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Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 17

27 Apr 2026 29 min read 75 Views
Arab Ortho Board MCQs - Part 16

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Learn more about Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 17 and how to manage it. Practice Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs Part 17. Review orthopedic surgery questions 801 to 850 for your board exam preparation.

Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 17

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 12-year-old obese boy presents with acute right groin pain and an inability to bear weight on his right leg, even with crutches. Radiographs confirm a severe Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE). According to the Loder classification, what is the primary determinant of this patient's high risk for avascular necrosis (AVN)?





Explanation

The Loder classification defines SCFE as 'stable' or 'unstable' strictly based on the patient's ability to bear weight (ambulate) with or without crutches. Unstable slips (inability to bear weight) carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (up to 47%) compared to stable slips.

Question 2

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, using a measured resection technique, the surgeon assesses the gaps with trial components. The knee is symmetric and perfectly balanced in extension, but it is symmetrically tight in flexion. What is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee without altering the extension gap?





Explanation

If the extension gap is perfectly balanced but the flexion gap is tight, the surgeon must increase the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. In anterior referencing systems, downsizing the femoral component reduces the posterior femoral condylar offset, thereby opening the flexion gap without changing the distal femoral cut (which controls the extension gap).

Question 3

A 35-year-old male is brought to the ED after a high-speed motorcycle crash. His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg. Pelvic radiographs reveal an anteroposterior compression (APC) Type III pelvic ring injury with complete disruption of the symphysis and bilateral sacroiliac joints. A massive transfusion protocol is initiated. What is the most appropriate immediate orthopedic intervention?





Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an open-book pelvic fracture, the immediate step is to mechanically reduce pelvic volume to tamponade venous bleeding. A pelvic binder or sheet must be applied accurately over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring. Placement over the iliac crests is incorrect and can exacerbate the deformity.

Question 4

In the microstructure of normal hyaline articular cartilage, which zone possesses the highest concentration of proteoglycans, the lowest concentration of water, and collagen fibrils that are oriented strictly perpendicular to the articular surface?





Explanation

The deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage contains the highest concentration of proteoglycans and the lowest water content. Its collagen fibers run perpendicular to the joint surface, providing significant resistance to compressive forces.

Question 5

A 15-year-old boy presents with distal femur pain. Imaging reveals a destructive metaphyseal lesion with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction and a Codman's triangle. Core needle biopsy confirms high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma. Which of the following genetic mutations or translocations is most strongly associated with the pathogenesis of this tumor?





Explanation

Osteosarcoma is strongly associated with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, notably RB1 (associated with hereditary retinoblastoma) and TP53 (associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome). t(11;22) is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma, t(X;18) of synovial sarcoma, EXT1 of hereditary multiple exostoses, and t(12;16) of myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 6

A 25-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger after grabbing an opponent's jersey. Radiographs reveal a bony avulsion fragment localized at the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. According to the Leddy and Packer classification, what type of injury is this, and what is the typical status of the vincula?





Explanation

This is a Leddy and Packer Type II 'Jersey finger' injury, where the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) tendon retracts to the level of the PIP joint. In Type II injuries, the vincula longus is typically intact, which preserves some blood supply and prevents the tendon from retracting into the palm (as seen in Type I injuries, where vincula are ruptured).

Question 7

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, a surgical error results in the femoral tunnel being placed too anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch. What specific kinematic abnormality will this graft exhibit during knee range of motion?





Explanation

An anteriorly placed (shallow) femoral tunnel causes the distance between the femoral and tibial insertion sites to increase as the knee moves into flexion. Consequently, the graft captures the joint, becoming overly tight in flexion (limiting ROM) and remaining loose in extension.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male is involved in a severe motor vehicle collision. Cervical spine CT demonstrates a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) with severe anterior angulation and 6 mm of translation of C2 on C3. There is an associated unilateral C2-C3 facet dislocation. According to the Levine-Edwards classification, what is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

This describes a Levine-Edwards Type III Hangman's fracture, characterized by bilateral pars fractures combined with a unilateral or bilateral C2-C3 facet dislocation. Axial traction is strictly contraindicated as it can cause over-distraction and severe neurologic injury. The definitive treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation.

Question 9

A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a warm, swollen, and erythematous right foot without an open ulcer. Radiographs demonstrate significant midfoot joint effusion, bone fragmentation, subluxation, and periarticular debris. According to the Eichenholtz classification of Charcot arthropathy, what stage does this represent, and what is the primary treatment?





Explanation

Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Fragmentation/Developmental phase) is characterized by acute inflammation, bone fragmentation, joint subluxation, and debris formation. The gold standard of treatment during this acute phase is strict immobilization and offloading, typically achieved via a total contact cast, until the inflammation resolves and the bone begins to consolidate (Stage 2).

Question 10

A 6-week-old female infant undergoes a screening ultrasound for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The standard coronal view yields an alpha angle of 35 degrees and a beta angle of 85 degrees. According to the Graf classification, what is the diagnosis and the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

An alpha angle of < 43 degrees with a beta angle > 77 degrees correlates with a Graf Type III hip, which represents a decentered (subluxated) hip with a measurable cartilage roof. The appropriate initial management for a subluxated hip in an infant under 6 months of age is reduction and stabilization utilizing a Pavlik harness.

Question 11

A 60-year-old female underwent volar locking plate fixation for a comminuted distal radius fracture. Eight months postoperatively, she returns complaining of a sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following technical errors during the index surgery is the most likely culprit?





Explanation

Rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is a well-documented complication of volar plating of the distal radius. It occurs due to mechanical attrition and fraying of the tendon against the prominent distal edge of a plate that has been improperly positioned distal to the watershed line of the radius.

Question 12

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with severe radicular lower back pain, bilateral lower extremity paresthesias, and saddle anesthesia. An urgent MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 central disc extrusion. A bladder scan is performed to assess for neurogenic urinary retention. What is the widely accepted minimum post-void residual (PVR) volume that is highly suggestive of Cauda Equina Syndrome in this clinical context?





Explanation

In the evaluation of suspected Cauda Equina Syndrome, urinary retention is a hallmark sign. A post-void residual (PVR) volume greater than 100-200 mL is abnormal; however, > 200 mL is the universally recognized threshold that is highly suggestive of neurogenic bladder dysfunction necessitating emergent surgical decompression.

Question 13

A 55-year-old male who underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface two years ago now complains of a loud, high-pitched 'squeaking' sound during walking. He denies pain. Which of the following component alignment issues is most consistently implicated in the etiology of this phenomenon?





Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasties is a result of edge loading, which disrupts the fluid film lubrication and causes stripe wear on the ceramic head. Edge loading is predominantly driven by acetabular component malposition, specifically excessive inclination (abduction angle > 50 degrees) or excessive anteversion.

Question 14

According to Perren's strain theory, successful fracture healing depends on the deformation limits of different tissues within the fracture gap. What is the maximum interfragmentary strain threshold that permits the formation of lamellar bone (primary bone healing)?





Explanation

Perren's strain theory dictates that tissue can only form in a fracture gap if the strain does not exceed the elongation tolerance of that specific tissue. Lamellar bone requires an ultra-low strain environment of less than 2% to form. Cartilage can tolerate up to 10% strain (allowing secondary healing), and granulation tissue tolerates up to 100% strain.

Question 15

A 30-year-old laborer is diagnosed with a Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) wrist following an unrecognized scaphoid fracture five years prior. As the degenerative cascade of SNAC progresses through its predictable stages, which of the following joints is characteristically the LAST to develop arthritic changes?





Explanation

In both SLAC and SNAC wrist deformities, the radiolunate joint is characteristically spared from degenerative changes until the absolute end stages of the disease. This is because the lunate is concentrically congruent within the spherical lunate fossa of the radius, preserving normal load distribution and protecting the cartilage.

Question 16

A 24-year-old gymnast sustains a hyper-plantarflexion midfoot injury. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal widening of the interval between the first and second metatarsal bases, alongside a small bony 'Fleck sign'. The critical Lisfranc ligament, which is disrupted in this injury, connects which two specific osseous structures?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong, stout intra-articular ligament that obliquely connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is the primary stabilizer of the second tarsometatarsal joint. Avulsion of this ligament produces the pathognomonic 'Fleck sign'.

Question 17

A 7-year-old boy presents with a painless limp and is diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease in the fragmentation stage. Radiographs reveal that exactly 60% of the lateral pillar of the femoral head maintains its normal radiolucent height. According to the Herring Lateral Pillar Classification, what group is this hip, and what is its prognosis without intervention?





Explanation

Herring's Lateral Pillar Classification assesses the height of the lateral aspect of the femoral head. Group A has >100% (no involvement), Group B maintains >50% of lateral pillar height, and Group C maintains <50%. With 60% preserved, this is Group B. Patients in Group B who are under 8 years of age at the onset of the disease generally have a good prognosis and often do well with conservative management.

Question 18

A 30-year-old male sustains a severely comminuted closed fracture of the tibial shaft. He complains of excruciating leg pain that is unresponsive to IV opioids. His blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Intracompartmental pressure monitoring is performed. Which of the following measured values represents the most universally accepted absolute threshold indicating the need for emergent four-compartment fasciotomy?





Explanation

Acute compartment syndrome is primarily a clinical diagnosis, but when objective pressure measurements are required, the Delta pressure (calculated as the Diastolic Blood Pressure minus the Intracompartmental Pressure) is the most reliable parameter. A Delta pressure of less than 30 mmHg signifies a critical loss of tissue perfusion gradient and is an absolute indication for immediate fasciotomy.

Question 19

A 65-year-old female with known breast cancer presents with functional, weight-bearing thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate a purely lytic lesion in the peritrochanteric region of the proximal femur. The lesion spans 50% (1/3 to 2/3) of the cortical diameter. Using Mirels' criteria for impending pathologic fractures, what is her calculated score and the associated clinical recommendation?





Explanation

Mirels' scoring system evaluates 4 variables (Site, Pain, Lesion, Size), scoring each from 1 to 3. Site: Peritrochanteric = 3. Pain: Functional (aggravated by weight-bearing) = 3. Lesion type: Lytic = 3. Size: 1/3 to 2/3 of cortex = 2. Total score = 3 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 11. A Mirels score of 9 or greater carries a high risk of fracture (>33%), and prophylactic internal fixation is highly recommended.

Question 20

A 75-year-old male presents with severe neck pain following a low-energy ground-level fall. Cervical CT demonstrates a displaced Anderson and D'Alonzo Type II odontoid fracture. What distinct anatomical feature of the dens makes this specific fracture pattern highly prone to nonunion, particularly in the elderly population?





Explanation

An Anderson and D'Alonzo Type II fracture occurs at the junction of the dens and the body of the axis (the base of the dens). The primary blood supply to the dens is retrograde, supplied by the anterior and posterior ascending arteries (branches of the vertebral arteries) that enter precisely at its base. A fracture at this level disrupts this vascular watershed, causing a high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion, especially in older adults.

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