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Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 4

27 Apr 2026 109 min read 77 Views
Arab Ortho Board MCQs - Part 3

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Learn more about Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 4 and how to manage it. Practice Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs Part 4. Review orthopedic surgery questions 151 to 200 for your board exam preparation.

Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 4

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

During a total knee arthroplasty, after making the bone cuts and inserting trial components, the knee is found to be symmetrically tight in both full extension and 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

Symmetrical tightness in both flexion and extension indicates that the overall joint space is too small (both flexion and extension gaps are too tight). The most appropriate and simplest solution is to decrease the thickness of the tibial polyethylene insert or resect more tibial bone. Cutting additional distal femur would only address the extension gap.

Question 2

A 6-week-old female infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). At her 2-week follow-up, the mother notes that the infant has stopped kicking her right leg. Examination reveals decreased active knee extension, but active hip flexion is maintained. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

The infant has developed a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication of hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness. The diagnosis is clinical, marked by decreased active quadriceps function (lack of knee extension). The standard management is to temporarily discontinue the harness or significantly loosen the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion until nerve function returns, which typically resolves spontaneously.

Question 3

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?





Explanation

In the setting of critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion in a high-demand contact athlete, an arthroscopic soft-tissue Bankart repair alone has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure (transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoint tendon to the anterior glenoid), is the gold standard to restore stability.

Question 4

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate a permeative diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a laminated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Histology reveals sheets of small round blue cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this tumor?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is characterized histologically as a small round blue cell tumor and is associated with the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation in over 90% of cases, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 5

A 55-year-old Asian male presents with progressive hand clumsiness and broad-based gait. Cervical spine CT demonstrates continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6. The K-line, drawn from the mid-point of the spinal canal at C2 to C7 on a sagittal MR image, demonstrates that the OPLL mass lies posterior to the line (a 'K-line negative' cervical spine). Which surgical approach is most highly recommended?





Explanation

A 'K-line negative' cervical spine means the OPLL mass is large and local kyphosis is typically present, extending posterior to the line connecting the mid-canal of C2 and C7. In this scenario, posterior decompression procedures (laminectomy or laminoplasty) are insufficient because the spinal cord will not effectively 'drift back' away from the anterior compressive mass. Anterior decompression (corpectomy and fusion) is necessary to directly remove the pathology and restore canal diameter.

Question 6

When utilizing the Ponseti method for the correction of idiopathic clubfoot, which of the following represents the correct sequence of deformity correction?





Explanation

The Ponseti method corrects the components of clubfoot in a specific sequence, easily remembered by the acronym CAVE: Cavus, Adductus, Varus, and Equinus. The cavus is corrected first by elevating the first ray to align the forefoot with the hindfoot. Adductus and varus are then corrected simultaneously by abducting the foot around the talar head. Equinus is corrected last, frequently requiring a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy.

Question 7

A 28-year-old male sustains a closed, isolated mid-shaft humerus fracture after a fall. In the emergency department, he is noted to have a dense radial nerve palsy that was present immediately following the injury. Radiographs show a displaced Holstein-Lewis type fracture. What is the most appropriate initial management of the radial nerve palsy?





Explanation

Primary radial nerve palsy in the setting of a closed humeral shaft fracture (even a Holstein-Lewis distal third spiral fracture) is typically a neuropraxia. The standard of care is conservative management with a coaptation splint or fracture brace and clinical observation. Surgical exploration is indicated for open fractures, associated vascular injury, or if the palsy develops after closed reduction (secondary palsy).

Question 8

A 60-year-old patient with long-standing poorly controlled diabetes presents with a unilaterally red, hot, and swollen foot. There is no history of trauma or skin ulceration. Radiographs reveal extensive periarticular debris, bony fragmentation, and joint subluxation at the midfoot. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what stage of Charcot arthropathy does this represent?





Explanation

The Eichenholtz classification defines the stages of Charcot arthropathy based on clinical and radiographic findings. Stage I (Developmental/Fragmentation) is characterized by a red, hot, swollen foot with radiographs showing bone fragmentation, joint subluxation/dislocation, and debris. Stage II (Coalescence) shows absorption of debris and early fusion. Stage III (Consolidation) shows remodeling and stable ankylosis.

Question 9

Recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) signals primarily through serine/threonine kinase receptors. Which of the following intracellular signaling molecules is directly phosphorylated following rhBMP-2 receptor activation to initiate osteoblastic gene transcription?





Explanation

Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) belong to the TGF-beta superfamily. When rhBMP-2 binds to its dimeric serine/threonine kinase receptor, it triggers the intracellular phosphorylation of receptor-regulated Smads, specifically Smad 1, 5, and 8. These complex with Smad 4, translocate to the nucleus, and regulate the transcription of osteogenic genes like Runx2.

Question 10

A 45-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Two years postoperatively, he complains of an audible squeaking sound during hip flexion. Radiographic evaluation shows normal implant fixation. Which of the following component positions is most strongly associated with the development of squeaking in this bearing type?





Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is a well-documented complication. It is strongly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination (steep cup) and extremes of anteversion/retroversion. This malposition leads to stripe wear, edge loading, and loss of fluid-film lubrication, culminating in the audible squeak.

Question 11

Which of the following locations of a scaphoid fracture is associated with the highest rate of avascular necrosis and non-union, and what is the anatomic basis for this?





Explanation

The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the bone distally and flows in a retrograde fashion to the proximal pole. Therefore, fractures of the proximal pole disrupt this delicate retrograde flow, leading to the highest rates of avascular necrosis and non-union among all scaphoid fractures.

Question 12

A 25-year-old athlete undergoes a physical examination after a knee injury. The 'dial test' reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side when the knee is flexed to 30 degrees. However, when the knee is flexed to 90 degrees, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This examination pattern indicates an isolated injury to which of the following structures?





Explanation

The dial test assesses external rotation of the tibia. Increased external rotation (>10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If external rotation is increased at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined injury to both the PLC and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).

Question 13

A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motorcycle collision. Pelvic radiographs reveal symphyseal diastasis of 3.5 cm and widening of both the anterior and posterior aspects of the sacroiliac joint. Based on the Young-Burgess classification, what injury pattern is present and what is the primary source of life-threatening hemorrhage typically associated with this specific pattern?





Explanation

This is an APC Type III injury, characterized by complete disruption of the pubic symphysis, anterior SI ligaments, interosseous SI ligaments, and posterior SI ligaments (causing complete hemipelvis instability). APC injuries significantly increase pelvic volume and disrupt the pre-sacral venous plexus and anterior branches of the internal iliac artery (e.g., pudendal, obturator), which are the primary sources of massive hemorrhage in these open-book fractures.

Question 14

A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping that worsens with walking and improves when he pushes a shopping cart. He undergoes stationary bicycle testing. Which of the following findings would most specifically differentiate neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication during this test?





Explanation

In the stationary bicycle test (van Gelderen test), a patient with neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) can pedal for a prolonged period without pain if the spine is flexed, because flexion increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and foramina. In contrast, a patient with vascular claudication will experience ischemic muscle pain regardless of the spine's position.

Question 15

In the flexor tendon anatomy of the hand, the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon splits to allow the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon to pass through. This anatomic structural decussation is known as Camper's chiasm. In which flexor tendon zone is Camper's chiasm located?





Explanation

Camper's chiasm is the structural split in the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon that allows the deeper flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon to emerge superficially to insert on the distal phalanx. This structure is located within flexor tendon Zone II (No Man's Land), which extends from the A1 pulley to the insertion of the FDS.

Question 16

Denosumab is often utilized in the medical management of surgically unsalvageable or recurrent Giant Cell Tumors of Bone (GCTB). What is the specific mechanism of action of this medication?





Explanation

Giant Cell Tumor of Bone (GCTB) contains neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells that express high levels of RANK Ligand (RANKL). RANKL normally binds to RANK on osteoclast precursors, leading to massive osteoclast-like giant cell formation and bone destruction. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating RANK, thereby potently inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and stabilizing the tumor.

Question 17

Articular cartilage is a highly specialized tissue structured into four distinct zones. Which of the following best describes the orientation of Type II collagen fibers and the morphology of chondrocytes in the deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage?





Explanation

In the deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage, the Type II collagen fibers are oriented perpendicular to the articular surface. This arrangement provides maximal resistance to compressive forces. The chondrocytes in this zone are also distinctively arranged in vertical columns or palisades parallel to the collagen fibers. The superficial zone has parallel fibers and flattened cells; the middle zone has oblique/random fibers and spherical cells.

Question 18

A 13-year-old obese male presents with a 4-week history of right groin and thigh pain. Physical examination reveals obligatory external rotation of the right hip upon passive hip flexion. Radiographs confirm a stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE). If single-screw in situ fixation is planned, what is the ideal position of the screw within the epiphysis to minimize complications?





Explanation

The ideal starting point and trajectory for a single-screw in situ fixation of a SCFE is perpendicular to the physis, terminating in the 'center-center' position of the epiphysis. Screws placed in the anterosuperior quadrant risk cutout and joint penetration. Screws placed posterosuperiorly risk injury to the lateral epiphyseal vessels, leading to avascular necrosis.

Question 19

A 24-year-old football player sustains an axial load injury to a plantarflexed foot. Weight-bearing AP radiographs demonstrate a small bony avulsion fragment in the first intermetatarsal space (the 'fleck sign'). This radiographic finding represents an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament. What are the correct anatomic attachments of the intact Lisfranc ligament?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament essential for midfoot stability. It attaches from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. The 'fleck sign' represents a bony avulsion of this ligament and is pathognomonic for a Lisfranc injury. Notably, there is no direct ligamentous connection between the first and second metatarsal bases.

Question 20

A 35-year-old healthy female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture with a highly vertical fracture line (Pauwels Type III) after a high-energy fall. In selecting the optimal internal fixation construct for this specific fracture pattern to minimize the risk of varus collapse and non-union, biomechanical studies favor which of the following?





Explanation

Pauwels Type III femoral neck fractures possess a highly vertical fracture line (>50 degrees), subjecting them to extreme vertical shear forces. Biomechanical studies have consistently shown that a fixed-angle construct, such as a sliding hip screw (SHS), provides superior resistance to varus collapse and vertical shear compared to multiple parallel cannulated screws in this specific, high-angle fracture pattern. An adjunctive anti-rotation screw is often added above the SHS to control rotation during screw insertion and healing.

Question 21

A 62-year-old man with cervical myelopathy secondary to ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3-C6 is planned for surgery. Lateral radiographs demonstrate a C2-C7 lordosis of 5 degrees, and the OPLL mass exceeds the K-line (K-line negative). Which surgical option is strictly contraindicated?





Explanation

In K-line negative OPLL, the OPLL mass is large and kyphosis is often present or alignment is poor. Posterior decompression alone (laminoplasty) is contraindicated because it does not allow the spinal cord to drift backward sufficiently to clear the anterior compressive mass, leading to poor neurological recovery. An anterior decompression or a posterior decompression with instrumented fusion to correct alignment is required.

Question 22

A 15-year-old boy presents with a destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a large soft tissue mass. Biopsy shows uniform small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation. Which of the following fusion genes is responsible for the pathogenesis of this tumor?





Explanation

The patient has Ewing sarcoma, characterized by the t(11;22) translocation, which results in the EWSR1-FLI1 fusion gene. SYT-SSX1 is seen in synovial sarcoma (t(X;18)). PAX3-FOXO1 is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma (t(2;13)). EWS-ATF1 is seen in clear cell sarcoma (t(12;22)). COL1A1-PDGFB is seen in dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

Question 23

A 58-year-old woman presents with groin pain and a palpable mass 4 years after a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. A Metal Artifact Reduction Sequence (MARS) MRI shows a large cystic periarticular collection. Histologic analysis of the tissue during revision surgery would most likely demonstrate:





Explanation

Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR) or Aseptic Lymphocyte-Dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesions (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal hips is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Histology characteristically shows a perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, plasma cells, and tissue necrosis, unlike the predominantly macrophage-mediated response seen with polyethylene particulate wear.

Question 24

A 35-year-old manual laborer presents with progressive wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid arthritis and capitolunate arthritis. The radiolunate joint is spared. This corresponds to Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) Stage III. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?





Explanation

In SNAC Stage III, there is radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis, but the radiolunate joint is spared. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated because the capitate head (which articulates with the lunate fossa in PRC) is arthritic. Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion (capitate-hamate-lunate-triquetrum) is the procedure of choice, as it preserves the healthy radiolunate joint.

Question 25

A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm right foot without open ulcers. Radiographs show fragmentation, debris, and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the modified Eichenholtz classification, what is the current stage and the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The patient is in Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Developmental/Fragmentation), characterized by erythema, swelling, warmth, and radiographic evidence of bone debris, fragmentation, and subluxation. The mainstay of treatment in the acute fragmentation phase is immobilization and offloading, typically with a total contact cast (TCC), to prevent further deformity until the active inflammatory process subsides.

Question 26

A 24-year-old football player sustains a knee dislocation (Schenck KD-III) after a high-velocity tackle. On examination, the foot is cool with diminished dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. His Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is 0.7. What is the most appropriate next step in management after emergent closed reduction of the knee?





Explanation

An ABI < 0.9 or asymmetric pulses following a knee dislocation is a hard indication for advanced vascular imaging, most commonly CT angiography (CTA), or immediate surgical exploration to rule out a popliteal artery injury. A normal ABI (>0.9) can be observed with serial checks, but an abnormal ABI requires immediate further investigation or intervention.

Question 27

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with left hip pain and an obligatory external rotation of the thigh during hip flexion. He is diagnosed with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is a recognized strong absolute or relative indication for prophylactic pinning of the asymptomatic contralateral hip?





Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is controversial but is strongly indicated in patients with underlying endocrine or metabolic disorders (e.g., hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, growth hormone deficiency), as these patients have a much higher rate of bilateral involvement (approaching 100%). It is also considered in young patients (< 10 years old) or when follow-up is unreliable.

Question 28

A 42-year-old male sustains a severe closed bicondylar tibial plateau fracture (Schatzker VI). Initial management includes a spanning external fixator. During definitive fixation 10 days later via dual incisions, which surgical principle must be strictly adhered to minimize the risk of wound complications?





Explanation

When performing dual incisions for a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture (typically anterolateral and posteromedial), a minimum skin bridge of 7 to 9 cm must be maintained to preserve the blood supply to the intervening skin and reduce the risk of wound necrosis. Full-thickness fasciocutaneous flaps should be elevated without undermining the subcutaneous tissues.

Question 29

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria for Periprosthetic Joint Infection (PJI), which of the following findings alone represents a major criterion confirming the diagnosis of PJI in a total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

According to the ICM criteria, the two major criteria for PJI (either of which confirms the diagnosis alone) are: 1) A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis, or 2) Two positive periprosthetic cultures with phenotypically identical organisms. The other options are minor criteria that contribute to a scoring system.

Question 30

A 45-year-old man presents with a painful shoulder. Imaging reveals a large cartilaginous tumor in the proximal humerus with endosteal scalloping and soft tissue extension. Biopsy confirms a Grade II chondrosarcoma. Molecular testing is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following genes?





Explanation

Mutations in Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 or 2 (IDH1/IDH2) are highly prevalent (up to 50-60%) in central chondrosarcomas and enchondromas (as seen in Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome). EXT1/EXT2 mutations are associated with osteochondromas. GNAS mutations are seen in fibrous dysplasia. RB1 and TP53 are more commonly associated with osteosarcoma.

Question 31

A 68-year-old female presents with chronic severe right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate her arm past 40 degrees (pseudoparalysis). Radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis (Hamada Grade 4). What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?





Explanation

This patient has cuff tear arthropathy (CTA) with pseudoparalysis and severe glenohumeral arthritis. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard treatment, as it medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm and compensating for the absent rotator cuff. Anatomic TSA is contraindicated due to the deficient cuff, which would lead to eccentric loading and early glenoid loosening.

Question 32

A 40-year-old male undergoes electromyography (EMG) for suspected cubital tunnel syndrome. The nerve conduction study demonstrates a drop in the amplitude of the compound muscle action potential (CMAP) when stimulating the ulnar nerve at the elbow while recording from the abductor digiti minimi (ADM). However, the CMAP recorded from the first dorsal interosseous (FDI) is normal. This discrepancy is most likely explained by which anatomic variant?





Explanation

A Martin-Gruber anastomosis involves crossover fibers from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the forearm. These fibers often supply the FDI. Because the crossover occurs distal to the elbow, a compressive lesion at the elbow will not affect the median-to-ulnar fibers innervating the FDI, leading to sparing of the FDI CMAP, while the ADM (supplied strictly by the ulnar nerve) will show a deficit.

Question 33

A 65-year-old female presents with neurogenic claudication and L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She is scheduled for surgery. According to the SPORT trial data, comparing surgical versus non-operative treatment for degenerative spondylolisthesis, which of the following statements is true regarding long-term (4-year) outcomes?





Explanation

The Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) demonstrated that patients with symptomatic degenerative spondylolisthesis treated surgically (decompression and fusion) had significantly greater improvement in pain and function compared to those treated non-operatively, and this treatment effect was maintained at 4-year and 8-year follow-ups.

Question 34

A 30-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle crash. His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, HR 135 bpm. FAST exam is negative. Pelvic radiograph shows an AP Compression Type III (APC-III) pelvic ring injury. A pelvic binder is applied, but the patient remains hemodynamically unstable despite massive transfusion protocol initiation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a mechanically unstable pelvic ring injury and a negative FAST, bleeding is predominantly retroperitoneal (venous plexus or arterial). If a pelvic binder does not restore hemodynamic stability, immediate intervention to control hemorrhage is required. This is optimally achieved via Preperitoneal Pelvic Packing, Angioembolization, or REBOA as an adjunct.

Question 35

Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) play a crucial role in osteoinduction during fracture healing. Following the binding of BMPs to their serine/threonine kinase cell surface receptors, which family of intracellular signaling molecules is directly phosphorylated to translocate to the nucleus and regulate gene transcription?





Explanation

BMPs signal primarily through the canonical Smad pathway. Binding of BMP to its heterodimeric serine/threonine kinase receptor complex leads to the phosphorylation of receptor-regulated Smads (R-Smads, such as Smad1, 5, and 8), which then complex with the common-partner Smad (Smad4) and translocate to the nucleus to regulate transcription of osteogenic genes.

Question 36

A 50-year-old overweight woman complains of medial foot pain and an inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Examination shows a flexible flatfoot with forefoot abduction. Radiographs reveal unroofing of the talonavicular joint without arthritic changes. Which of the following surgical procedures is most commonly indicated for this Stage IIB adult-acquired flatfoot deformity?





Explanation

Stage IIB adult-acquired flatfoot deformity (posterior tibial tendon dysfunction) is a flexible deformity with forefoot abduction (>40% unroofing of the talonavicular joint). Optimal treatment involves FDL transfer (replacing PTT function) combined with bony corrections: a medializing calcaneal osteotomy (corrects hindfoot valgus) and a lateral column lengthening (corrects forefoot abduction).

Question 37

A 6-month-old female with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) has failed 6 weeks of treatment in a Pavlik harness, with the left hip remaining persistently dislocated on ultrasound. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

Prolonged use of a Pavlik harness in a persistently dislocated hip increases the risk of 'Pavlik harness disease' (posterior acetabular wear) and avascular necrosis. If a hip is not reduced within 3 to 4 weeks, the harness should be abandoned. The standard next step for a 6-month-old is an examination under anesthesia, arthrogram, and closed reduction with spica casting.

Question 38

A 28-year-old carpenter sustains a volar laceration to his index finger over the proximal phalanx, transecting both the FDS and FDP tendons (Zone II). He undergoes a primary 4-strand core suture repair with epitendinous running suture. Which of the following rehabilitation protocols has been shown to maximize tendon excursion while minimizing the risk of rupture and adhesions in the early postoperative period?





Explanation

Modern multi-strand core repairs provide sufficient tensile strength to allow for early active motion protocols. The 'place-and-hold' technique, utilizing a dorsal blocking splint, allows for differential glide of the FDS and FDP tendons. This significantly reduces adhesion formation while keeping the force across the repair below the rupture threshold.

Question 39

In posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty, the cam-and-post mechanism is designed to substitute for the resected posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Which of the following best describes the intended kinematic effect of cam-post engagement during deep flexion?





Explanation

In a PS TKA, the cam on the femoral component engages the post on the tibial polyethylene during knee flexion. This engagement drives the femur posteriorly on the tibia (posterior femoral rollback), preventing posterior impingement and increasing the moment arm of the extensor mechanism, which facilitates deep flexion.

Question 40

A 32-year-old female presents with a large, lytic, eccentrically located epiphyseal lesion in her distal femur. Biopsy reveals multinucleated giant cells in a background of mononuclear stromal cells. She is prescribed denosumab prior to surgical intervention to downstage the tumor. What is the precise mechanism of action of denosumab in treating this tumor?





Explanation

In Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone, neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells overexpress Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand (RANKL), which recruits and activates the reactive multinucleated giant cells via their RANK receptors. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds directly to RANKL, preventing its interaction with RANK, thereby inhibiting osteoclast-like giant cell formation and reducing osteolysis.

Question 41

A 2-year-old child presents with anterolateral bowing of the tibia and a pseudoarthrosis is identified on radiographs. Which of the following gene mutations is most strongly associated with this condition?





Explanation

Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia (CPT) is strongly associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Approximately 50% of patients with CPT have NF1. NF1 is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17q11.2, which encodes neurofibromin, a tumor suppressor protein that downregulates the Ras-MAPK pathway.

Question 42

A 30-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay in hemorrhagic shock following a motorcycle collision. Radiographs demonstrate an anteroposterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury. A circumferential pelvic binder is applied. To achieve the most effective reduction and mechanical stabilization, over which anatomic structure should the binder be centered?





Explanation

A pelvic binder or sheet must be centered over the greater trochanters to effectively close an open-book pelvic injury. Placement over the iliac crests or ASIS is less effective and can inadvertently cause paradoxical widening of the pelvic inlet or fail to close the posterior ring disruption adequately.

Question 43

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with arthritic changes present in the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints. The radiolunate joint is completely spared. Which of the following is the most appropriate motion-preserving surgical intervention?





Explanation

This patient has Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) Stage III, characterized by arthritis in the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints with a preserved radiolunate joint. Because the capitate head is arthritic, a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated (as it requires a pristine capitate head to articulate with the lunate fossa). Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis is the treatment of choice.

Question 44

A 25-year-old athlete sustains a multiligamentous knee injury (KD-III) following a high-energy tackling injury. The knee is reduced in the emergency department. The patient has palpable dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is measured at 0.85. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

In the setting of a knee dislocation, an Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of less than 0.9 is a strong indicator of a potential vascular injury (popliteal artery) even if pulses are palpable. An ABI < 0.9 mandates further advanced imaging, most commonly a CT angiogram, to rule out an intimal tear or other vascular compromise.

Question 45

A 55-year-old female with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain and swelling. A MARS MRI demonstrates a cystic soft tissue mass around the hip. A revision is performed, and histologic examination of the tissue reveals aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesions (ALVAL). This histological finding is primarily characterized by:





Explanation

ALVAL (Aseptic Lymphocyte-dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesion) is a delayed type IV hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (cobalt and chromium) seen in metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty or trunnionosis. Histologically, it is characterized by a perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, macrophage accumulation, and varying degrees of tissue necrosis.

Question 46

A 35-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Cervical spine imaging reveals a Levine-Edwards Type IIA traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). The fracture shows severe angulation with minimal translation. Which of the following treatments is absolutely contraindicated in the management of this specific fracture pattern?





Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is caused by flexion-distraction forces, resulting in an oblique fracture through the pars interarticularis with severe angulation and minimal translation. Because the anterior longitudinal ligament and disc are disrupted, axial cervical traction is contraindicated as it will cause over-distraction and potential neurological injury. Reduction is achieved with gentle extension and compression, followed by Halo vest immobilization.

Question 47

A 55-year-old male with long-standing poorly controlled diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm left foot. He denies trauma. Radiographs of the foot show osteopenia and soft tissue swelling but no evidence of fracture, subluxation, or debris. MRI demonstrates bone marrow edema in the midfoot. What is the Eichenholtz stage of this patient's Charcot arthropathy?





Explanation

Eichenholtz Stage 0 (prodromal or inflammatory stage) presents with erythema, warmth, and swelling. Plain radiographs are normal or show only osteopenia, while MRI shows bone marrow edema. Stage 1 (developmental) shows fragmentation and subluxation. Stage 2 (coalescence) shows early healing and absorption of fine debris. Stage 3 (consolidation) shows remodeling and stable deformity.

Question 48

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a destructive diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a 'lamellated' or 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy shows uniform small round blue cells. The most likely genetic translocation associated with this tumor results in a fusion gene that acts as an aberrant transcription factor. Which translocation is diagnostic?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing Sarcoma. The hallmark genetic mutation is a balanced reciprocal translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), creating the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein, which is found in about 85% of cases. t(X;18) is Synovial Sarcoma; t(12;16) is Myxoid Liposarcoma; t(2;13) is Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 49

In the study of orthopaedic biomechanics, viscoelastic materials such as ligaments and tendons display time-dependent behaviors. When a ligament is subjected to a constant, sustained load over a period of time, it will undergo progressive elongation. This phenomenon is known as:





Explanation

Creep is the time-dependent progressive deformation (elongation) of a viscoelastic material under a constant applied load. Stress relaxation is the decrease in stress over time when the material is held at a constant length/strain. Hysteresis is the energy lost (as heat) during the loading and unloading cycle.

Question 50

A 13-year-old obese male underwent in situ single-screw fixation for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Six months postoperatively, he complains of severe hip stiffness and pain. Examination reveals a rigid hip with severe loss of motion in all planes. Radiographs show a concentric joint space narrowing of the affected hip to less than 3 mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Chondrolysis is an acute dissolution of articular cartilage characterized by concentric joint space narrowing (typically < 3 mm) and severe global stiffness. It is a known complication of SCFE, particularly associated with unrecognized pin penetration into the joint space, severe slips, or prolonged immobilization.

Question 51

A 28-year-old man sustains a Pauwels type III fracture of the femoral neck. Based on the biomechanics of this fracture pattern, which of the following describes the primary deforming force acting at the fracture site?





Explanation

A Pauwels type III femoral neck fracture is characterized by a high fracture angle (typically > 50-70 degrees from the horizontal). Biomechanically, this highly vertical orientation converts the forces of weight-bearing into tremendous vertical shear forces across the fracture site, predisposing the fracture to varus collapse and nonunion.

Question 52

A 32-year-old mechanic presents with an infected index finger after a puncture wound. You suspect pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis?





Explanation

Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) Flexed resting posture of the digit, 2) Fusiform swelling of the digit, 3) Tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) Pain with passive extension of the digit (often the earliest and most sensitive sign). Pain with active flexion is not considered one of the specific cardinal signs.

Question 53

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes surgical stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Intraoperatively, he is noted to have an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss. The surgeon decides to perform an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a remplissage. Which structure(s) is/are tenodesed into the humeral head defect during a remplissage?





Explanation

The remplissage (French for 'filling') procedure is used to treat engaging or 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesions. It involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and the underlying posterior capsule into the bony defect on the posterolateral humeral head. This prevents the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation.

Question 54

In the design of a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the tibial polyethylene insert features a central post that interacts with a cam on the femoral component. What is the primary biomechanical purpose of the cam-and-post mechanism during deep knee flexion?





Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is resected. The central cam on the femoral component engages the tibial post during flexion (usually around 70 degrees) to substitute for the PCL. This engagement mechanically drives the femur posteriorly on the tibia (enforcing posterior femoral rollback), which improves maximal knee flexion and prevents posterior subluxation of the tibia.

Question 55

During the neurological examination of a 60-year-old patient with suspected cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the examiner supports the patient's hand and forcefully flicks the distal phalanx of the middle finger into flexion. The patient exhibits a sudden reflexive flexion of the thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?





Explanation

Hoffmann's sign is an indicator of upper motor neuron (UMN) dysfunction, often seen in cervical myelopathy. It is elicited by flicking the nail of the middle finger downward; a positive response is the reflexive flexion of the thumb and/or index finger. Lhermitte's sign is electrical shock-like sensations down the spine with neck flexion. Wartenberg's sign is the involuntary abduction of the small finger.

Question 56

The Lisfranc joint complex is crucial for midfoot stability. The Lisfranc ligament itself is the strongest stabilizing structure in this region. Between which two osseous structures does the primary intra-articular component of the Lisfranc ligament course?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is a critical stabilizer of the midfoot because there is no transverse ligament connecting the bases of the first and second metatarsals.

Question 57

A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with an aggressive giant cell tumor (GCT) of the distal radius. Due to the size and proximity to the joint, she is treated with neoadjuvant denosumab prior to surgical curettage. What is the specific mechanism of action of denosumab in the treatment of GCT of bone?





Explanation

Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds directly to RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand). In Giant Cell Tumor of bone, the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells express high levels of RANKL, which recruits and activates the reactive multinucleated giant cells (osteoclast-like cells) responsible for bone destruction. By inhibiting RANKL, denosumab stops the formation and activity of these destructive giant cells.

Question 58

Articular cartilage is composed of multiple zones, each with unique ultrastructural properties that provide mechanical resilience. Which zone is characterized by having the largest diameter collagen fibrils oriented perpendicular to the articular surface, as well as the highest concentration of proteoglycans?





Explanation

The deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage is responsible for resisting compressive forces. It contains the highest concentration of proteoglycans and the lowest water content. The collagen fibrils here are the largest in diameter and are oriented strictly perpendicular to the articular surface to anchor the cartilage to the underlying calcified zone.

Question 59

A 6-week-old female infant is being treated for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) with a Pavlik harness. At a follow-up visit, the mother notes the baby is no longer kicking her right leg. On examination, the infant exhibits absent active knee extension on the right side. Which nerve is most likely compressed due to improper positioning in the harness?





Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of Pavlik harness treatment, usually caused by excessive hyperflexion of the hips. It presents clinically with absent active knee extension (decreased kicking). The treatment is to temporarily discontinue or loosen the harness to allow the hip to rest in less flexion until the nerve recovers.

Question 60

A 25-year-old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture. Twelve hours later, he complains of severe, unrelenting leg pain exacerbated by passive stretch of his toes. Compartment syndrome is suspected, and pressures are measured using a slit catheter. Which of the following pressure criteria (delta pressure) is universally considered the threshold indicating an absolute need for emergency fasciotomy?





Explanation

The diagnosis of acute compartment syndrome is primarily clinical, but when pressure measurements are used, the 'delta pressure' is the most reliable metric. Delta P is calculated as the Diastolic Blood Pressure minus the Compartment Pressure. A delta pressure of < 30 mmHg indicates inadequate tissue perfusion and is the standard threshold for surgical fasciotomy.

Question 61

In the pathogenesis of acute Charcot neuroarthropathy, pro-inflammatory cytokines play a critical role in increasing the expression of which of the following, leading to amplified osteoclastogenesis?





Explanation

In acute Charcot neuroarthropathy, the inflammatory cascade leads to an over-expression of RANKL relative to OPG. This imbalance drives unchecked osteoclastic bone resorption, resulting in the classic osteopenia and bone fragmentation seen in the acute phase.

Question 62

A 40-year-old male sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) following a motor vehicle collision. Radiographs show severe angulation with minimal translation. Flexion imaging demonstrates an increase in angulation, while extension reduces it. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, what is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

This is a Levine-Edwards Type IIa fracture (severe angulation, minimal translation, hinges into worse deformity with flexion). It occurs via a flexion-distraction mechanism. Traction is strongly contraindicated as it exacerbates the distraction and deformity. Treatment consists of gentle reduction using compression and slight extension, followed by halo vest immobilization.

Question 63

Which of the following factors is the most critical determinant of the initial tensile strength of a flexor tendon repair in Zone II?





Explanation

The number of core suture strands crossing the repair site is directly proportional to the initial tensile strength of a flexor tendon repair. While epitendinous sutures and locking configurations add strength, increasing from a 2-strand to a 4-strand or 6-strand repair provides the most significant increase in tensile strength, allowing for early active motion protocols.

Question 64

Denosumab is highly effective in the management of unresectable Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone. What is the specific cellular target of this monoclonal antibody?





Explanation

Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating RANK on the surface of osteoclasts and their precursors. In GCT, the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells express RANKL, which recruits and activates the reactive multinucleated giant cells responsible for aggressive bone resorption.

Question 65

In a patient presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), which of the following is considered the strongest indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral asymptomatic hip?





Explanation

Patients with endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, panhypopituitarism, or renal osteodystrophy) or those undergoing prior radiation have a significantly higher risk of developing bilateral SCFE (up to 100% in some series). Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in these atypical presentations.

Question 66

When comparing a 10-mm Bone-Patellar Tendon-Bone (BTB) autograft to a quadrupled hamstring autograft for Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) reconstruction, which of the following statements regarding initial graft biomechanics is true?





Explanation

A quadrupled hamstring autograft has an initial ultimate tensile strength of approximately 4000-4100 N and higher stiffness (~800 N/mm) compared to a 10-mm BTB graft, which has a tensile strength of roughly 2900 N and stiffness of ~620 N/mm. Both grafts are initially stronger and stiffer than the native ACL (strength ~2100 N, stiffness ~242 N/mm).

Question 67

A 35-year-old male sustains a closed pelvic ring injury. Examination reveals a large, fluctuant swelling over the greater trochanteric region with overlying skin bruising. Aspiration yields serosanguinous fluid. What is the precise anatomic location of this fluid collection in a Morel-Lavallee lesion?





Explanation

A Morel-Lavallee lesion is a post-traumatic closed degloving injury where the subcutaneous tissue is sheared off and separated from the underlying deep (muscular) fascia. This creates a potential space that rapidly fills with blood, lymph, and necrotic fat.

Question 68

Which of the following bone graft substitutes possesses osteoinductive properties but lacks both osteogenic and osteoconductive properties when used alone in its standard powder form?





Explanation

Demineralized Bone Matrix (DBM) is acid-extracted allograft bone that retains bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), giving it osteoinductive properties. However, the demineralization process removes its structural integrity (lacking osteoconduction), and it contains no live cells (lacking osteogenesis).

Question 69

A 55-year-old female presents with an audible 'squeaking' sound coming from her hip 3 years after a Total Hip Arthroplasty. Radiographs show a well-fixed, ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Which of the following component position factors is most strongly associated with the development of this phenomenon?





Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading of the bearing surfaces. Edge loading is most frequently caused by acetabular component malposition, particularly excessive inclination (abduction) or version abnormalities, leading to loss of fluid film lubrication and stripe wear on the ceramic.

Question 70

During the extended deltopectoral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, the axillary nerve must be protected during plate placement. What is the typical average distance of the axillary nerve from the tip of the greater tuberosity?





Explanation

The axillary nerve courses laterally around the surgical neck of the humerus. Its average distance from the tip of the greater tuberosity is approximately 5 to 7 cm. Placing retractors or plates blindly below this level poses a significant risk of iatrogenic nerve injury.

Question 71

A 32-year-old male manual laborer presents with chronic dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis and severe fragmentation of the lunate, with proximal migration of the capitate and a radioscaphoid angle of 65 degrees. He is noted to have ulnar minus variance. Which Lichtman stage of Kienbock's disease does this represent?





Explanation

Lichtman Stage IIIB Kienbock's disease is characterized by lunate fragmentation/collapse combined with fixed rotation of the scaphoid (radioscaphoid angle > 60 degrees) and proximal migration of the capitate (carpal height collapse). Stage IIIA has lunate collapse but maintains normal carpal alignment. Stage IV involves secondary radiocarpal or midcarpal osteoarthritis.

Question 72

Which of the following factors is the strongest independent predictor of non-union in the conservative management of a Type II odontoid fracture?





Explanation

Risk factors for non-union in Type II odontoid fractures include initial displacement > 5 mm, posterior displacement, age > 50 years, and a fracture gap > 1 mm. A displacement greater than 5 mm is one of the strongest independent predictors of failure with conservative care, often prompting early surgical intervention.

Question 73

In the Ponseti method for the treatment of idiopathic clubfoot, sequential correction of the deformity components must be strictly followed to avoid creating a 'rocker-bottom' deformity. What is the correct sequence of deformity correction?





Explanation

The mnemonic CAVE describes the correct sequence of correction in the Ponseti method: Cavus (by supinating the forefoot to align it with the hindfoot), Adduction, Varus, and finally Equinus (often requiring a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy). Premature correction of equinus leads to a rocker-bottom foot.

Question 74

A 40-year-old male undergoes a percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Post-operatively, he complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of his heel and foot. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is its anatomic relationship to the Achilles tendon at the level of the repair?





Explanation

The sural nerve is at high risk during percutaneous Achilles tendon repairs. It typically descends near the midline of the proximal calf and courses laterally, crossing the lateral border of the Achilles tendon from medial to lateral approximately 9.8 cm (roughly 10 cm) proximal to the calcaneal insertion.

Question 75

A 14-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the femur with an associated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A biopsy confirms Ewing sarcoma. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this diagnosis?





Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation in approximately 85% of cases, which fuses the EWS gene to the FLI1 transcription factor gene. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome (CML). t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 76

During a posterior-stabilized Total Knee Arthroplasty, trial reduction reveals that the knee is well-balanced in full extension but is excessively tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative option to exclusively address this imbalance?





Explanation

When the flexion gap is tight but the extension gap is balanced, the surgeon must increase the flexion gap independently. Downsizing the femoral component (which decreases the anteroposterior dimension of the femur) increases the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Using a thinner insert would create instability in extension.

Question 77

A 19-year-old female collegiate swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of 'slipping' during her freestyle stroke. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign bilaterally, positive apprehension and relocation tests, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the primary focus of the initial non-operative rehabilitation program?





Explanation

The patient has Multidirectional Instability (MDI) of the shoulder, often seen in overhead athletes with generalized laxity. The cornerstone of initial management is a prolonged physical therapy program focusing on strengthening the dynamic stabilizers of the shoulder, specifically the rotator cuff and periscapular muscles, to compensate for the static capsular laxity.

Question 78

Articular cartilage is divided into distinct zones, each with a unique structure and function. Which structure delineates the boundary between the deep (radial) zone and the calcified cartilage zone, and plays a biomechanical role in resisting shear stresses?





Explanation

The tidemark is a basophilic line visible on histologic sections that demarcates the deep (radial) zone of uncalcified articular cartilage from the underlying calcified cartilage. It provides a structural transition that helps distribute shear stresses. The cement line separates the calcified cartilage from the subchondral bone.

Question 79

A 30-year-old male presents with a complex intra-articular distal femur fracture. Axial CT imaging demonstrates an isolated coronal plane fracture of the lateral femoral condyle. What is the appropriate eponymous name for this specific fracture pattern?





Explanation

A Hoffa fracture is a coronal plane fracture of the distal femoral condyle, most commonly involving the lateral condyle. It is intrinsically unstable due to shear forces and typically requires operative fixation with lag screws oriented anterior-to-posterior (or posterior-to-anterior).

Question 80

A 4-month-old infant with Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) has been treated with a Pavlik harness for 4 weeks. Ultrasound reveals a persistently dislocated left hip. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

If a dislocated hip fails to reduce after 3 to 4 weeks of proper Pavlik harness treatment, the harness must be discontinued to prevent complications such as 'Pavlik harness disease' (erosion of the posterior acetabular wall). The next standard step is closed reduction and application of a hip spica cast under general anesthesia, usually with an arthrogram.

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