanation

Mapping of a physeal bar from biplane polytomography or CT helps to identify lesions that should be treated surgically and aids in planning the surgical approach and resection. Criteria for surgical excision are at least 2 years of longitudinal growth remaining and involvement of no more than 50% of the physis. Osteotomy is required if angular deformity is greater than 20 degrees. Although this physeal bar is large, it is slightly less than 50% of the total area of the physis. Limb lengthening in this case should be reserved for failure of bar resection. Physiodesis of the opposite distal tibia at this age would result in disproportionate shortening of both tibiae. Carlson WO, Wenger DR: A mapping method to prepare for surgical excision of a partial physeal arrest. J Pediatr Orthop 1984;4:232-238.


Question 26

During the ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, severe hemorrhage is encountered while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely injured?





Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac (or inferior epigastric) systems located over the superior pubic ramus. It is at significant risk for life-threatening hemorrhage during anterior pelvic approaches.

Question 27

When placing screws in the acetabulum during total hip arthroplasty, drilling into the posterior-inferior quadrant places which of the following structures at highest risk?





Explanation

The posterior-inferior quadrant places the sciatic nerve and internal pudendal vessels at risk. The anterior-superior quadrant risks the external iliac vessels, and the anterior-inferior quadrant risks the obturator nerve.

Question 28

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the gluteus medius is split longitudinally. To prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and minimus, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, minimus, and TFL. Its inferior branch runs approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter; splitting the muscle beyond 5 cm risks denervating the anterior portion of the abductors.

Question 29

A 24-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach. Retraction of the sciatic nerve is required. Which portion of the sciatic nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury, and what clinical deficit would be observed?





Explanation

The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is most lateral and has larger, less protected nerve fascicles. Injury results in a foot drop due to loss of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion.

Question 30

A patient undergoes an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture. The surgeon is working in the middle window of this approach. Which of the following structures dictates the medial boundary of this specific window?





Explanation

The ilioinguinal approach has three windows. The middle window is bound laterally by the iliopectineal fascia and medially by the external iliac vessels.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the precise anatomic origin of the reflected head of the rectus femoris?





Explanation

The rectus femoris has two origins: the straight head originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), and the reflected head originates from the groove just above the superior rim of the acetabulum and the anterior hip capsule.

Question 32

An orthopaedic surgeon is using the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip. What is the true internervous plane utilized in the superficial dissection of this approach?





Explanation

The Smith-Petersen approach utilizes an internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 33

When inserting screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, the "safe zone" for screw placement to avoid major neurovascular injury is which quadrant?





Explanation

The posterosuperior quadrant is considered the "safe zone" for screw placement in the acetabulum, as it generally avoids the external iliac vessels anteriorly and the sciatic nerve and inferior gluteal vessels posteroinferiorly.

Question 34

A 14-year-old male athlete presents with sudden onset of severe groin pain after forcefully kicking a soccer ball. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the lesser trochanter. Which of the following muscles is responsible for this injury?





Explanation

The iliopsoas muscle inserts onto the lesser trochanter and is responsible for avulsion fractures at this site, most commonly seen in adolescents during forceful hip flexion.

Question 35

During an anterior intrapelvic (Stoppa) approach to the acetabulum, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered while dissecting over the superior pubic ramus near the symphysis. This is most likely due to an injury to an anastomosis between which two vascular systems (Corona Mortis)?





Explanation

The Corona Mortis is a common vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) and the obturator systems, crossing the superior pubic ramus, placing it at high risk during intrapelvic approaches.

Question 36

What is the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head comes from the medial femoral circumflex artery, specifically its lateral epiphyseal branches, which enter the capsule posteriorly.

Question 37

A 35-year-old female experiences numbness and tingling in the anterolateral aspect of her thigh after prolonged wearing of a tight utility belt. Compression of which nerve is the most likely cause, and where does it typically exit the pelvis?





Explanation

Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which typically exits the pelvis by passing under the inguinal ligament, just medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

Question 38

During hip arthroscopy, prolonged traction against a perineal post can lead to a specific neuropathy. Which of the following clinical findings is most characteristic of this complication?





Explanation

Prolonged pressure against a perineal post during hip arthroscopy can compress the pudendal nerve, leading to perineal numbness and, in severe cases, erectile dysfunction in males.

Question 39

When repairing a complete proximal hamstring avulsion, the surgeon must be careful to identify and protect the sciatic nerve. At the level of the ischial tuberosity, what is the anatomical relationship of the sciatic nerve to the hamstring origin?





Explanation

At the level of the ischial tuberosity, the sciatic nerve lies lateral and deep to the common origin of the hamstring muscles, resting on the adductor magnus.

Question 40

In a patient with a posterior pelvic ring disruption, which ligament is considered the primary and strongest stabilizer against vertical shear forces?





Explanation

The interosseous sacroiliac ligament, part of the posterior sacroiliac ligament complex, is the strongest ligament in the body and provides the primary resistance against vertical shear forces across the sacroiliac joint.

Question 41

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is at risk during a posterior approach to the hip if the dissection extends too far inferiorly. The MCFA typically passes between which two muscles before entering the hip capsule?





Explanation

The main branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery runs posteriorly and passes superior to the upper border of the quadratus femoris and deep to the obturator externus before entering the capsule.

Question 42

A patient sustains a pelvic fracture involving the greater sciatic notch. Which of the following structures exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen but superior to the piriformis muscle?





Explanation

The superior gluteal artery, vein, and nerve are the only structures that exit the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis muscle.

Question 43

During an open reduction of a developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) via an anterior approach, the surgeon must tenotomize the iliopsoas. What nerve is most at risk of injury just medial to the iliopsoas muscle belly at the level of the pelvic brim?





Explanation

The femoral nerve lies in the groove between the iliacus and the psoas major muscles and is immediately medial to the iliopsoas tendon at the level of the joint capsule. Care must be taken not to injure it during an iliopsoas tenotomy.

Question 44

In evaluating a patient with a pelvic ring injury, the presence of an open book pelvis (APC II or III) implies failure of the symphysis pubis and the anterior sacroiliac ligaments. Which pelvic ligament, if intact, prevents pure vertical displacement and distinguishes an APC II from an APC III injury?





Explanation

In an APC II injury, the anterior SI ligaments, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments are torn, allowing external rotation. The intact posterior sacroiliac ligaments prevent vertical translation and differentiate it from an APC III injury.

Question 45

The obturator nerve provides motor innervation to the adductor compartment of the thigh. If the nerve is completely transected within the obturator canal, which muscle in the medial compartment will retain partial innervation?





Explanation

The pectineus muscle receives dual innervation; its primary motor supply is from the femoral nerve, with accessory innervation occasionally provided by the obturator nerve.

Question 46

Which of the following landmarks serves as the primary anatomic reference for the inferior limit of the superficial interval in the Watson-Jones (anterolateral) approach to the hip?





Explanation

The Watson-Jones approach uses the internervous plane between the TFL and gluteus medius. The inferior limit of this superficial interval is dictated by the fusion of their fascia at the base of the greater trochanter.

Question 47

A patient undergoes a pelvic osteotomy and develops persistent weakness in hip external rotation. The surgeon suspects injury to the nerve to the quadratus femoris. This nerve typically leaves the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and runs deep to which of the following structures?





Explanation

The nerve to the quadratus femoris exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, inferior to the piriformis, and runs anterior (deep) to the superior gemellus, obturator internus, and inferior gemellus to innervate the inferior gemellus and quadratus femoris.

Question 48

During a posterior approach to the hip, the surgeon identifies the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) to protect the blood supply to the femoral head. What is the correct anatomic course of the main branch of the MFCA?





Explanation

The MFCA passes anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus. Protecting the obturator externus during a posterior approach helps preserve the primary blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 49

When placing screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, which quadrant is considered the 'safe zone' to avoid major neurovascular injury?





Explanation

According to Wasielewski's quadrant system, the posterosuperior quadrant is the safe zone for screw placement. The anterosuperior quadrant risks the external iliac vessels, and the anteroinferior risks the obturator neurovascular bundle.

Question 50

A patient undergoes an anterior pelvic ring fixation via an ilioinguinal approach. During dissection along the superior pubic ramus, brisk bleeding occurs. This is most likely due to injury of an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) and obturator vessels. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus, approximately 4-6 cm from the pubic symphysis.

Question 51

During a direct anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), the superficial internervous plane is utilized. Which nerves supply the muscles defining this superficial plane?





Explanation

The superficial plane of the direct anterior approach lies between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 52

In approximately 15-20% of the population, the sciatic nerve has an anatomical variation in its relationship with the piriformis muscle. What is the most common variant?





Explanation

The most common anatomical variant of the sciatic nerve involves the common peroneal division piercing the piriformis muscle while the tibial division passes below it.

Question 53

A 45-year-old female presents with persistent lateral hip pain and a Trendelenburg gait after a fall. MRI reveals an isolated avulsion of the gluteus medius tendon. Which aspect of the greater trochanter is the primary footprint for the gluteus medius?





Explanation

The gluteus medius inserts on the superoposterior and lateral facets of the greater trochanter. The gluteus minimus primarily inserts on the anterior facet.

Question 54

An adolescent water skier sustains a sudden, forceful hip flexion with knee extension, resulting in an ischial tuberosity avulsion fracture. Which of the following muscles shares a conjoint tendon origin at this site?





Explanation

The long head of the biceps femoris and the semitendinosus form a conjoint tendon that originates on the ischial tuberosity. The semimembranosus also originates here but has a distinct, more lateral footprint.

Question 55

The sacrospinous ligament is a critical anatomical landmark during pelvic surgery. Which two spaces does this ligament separate?





Explanation

The sacrospinous ligament divides the greater sciatic notch from the lesser sciatic notch. Along with the sacrotuberous ligament, it forms the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.

Question 56

A patient complains of perineal numbness and fecal incontinence after a difficult vaginal delivery. The nerve responsible for these symptoms exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and re-enters through the lesser sciatic foramen. What is this nerve?





Explanation

The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis, hooks around the sacrospinous ligament, and enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen.

Question 57

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius must be limited to avoid denervating the anterior portion of the muscle. What is the generally accepted safe distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve courses approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Splitting the gluteus medius more proximally risks denervating its anterior fibers and the tensor fasciae latae.

Question 58

A 24-year-old athlete presents with snapping hip syndrome. Ultrasound evaluation demonstrates snapping of a tendon over the iliopectineal eminence. Which structure inserts onto the lesser trochanter and is responsible for this internal snapping?





Explanation

Internal snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or anterior femoral head as it travels to insert on the lesser trochanter.

Question 59

What ligament of the hip is considered the strongest in the human body, acting primarily to prevent hyperextension of the hip joint?





Explanation

The iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow) is the strongest ligament in the body. It is located anteriorly and primarily prevents hyperextension of the hip.

Question 60

In evaluating an acetabular fracture on an anteroposterior pelvic radiograph, the ilioischial line is disrupted. This radiographic landmark represents which anatomic structure of the acetabulum?





Explanation

The ilioischial line is a radiographic landmark seen on an AP pelvis radiograph that represents the posterior column of the acetabulum. The iliopectineal line represents the anterior column.

Question 61

During an open reduction and internal fixation of a symphysis pubis diastasis, the surgeon must be aware of the boundaries of the femoral canal to avoid incarcerating a hernia or injuring vascular structures. What forms the medial boundary of the femoral ring?





Explanation

The boundaries of the femoral ring are the inguinal ligament anteriorly, the pectineal ligament posteriorly, the femoral vein laterally, and the lacunar ligament medially.

Question 62

The ligamentum teres of the hip contains a small artery that supplies a minor portion of the femoral head in adults. This artery is a branch of which of the following vessels?





Explanation

The artery of the ligamentum teres is a branch of the posterior division of the obturator artery. Its contribution to femoral head perfusion is minimal in adults but significant in children.

Question 63

A patient undergoes pelvic lymph node dissection and subsequently presents with weakness in hip adduction and paresthesias over the medial aspect of the thigh. Which nerve was most likely injured as it courses through the pelvis?





Explanation

The obturator nerve provides motor innervation to the hip adductors and sensory innervation to the medial thigh. It can be injured during intrapelvic procedures as it courses toward the obturator canal.

Question 64

During an anterolateral approach to the hip (Watson-Jones), the internervous plane is between the tensor fasciae latae and the gluteus medius. What is the nerve supply to these two muscles?





Explanation

The anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach exploits an intermuscular plane, rather than a true internervous plane, as both the tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

Question 65

The hip joint capsule is reinforced by several ligaments. Which capsular ligament is located posteriorly and is primarily responsible for limiting internal rotation of the hip in extension?





Explanation

The ischiofemoral ligament is the primary posterior capsular ligament of the hip. It spirals superiorly and anteriorly to the greater trochanter, resisting internal rotation and extension.

Question 66

A 30-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation. Post-reduction, he exhibits a foot drop and weakness in great toe extension, but plantar flexion is preserved. Which portion of the sciatic nerve is most vulnerable in this injury?





Explanation

The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is positioned more laterally and is tethered at the fibular head, making it highly susceptible to stretch injury during a posterior hip dislocation.

Question 67

In the setting of a hip arthroscopy, the surgeon must be cautious when establishing the anterolateral portal to avoid injury to a major nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is at risk. What is the typical anatomical course of the LFCN as it exits the pelvis?





Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve typically exits the pelvis medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), passing deep to the inguinal ligament to supply sensation to the anterolateral thigh.

Question 68

During a modified Stoppa approach for a pelvic ring fracture, the surgeon encounters massive arterial hemorrhage just posterior to the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between which of the following vessels?





Explanation

The bleeding is from the corona mortis, a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) and the obturator vessels. It is located approximately 4 to 5 cm from the pubic symphysis along the superior pubic ramus.

Question 69

When placing acetabular screws during a total hip arthroplasty, the acetabulum is divided into four quadrants using a line from the anterior superior iliac spine through the center of the acetabulum and a second perpendicular line. A misdirected screw in the anterosuperior quadrant places which of the following structures at greatest risk?





Explanation

The anterosuperior quadrant is often termed the 'death quadrant' due to the proximity of the external iliac artery and vein. The safest area for screw placement is the posterosuperior quadrant, followed by the posteroinferior quadrant.

Question 70

A surgeon uses the direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, which involves splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae, the split should not extend proximally from the tip of the greater trochanter more than:





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and TFL. Its branches cross approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, making 5 cm the absolute maximum safe limit for proximal splitting.

Question 71

An anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip is selected for an open reduction of a developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). What represents the superficial internervous plane for this approach?





Explanation

The superficial plane of the Smith-Petersen approach utilizes the internervous interval between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 72

In a 65-year-old patient sustaining a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture, the primary blood supply to the femoral head is typically disrupted. Which of the following arteries provides the majority of the blood supply to the adult femoral head?





Explanation

The lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) are the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. Disruption of these vessels in displaced femoral neck fractures leads to high rates of avascular necrosis.

Question 73

Following a total hip arthroplasty via an anterior approach, a patient complains of burning pain and numbness over the anterolateral aspect of the operative thigh. The nerve responsible for this complication typically exits the pelvis in which location?





Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is entirely sensory and commonly exits the pelvis approximately 1-2 cm medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), passing under or through the inguinal ligament. It is at significant risk during the anterior approach to the hip.

Question 74

A patient with a complex pelvic ring injury presents with profound weakness in hip adduction and an area of decreased sensation over the distal medial thigh. An injury to the obturator nerve is suspected. Which of the following adductor muscles will likely retain partial function due to dual innervation?





Explanation

The adductor magnus is dually innervated by both the obturator nerve and the tibial division of the sciatic nerve (hamstring portion). Therefore, it retains partial function even with a complete obturator nerve palsy.

Question 75

During a piriformis-sparing posterior approach to the hip, the surgeon visualizes an anatomic variant of the sciatic nerve. In approximately 10% of the population, a portion of the sciatic nerve pierces or passes superior to the piriformis. Which neural element is most commonly involved in this variant?





Explanation

Anatomic variations in the relationship between the sciatic nerve and piriformis muscle occur in up to 15% of people. The most common variant involves the common peroneal division piercing the piriformis muscle while the tibial division passes inferiorly.

Question 76

The ilioinguinal approach provides excellent exposure of the anterior column of the acetabulum. The exposure is traditionally divided into three distinct anatomical 'windows'. Which structures are primarily located and mobilized within the middle window?





Explanation

The middle window of the ilioinguinal approach is defined by the iliopectineal fascia laterally and the external iliac vessels medially. It requires careful mobilization and protection of the external iliac artery and vein to access the pelvic brim.

Question 77

A 24-year-old male sustains a vertical shear pelvic fracture following a fall from height. Which ligamentous complex provides the most significant resistance to vertical displacement of the hemipelvis?





Explanation

The posterior sacroiliac ligament complex, particularly the dense interosseous ligaments, is the strongest in the pelvis and provides the primary restraint against vertical shear forces. The sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments primarily resist rotational forces.

Question 78

A 16-year-old elite track athlete presents with acute, severe pain over the anterior pelvis after forcefully kicking a ball. Radiographs demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Which muscle is responsible for this avulsion?





Explanation

The direct head of the rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and is the muscle responsible for avulsion fractures at this site. In contrast, the sartorius originates at the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

Question 79

Following a technically challenging hip arthroscopy performed on a traction table, the patient reports severe perineal numbness and erectile dysfunction. This complication is most likely caused by direct compression of which nerve against the perineal post?





Explanation

Pudendal nerve neuropraxia is a well-documented complication of prolonged traction against a rigid perineal post during hip arthroscopy or fracture table positioning. It typically manifests as perineal numbness and transient sexual dysfunction.

Question 80

During a posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach to the hip for a posterior wall acetabular fracture, the short external rotators are sharply detached. The superior border of which muscle must be preserved intact to protect the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery?





Explanation

The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) courses anterior to the quadratus femoris. Protecting the superior border of the quadratus femoris or leaving a cuff of the obturator externus intact prevents iatrogenic injury to the femoral head's primary blood supply.

Question 81

Which ligament is considered the strongest ligament in the human body and acts as the primary restraint to hyperextension of the hip joint?





Explanation

The iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow) is the thickest and strongest ligament in the body. It spans from the AIIS to the intertrochanteric line, becoming taut in hip extension and acting as the primary restraint to hyperextension.

Question 82

To minimize tension on the sciatic nerve while placing retractors during a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for acetabular fracture fixation, the ipsilateral lower extremity should be placed in which of the following positions?





Explanation

The sciatic nerve courses posterior to the hip joint and posterior to the knee. Positioning the leg with the hip extended and the knee flexed introduces maximum slack into the nerve, thereby reducing the risk of iatrogenic traction injury during posterior retractor placement.

Question 83

During a surgical approach to the hip, understanding the vascular anatomy is critical to prevent avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following branches provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head?





Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via the lateral epiphyseal arteries. Injury to this vessel during posterior hip approaches significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 84

During a posterior approach to the hip, the short external rotators must be identified and tagged. Which of the following structures exits the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen?





Explanation

The obturator internus originates inside the pelvis and exits through the lesser sciatic foramen to insert on the greater trochanter. The piriformis, superior gluteal nerve, and inferior gluteal artery exit through the greater sciatic foramen.

Question 85

The ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum provides access to the anterior column. The 'middle window' of this approach is bounded by which of the following structures?





Explanation

The middle window of the ilioinguinal approach is located between the iliopectineal fascia (which overlies the iliopsoas and femoral nerve) laterally, and the external iliac vessels medially. It allows access to the pelvic brim and quadrilateral plate.

Question 86

During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach, the surgeon must be cautious of the 'corona mortis'. This vascular structure represents an anastomosis between which two systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac system (inferior epigastric artery/vein) and the internal iliac system (obturator artery/vein). It crosses the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk of iatrogenic injury during anterior pelvic approaches.

Question 87

When placing screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, the quadrant system is used to identify safe zones. Placement of a screw into the anterosuperior quadrant places which structure at highest risk of injury?





Explanation

The anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum overlies the external iliac artery and vein. Screw penetration in this quadrant can cause catastrophic vascular injury, making it a 'danger zone'.

Question 88

A direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is used for a hip arthroplasty. During the superficial dissection, which nerve is most at risk of iatrogenic injury?





Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve runs superficially across the sartorius or in the interval between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae. It is highly susceptible to stretching or transection during the direct anterior approach.

Question 89

To avoid denervation of the hip abductors during a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the proximal split of the gluteus medius should be limited to what maximum distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve traverses the gluteus medius approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Splitting the muscle proximal to this point risks denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and the tensor fasciae latae.

Question 90

A patient exhibits a positive Trendelenburg sign after sustaining a penetrating injury to the posterior pelvis. The injured nerve is responsible for innervating which of the following muscle groups?





Explanation

A positive Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the hip abductors, which are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.

Question 91

A patient with severe right hip osteoarthritis is advised to use a cane for ambulation. To most effectively reduce the joint reactive forces across the right hip, how should the cane be used?





Explanation

A cane should be held in the hand contralateral to the affected hip (left hand for right hip arthritis). This provides a counter-moment that significantly decreases the force required by the abductor muscles, thereby reducing the overall joint reactive force.

Question 92

The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a small and variable blood supply to the femoral head. It is typically a terminal branch of which of the following arteries?





Explanation

The artery of the ligamentum teres is a branch of the obturator artery. While it provides minimal blood supply to the adult femoral head, it is a more significant contributor in children.

Question 93

When performing a posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach to the acetabulum, what is the true internervous plane utilized?





Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach has no true internervous plane. It relies on a blunt muscle split of the gluteus maximus, which is entirely innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

Question 94

A 16-year-old sprinter presents with acute buttock pain after feeling a 'pop' while running. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the ischial tuberosity. Which of the following muscles originates at this anatomical site?





Explanation

The ischial tuberosity is the origin of the hamstring muscle complex, which includes the long head of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus. Sudden forceful contraction can cause avulsion of this apophysis in adolescents.

Question 95

During surgical exposure of the posterior pelvic ring, the pudendal nerve must be protected. What is the anatomic path of the pudendal nerve relative to the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments?





Explanation

The pudendal nerve exits the greater sciatic foramen, crosses posterior to the sacrospinous ligament, and enters the lesser sciatic foramen anterior to the sacrotuberous ligament. Thus, it passes between the two ligaments.

Question 96

During fracture fixation via the modified Stoppa approach, mobilization of the obturator neurovascular bundle is required to visualize the quadrilateral plate. Through which structure does this bundle exit the true pelvis?





Explanation

The obturator nerve and vessels exit the pelvis through the obturator canal, which is a small opening situated at the superolateral aspect of the obturator foramen.

Question 97

An adolescent soccer player sustains a pelvic avulsion fracture resulting from a forceful kick. Radiographs confirm an avulsion of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Which muscle is primarily responsible for this injury?





Explanation

The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is the origin of the sartorius muscle (and the tensor fasciae latae). Forceful contraction during activities like kicking can lead to an avulsion fracture of the ASIS.

Question 98

A 15-year-old athlete experiences sudden anterior groin pain while sprinting. Imaging demonstrates an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). This injury is caused by the sudden contraction of which muscle?





Explanation

The straight head of the rectus femoris originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Sudden, forceful hip flexion or knee extension can avulse the AIIS apophysis.

Question 99

During an anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip, which vascular structure crosses the surgical interval and typically requires ligation to achieve adequate deep exposure?





Explanation

The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery consistently crosses the interval between the tensor fasciae latae and the gluteus medius during the Watson-Jones approach and must be ligated for safe deep exposure.

Question 100

The hip joint capsule is reinforced by several strong ligaments. Which ligament is the strongest in the body and acts primarily to prevent hyperextension of the hip joint?





Explanation

The iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow) is the strongest ligament in the human body. It spans anteriorly over the hip joint capsule and tightly restricts hyperextension of the hip.

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