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Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 19

27 Apr 2026 25 min read 81 Views
Arab Ortho Board MCQs - Part 18

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For anyone wondering about Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 19, Practice Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs Part 19. Review orthopedic surgery questions 901 to 950 for your board exam preparation.

Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 19

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with bilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). On examination, her height and weight are both below the 5th percentile for her age. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology and the most appropriate screening test?





Explanation

SCFE occurring in a child under 10 years of age or presenting bilaterally is highly suspicious for an underlying endocrine or metabolic disorder. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with SCFE, often presenting with short stature, delayed bone age, and weight gain, though generalized growth restriction can occur. Screening with TSH and Free T4 is the most appropriate initial step.

Question 2

A 25-year-old man sustains a severe pelvic crush injury resulting in a U-shaped sacral fracture (spinopelvic dissociation). Which of the following neurological deficits is most characteristic of this specific injury pattern?





Explanation

A U-shaped sacral fracture is a complex Denis Zone III injury resulting in spinopelvic dissociation. Because the fracture lines cross the central sacral canal transversely, there is a very high incidence of damage to the lower sacral nerve roots (S2-S4), classically resulting in sphincter dysfunction (bowel/bladder incontinence) and saddle anesthesia.

Question 3

A trauma surgeon decides to ream a tibial shaft and change the planned solid intramedullary nail from a 10 mm diameter to a 12 mm diameter. By approximately what factor does this change increase the torsional rigidity of the implant?





Explanation

The torsional rigidity of a solid cylinder is proportional to the radius (or diameter) raised to the fourth power (r^4). Therefore, increasing the diameter from 10 mm to 12 mm increases the rigidity by a factor of (12/10)^4 = 1.2^4 = 2.0736, which is approximately 2.1.

Question 4

During the trialing phase of a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the knee is found to be symmetrically tight in flexion but well-balanced and stable in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next surgical step to balance the knee?





Explanation

If the knee is tight in flexion but balanced in extension, the flexion gap needs to be increased without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component achieves this by reducing the anteroposterior dimension of the femur (translating the posterior condyles anteriorly) without changing the distal femoral cut, thereby opening the flexion gap.

Question 5

While soft tissue sarcomas generally metastasize hematogenously to the lungs, certain subtypes have a higher propensity for lymphatic spread to regional lymph nodes. Which of the following soft tissue sarcomas is most likely to exhibit lymphatic metastasis?





Explanation

Soft tissue sarcomas that commonly metastasize to lymph nodes can be remembered by the mnemonic RSECA: Rhabdomyosarcoma, Synovial sarcoma, Epithelioid sarcoma, Clear cell sarcoma, and Angiosarcoma. Synovial sarcoma has a well-documented propensity for lymphatic spread compared to other adult soft tissue sarcomas.

Question 6

A 55-year-old man presents with bilateral hand clumsiness and a broad-based gait. On physical examination, tapping the distal brachioradialis tendon produces a diminished brachioradialis reflex but a brisk reflexive flexion of the fingers. This specific clinical sign indicates spinal cord and nerve root compression most likely at which of the following levels?





Explanation

The finding described is the 'inverted supinator reflex'. It is a localizing sign of cervical myelopathy indicating compression at the C5-C6 level. The lesion causes a lower motor neuron deficit at C5/C6 (absent brachioradialis reflex) and an upper motor neuron deficit below this level, leading to hyperreflexia of the C8-innervated finger flexors.

Question 7

During physical examination of a knee with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury, the pivot-shift test is performed. This test primarily isolates and evaluates which specific structural component of the ACL?





Explanation

The ACL has two main bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and the posterolateral (PL). The AM bundle tightens in flexion and provides the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation (tested by the Lachman and anterior drawer tests). The PL bundle tightens in extension and provides the primary restraint to rotatory instability, which is clinically evaluated using the pivot-shift test.

Question 8

The monoclonal antibody Romosozumab is utilized in the treatment of severe osteoporosis. Its primary mechanism of action in increasing bone mineral density is by binding to and inhibiting which of the following molecules?





Explanation

Romosozumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits sclerostin. Sclerostin is normally produced by osteocytes and inhibits the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway in osteoblasts, thus decreasing bone formation. By inhibiting sclerostin, Romosozumab has a dual effect: it significantly increases bone formation and mildly decreases bone resorption.

Question 9

A 42-year-old carpenter presents with a 3-month history of aching pain in his proximal volar forearm and numbness involving the palmar aspect of his thumb, index, and middle fingers, as well as the thenar eminence. He has weakness in thumb opposition. A Tinel's sign is positive over the proximal anterior forearm but negative at the wrist. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The patient has Pronator syndrome, which is compression of the median nerve in the proximal forearm (most commonly between the two heads of the pronator teres). It is differentiated from carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) by the presence of sensory loss over the thenar eminence (supplied by the palmar cutaneous branch, which branches proximal to the carpal tunnel) and an aching pain in the proximal forearm with a positive proximal Tinel's sign.

Question 10

The main blood supply to the adult femoral head is provided by the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). Prior to perforating the joint capsule, this vessel courses superiorly between which two anatomic structures?





Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is the predominant blood supply to the femoral head. It courses posteriorly between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles, and then heads superiorly, running consistently between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris muscles before piercing the capsule to form the retinacular vessels.

Question 11

In the Graf ultrasound classification for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in an infant, the alpha angle is widely utilized to determine the severity of dysplasia. What anatomic feature does the alpha angle represent, and what is its generally accepted normal value?





Explanation

In the Graf ultrasound evaluation of infantile hips, the alpha angle measures the concavity of the bony roof of the acetabulum (formed by the ilium). A normal alpha angle (Graf Type I) is greater than or equal to 60 degrees. The beta angle measures the cartilaginous roof and is normally less than 55 degrees.

Question 12

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 20 degrees, and clinical hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address her pathology?





Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (first tarsometatarsal joint arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus deformities (HVA > 40 degrees, IMA > 15-20 degrees), particularly when there is associated hypermobility of the first TMT joint. Distal or diaphyseal osteotomies (Chevron, Scarf) are insufficient for severe deformities with TMT hypermobility.

Question 13

A 60-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with a newly identified lytic lesion in her left peritrochanteric femur. The lesion involves 50% of the cortical diameter. She reports moderate, aching pain with weight-bearing. Using Mirels' criteria, what is her calculated score, and what is the recommendation?





Explanation

Mirels' scoring system for impending pathologic fractures assigns 1, 2, or 3 points for four categories. Site: Upper limb (1), Lower limb (2), Peritrochanteric (3). Pain: Mild (1), Moderate (2), Severe (3). Size: <1/3 (1), 1/3-2/3 (2), >2/3 (3). Type: Blastic (1), Mixed (2), Lytic (3). This patient's score: Peritrochanteric (3) + Moderate pain (2) + Size 50% (2) + Lytic (3) = 10. A score >= 9 is a strong indication for prophylactic fixation.

Question 14

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe low back pain and bilateral radiculopathy following a heavy lifting injury. You suspect acute cauda equina syndrome. Based on recent literature, which of the following is considered the most sensitive and specific early clinical indicator of this condition?





Explanation

While saddle anesthesia and loss of rectal tone are classic, they are often late signs. The earliest and most consistent symptom of cauda equina syndrome is urinary retention, often leading to overflow incontinence. A bladder scan showing a post-void residual (PVR) volume > 100-200 mL is highly sensitive for suspected cauda equina syndrome.

Question 15

In elite overhead throwing athletes, such as baseball pitchers, Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tears are a common source of shoulder pain. Which of the following biomechanical mechanisms is most widely accepted as the primary cause of these SLAP lesions during the late cocking phase of throwing?





Explanation

During the late cocking phase of throwing, the shoulder is in maximal abduction and external rotation. This position causes the biceps vector to shift posteriorly, placing a torsional force on the superior labrum that twists and 'peels back' the posterosuperior labrum from the glenoid rim. This is known as the peel-back mechanism.

Question 16

A 28-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a Galeazzi fracture-dislocation. Radiographs show a fracture of the distal third of the radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which muscle is primarily responsible for the volar displacement and pronation of the distal radial fracture fragment?





Explanation

In a Galeazzi fracture, the distal radius fragment is subjected to distinct deforming forces: the brachioradialis pulls the fragment proximally, causing shortening, while the pronator quadratus pulls the fragment volarly and causes it to pronate. Therefore, the pronator quadratus is the primary force causing volar displacement and pronation.

Question 17

Biofilm formation is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of periprosthetic joint infections, rendering bacteria highly resistant to systemic antibiotics. In Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, what is the primary extracellular polymeric substance responsible for intercellular adhesion and structural integrity of the biofilm?





Explanation

Biofilm formation by Staphylococcus epidermidis largely depends on the production of Polysaccharide Intercellular Adhesin (PIA), which is synthesized by products of the icaADBC operon. PIA acts as the primary extracellular matrix component, facilitating intercellular adhesion and shielding the bacteria from the host immune response and antibiotics.

Question 18

A 35-year-old man presents with a permanent low radial nerve palsy after a humerus fracture. A standard Jones tendon transfer procedure is planned. To restore thumb extension, which of the following muscle-tendon transfers is classically utilized in this procedure?





Explanation

In the classic Jones transfer for radial nerve palsy, three primary transfers are performed: 1) Pronator teres to ECRB (to restore wrist extension), 2) FCU (or FCR in modified versions) to EDC (to restore finger extension), and 3) Palmaris longus (PL) to EPL (to restore thumb extension).

Question 19

A 2-year-old child presents with an acute monoarticular septic arthritis of the knee. Standard synovial fluid cultures are negative at 48 hours, but the ESR and CRP are significantly elevated. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible and optimally requires inoculation into BACTEC blood culture bottles or PCR for detection?





Explanation

Kingella kingae is a gram-negative bacillus that has become recognized as the most common cause of septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in children aged 6 months to 4 years. It is notoriously fastidious and difficult to isolate on standard solid media; the diagnostic yield is significantly increased by inoculating joint fluid directly into BACTEC blood culture bottles or using specific PCR assays.

Question 20

When performing a cemented total hip arthroplasty using a collarless, polished, taper-slip femoral stem (e.g., the Exeter stem), which of the following biomechanical principles describes the primary mechanism by which the stem achieves long-term stability within the cement mantle?





Explanation

Collarless, polished, taper-slip stems are specifically designed to act as a wedge. They are meant to subside slightly within the cement mantle under axial load. Because the stem is tapered and highly polished (preventing bonding to the cement), this controlled subsidence generates outward radial forces that compress the cement mantle (creating hoop stresses), which tightly locks the cement against the surrounding bone.

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