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Pediatric Orthopaedics: Comprehensive MCQ Question Bank & Exam Prep

Pediatric Orthopaedic Scored And Re Review | Dr Hutaif - ...

23 Apr 2026 83 min read 125 Views
Illustration of pediatric orthopaedic scored - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

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This interactive board review contains 100 randomly selected orthopedic surgery questions with clinical images, immediate feedback, and detailed references.

Pediatric Orthopaedic Scored And Re Review | Dr Hutaif - ...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 13-year-old obese male presents to the emergency department unable to bear weight on his right leg after a minor slip. Radiographs reveal a severe slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). According to the Loder classification, this is an unstable SCFE. Which of the following best defines the primary clinical significance of an unstable SCFE?





Explanation

The Loder classification divides SCFE into stable (able to bear weight with or without crutches) and unstable (unable to bear weight even with crutches). The primary clinical significance of an unstable SCFE is a dramatically higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), which can occur in up to 20-50% of unstable cases compared to nearly 0% in stable cases.

Question 2

During the initiation of the Ponseti method for a rigid idiopathic clubfoot in a 2-week-old infant, the first manipulative step prior to applying the first long-leg cast is designed to correct the cavus deformity. Which of the following maneuvers is correct to achieve this?





Explanation

In the Ponseti method, the first step is correcting the cavus, which is driven by a relatively plantarflexed first ray compared to the lateral rays. The first ray must be elevated (dorsiflexed) to supinate the forefoot and align it with the hindfoot, establishing a proper mechanical block to further correct adductus and varus.

Question 3

A 4-year-old child, previously successfully treated for an idiopathic clubfoot with the Ponseti method, presents with a recurring deformity. Gait analysis reveals dynamic supination of the foot during the swing phase, with the child walking on the lateral border of the foot. The foot is completely flexible passively. What is the most appropriate surgical management?





Explanation

Dynamic supination during the swing phase in a relapsed clubfoot that is passively correctable is classic for overpowering of the tibialis anterior. The treatment of choice in a child older than 2.5 to 3 years is a full transfer of the tibialis anterior tendon to the lateral cuneiform (TATT), which converts the deforming supinatory force into a dorsiflexor force.

Question 4

A 10-week-old female infant with a completely dislocated, reducible developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) has been treated with a Pavlik harness for 2 weeks. The mother notes the child is no longer actively kicking her left leg, specifically lacking active knee extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

The clinical picture describes a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication of hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness. If a femoral nerve palsy develops, the harness must be discontinued immediately to allow for neurologic recovery, which typically resolves in days to weeks. Continuing the harness or increasing flexion can worsen the nerve injury.

Question 5

A 6-year-old boy sustains a severe extension-type III supracondylar humerus fracture. After closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, the hand is pink with a palpable radial pulse, but the child is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. Which specific nerve structure has been injured?





Explanation

The Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN), a branch of the median nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve in extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures. It provides motor innervation to the flexor pollicis longus (thumb IP flexion), flexor digitorum profundus to the index/middle fingers, and pronator quadratus. Weakness in the 'OK' sign indicates an AIN palsy.

Question 6

A 5-year-old child sustains a lateral condyle fracture of the humerus with 3 mm of displacement. Anatomic reduction and internal fixation are indicated primarily to prevent which of the following long-term complications?





Explanation

Lateral condyle fractures are intra-articular Salter-Harris IV equivalent fractures. They have a high propensity for nonunion if displaced >2 mm due to the pull of the common extensor origin and bathing of the fracture in synovial fluid. Nonunion typically results in progressive cubitus valgus deformity, which can stretch the ulnar nerve over time, causing a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.

Question 7

According to the Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS), a patient with cerebral palsy is classified as Level V. At what approximate frequency should routine radiographic hip surveillance be conducted for this patient after the age of 2 years to monitor for hip displacement?





Explanation

Patients with GMFCS level V cerebral palsy have a nearly 90% risk of hip displacement. International hip surveillance guidelines recommend that these non-ambulatory, severely involved patients undergo AP pelvic radiographs every 6 to 12 months after 2 years of age until skeletal maturity to monitor Reimers' migration index and intervene before severe dislocation occurs.

Question 8

An 8-year-old boy is diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Radiographs demonstrate fragmentation of the femoral head with more than 50% loss of height of the lateral pillar. According to the Herring classification, what is the assigned group and expected prognosis without intervention?





Explanation

The Herring lateral pillar classification divides LCPD into Groups A (no lateral pillar involvement), B (>50% lateral pillar height maintained), B/C border, and C (<50% lateral pillar height maintained). Group C signifies severe collapse and carries a poor prognosis with a high likelihood of developing a flattened, incongruous femoral head, especially in children older than 8 years.

Question 9

A 20-month-old toddler presents with severe bilateral genu varum. Standing AP radiographs of the lower extremities reveal medial metaphyseal beaking of the proximal tibia. Measurement of the metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (MDA) is 18 degrees on both sides. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (MDA), described by Drennan, helps differentiate physiologic bowing from infantile Blount disease. An MDA greater than 16 degrees strongly predicts progression to infantile Blount disease, whereas an angle less than 10 degrees typically suggests physiologic bowing that will spontaneously resolve.

Question 10

A 14-year-old adolescent sustains a triplane fracture of the distal tibia following an external rotation injury. By definition, a classic triplane fracture involves a combination of fracture planes. Which Salter-Harris classification does this complex fracture pattern biologically represent?





Explanation

A classic triplane fracture extends in the sagittal plane through the epiphysis, the axial plane through the physis, and the coronal plane through the posterior metaphysis. Because the fracture crosses from the metaphysis, through the physis, and exits the epiphysis into the joint space, it is biologically equivalent to a Salter-Harris IV fracture.

Question 11

A 13-year-old girl sustains an isolated avulsion fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. The injury was caused by an external rotation force. Which ligament is directly responsible for pulling off this epiphyseal fragment?





Explanation

The described injury is a juvenile Tillaux fracture (a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia). It occurs in adolescents when the medial and central portions of the distal tibial physis have closed, but the lateral aspect remains open. The mechanism is external rotation, and the bony avulsion is mediated via tension on the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL).

Question 12

A 13-year-old boy presents with vague, deep midfoot pain and frequent ankle sprains. Examination shows a rigid, flat foot with lack of subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. Lateral radiographs of the foot reveal a continuous bony bridge forming a 'C-sign' encompassing the medial talar dome and sustentaculum tali. What is the diagnosis?





Explanation

The 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph is formed by the medial outline of the talar dome and the posteroinferior outline of the sustentaculum tali, representing a continuous bony bridge. It is highly specific for a talocalcaneal (subtalar) coalition. Calcaneonavicular coalitions often show the 'anteater nose' sign on oblique views.

Question 13

An 8-year-old child weighing 40 kg sustains a closed, highly comminuted midshaft femur fracture (length unstable) following a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following surgical interventions is considered the gold standard for this specific patient profile?





Explanation

For an 8-year-old child (school age), flexible intramedullary nails (TENs) are normally favored. However, TENs are relatively contraindicated for weight >50 kg or 'length-unstable' fractures (severe comminution/spiral). Submuscular bridge plating provides rigid length and rotational stability without violating the greater trochanteric or piriformis apophyses (which risks AVN of the femoral head in younger children).

Question 14

A 2-year-old boy presents with short stature, frontal bossing, and rhizomelic shortening of the limbs. Radiographs of the spine show progressive narrowing of the interpedicular distances from the upper to the lower lumbar spine. What genetic mutation is responsible for this condition?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for achondroplasia. Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene on chromosome 4p, which abnormally inhibits chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis, leading to rhizomelic dwarfism.

Question 15

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra in the thoracic spine. Because congenital scoliosis occurs due to abnormal somite development during embryogenesis, screening for associated anomalies is mandatory. Which of the following sets of screening tests is most appropriate?





Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is highly associated with VACTERL anomalies. Renal anomalies (unilateral kidney, duplication) occur in up to 20-30%, requiring a renal ultrasound. Cardiac anomalies require an echocardiogram. Intraspinal anomalies (tethered cord, syringomyelia, diastematomyelia) are seen in up to 30%, mandating an entire spine MRI.

Question 16

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of insidious onset, mechanical low back pain that worsens with back extension. Radiographs of the lumbar spine show a defect in the pars interarticularis of L5. The classic 'Scotty dog with a collar' sign is best appreciated on which specific radiographic projection?





Explanation

Spondylolysis is a defect in the pars interarticularis, common in adolescent athletes subjected to repetitive hyperextension (like gymnasts). The pars defect looks like a 'collar' on the neck of the 'Scotty dog,' which is the classic radiographic appearance seen on the 45-degree oblique view of the lumbar spine.

Question 17

A 15-year-old male presents with chronic knee pain and mechanical symptoms. An MRI reveals an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion with fluid surrounding the fragment, indicating instability. What is the most common anatomic location for a pediatric knee OCD lesion?





Explanation

The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral (intercondylar) aspect of the medial femoral condyle, accounting for roughly 70-80% of all knee OCD lesions.

Question 18

A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with arm pain after throwing a baseball. Radiographs demonstrate a mildly expansile, centrally located radiolucent lesion in the proximal humeral diaphysis with a pathologic fracture. A bone fragment is seen resting at the dependent portion of the cystic cavity. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The clinical presentation and the 'fallen leaf' sign are pathognomonic for a pathologic fracture through a unicameral bone cyst (UBC). Initial management of a pathologic fracture through a UBC is immobilization (e.g., a sling) to allow the fracture to heal. Surgery or injection is generally reserved for cysts that fail to resolve after fracture healing or for recurrent fractures.

Question 19

A 4-month-old infant with a history of shoulder dystocia at birth has an unresolved Erb-Duchenne palsy (C5-C6). The arm is held in internal rotation, adduction, and pronation. According to current pediatric orthopedic guidelines, lack of clinically detectable recovery of which specific muscle by age 3 to 6 months is the primary indication for primary nerve microsurgery?





Explanation

In neonatal brachial plexus palsy (Erb's palsy), the recovery of the biceps muscle is the most critical prognostic indicator. Lack of clinically apparent biceps function (elbow flexion against gravity) by 3 to 6 months of age is the universally accepted indication to proceed with microsurgical nerve exploration and reconstruction to optimize long-term upper extremity function.

Question 20

A 10-year-old boy presents with progressive thigh pain, night pain, and a low-grade fever. Radiographs show a permeative, lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the femur with a multilamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Histology reveals sheets of small round blue cells. Which chromosomal translocation is most definitively diagnostic of this specific tumor?





Explanation

The clinical, radiographic (diaphyseal, onion-skin), and histologic (small round blue cells) findings point directly to Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is classically driven by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This is present in approximately 85-90% of Ewing sarcoma cases.

Question 21

A 2-week-old infant presents with severe, rigid congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot). The treating orthopedic surgeon initiates the Ponseti casting technique. After initial correction of the cavus deformity by elevating the first ray, the subsequent casts aim to correct the forefoot adduction and heel varus. Where should the examiner apply counterpressure (the fulcrum) during the manipulation phase?





Explanation

In the Ponseti technique, after correcting the cavus by elevating the first ray, forefoot adduction and heel varus are corrected by abducting the forefoot in supination while applying counterpressure over the lateral aspect of the head of the talus. Pressure should NEVER be applied to the calcaneocuboid joint, as this will block the calcaneus from abducting and create a spurious correction (bean-shaped foot).

Question 22

A 12-year-old boy presents with left-sided groin pain and an obligatory external rotation of the hip during active flexion. Radiographs confirm a left-sided Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following patient factors represents the strongest indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic right hip?





Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is highly recommended in patients with endocrine or metabolic disorders (e.g., hypothyroidism, panhypopituitarism, renal osteodystrophy) or previous radiation therapy, as these conditions carry a bilateral involvement risk approaching 100%. While obesity is a risk factor for SCFE, it is not an absolute indication for prophylactic contralateral pinning without other high-risk features.

Question 23

An 8.5-year-old boy is diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. AP and frog-leg lateral pelvic radiographs demonstrate exactly 50% maintenance of the lateral pillar height on the affected side. According to the prospective multicenter Herring study, what is the most appropriate management for this patient to optimize the long-term sphericity of the femoral head?





Explanation

The patient has Herring Lateral Pillar Group B or B/C border disease. The prospective Herring multicenter study demonstrated that for children older than 8 years of age at the time of onset with Lateral Pillar Group B or B/C border disease, surgical containment (such as a proximal femoral varus osteotomy or pelvic osteotomy) yields significantly better outcomes compared to nonoperative treatment. Children under 8 with Group B do well regardless of treatment, and Group C children do poorly regardless of treatment.

Question 24

A 3-month-old female is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the left hip. Two weeks after the initiation of treatment, the mother notes that the infant has stopped kicking her left leg. On examination, the left knee is held in a resting extended position, and the infant does not actively flex the hip or extend the knee. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?





Explanation

The clinical picture describes a femoral nerve palsy, which presents as decreased active quadriceps function (lack of active knee extension). In the setting of a Pavlik harness, this is caused by hyperflexion of the hips, leading to compression of the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament. Management involves temporarily discontinuing the harness or reducing the degree of hip flexion until nerve function fully recovers. Excessive abduction, by contrast, increases the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN).

Question 25

A 5-year-old boy sustains a severe, displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On initial presentation, his radial pulse is non-palpable, but the hand is warm, pink, and has a capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning are performed expeditiously. Postoperatively, the fracture is anatomically reduced, but the radial pulse remains absent. The hand remains warm and pink with brisk capillary refill. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

A 'pulseless, pink' hand after closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of a supracondylar fracture indicates that the limb is adequately perfused via collateral circulation, despite the absence of a palpable radial pulse. The standard of care is close observation for 24-48 hours. Routine surgical exploration is not indicated as long as the hand remains well-perfused (warm, pink, normal capillary refill).

Question 26

A 13-year-old girl sustains an external rotation twisting injury to her ankle. Radiographs reveal a Salter-Harris type III fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibial epiphysis. Avulsion of this fragment is caused by tension from which of the following ligamentous structures?





Explanation

This is a juvenile Tillaux fracture, which is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. The distal tibial physis closes in a specific pattern: first centrally, then anteromedially, then posteromedially, and finally laterally. Because the anterolateral physis is the last to fuse, external rotation forces cause the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) to avulse this epiphyseal fragment.

Question 27

A newborn is evaluated for a visible truncal asymmetry. Radiographs demonstrate a fully segmented hemivertebra at the T8 level resulting in congenital scoliosis. Given the high rate of associated anomalies in patients with congenital scoliosis, what are the mandatory screening modalities required for this infant?





Explanation

Patients with congenital scoliosis have a high incidence of associated anomalies due to abnormal embryogenesis during weeks 4 to 6 of gestation (VACTERL association). Approximately 20-30% have genitourinary anomalies (requiring renal ultrasound) and 15-40% have intraspinal anomalies, such as tethered cord or diastematomyelia (requiring MRI of the entire spinal axis).

Question 28

A 6-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy is evaluated during a routine surveillance visit. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a Reimers Migration Percentage of 45% bilaterally. The acetabular index is 32 degrees. The hips are clinically subluxated but reducible. What is the most definitive surgical management to provide stable, long-term hip containment?





Explanation

In children with cerebral palsy, a Reimers Migration Percentage (MP) greater than 40-50% with an increased acetabular index indicates a significantly subluxated hip that requires bony reconstruction. Soft tissue releases alone are insufficient at this stage. The standard of care is a proximal femoral varus derotation osteotomy (VDRO) to correct excessive valgus and anteversion, combined with a pelvic osteotomy (e.g., Dega or San Diego) to correct acetabular dysplasia.

Question 29

An 11-year-old boy presents with frequent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. On physical examination, there is marked spasm of the peroneal muscles. A lateral radiograph demonstrates a continuous C-shaped bony arc formed by the medial outline of the talar dome and the posteroinferior aspect of the sustentaculum tali. This radiographic sign is highly specific for which of the following conditions?





Explanation

The 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph is formed by the continuous bony bridge between the talar dome and the sustentaculum tali and is a classic radiographic sign of a talocalcaneal (subtalar) coalition. Calcaneonavicular coalitions often present with the 'anteater sign' on the lateral view and are best visualized on a 45-degree internal oblique radiograph.

Question 30

A 6-year-old child presents with a painful, loud snapping sound in the lateral compartment of the knee during extension. MRI demonstrates a thickened, discoid lateral meniscus that has pulled into the intercondylar notch. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals the meniscus is hypermobile. Which specific anatomical feature defines the 'Wrisberg variant' of a discoid meniscus?





Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus is characterized by the absence of the posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligament attachments. Its only posterior attachment is the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg. During knee extension, the pull of this ligament causes the hypermobile meniscus to snap into the intercondylar notch, causing a symptomatic 'clunk' or 'snap'.

Question 31

A 4-year-old child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type III is treated with cyclical intravenous pamidronate therapy to decrease fracture frequency. Which of the following radiographic findings on a long-bone radiograph provides objective evidence of the patient's compliance with this specific pharmacological therapy?





Explanation

Intravenous bisphosphonates (like pamidronate) used in Osteogenesis Imperfecta inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Administered in cycles, they temporarily halt the normal metaphyseal modeling process, resulting in dense transverse bands of sclerotic bone parallel to the physis, often referred to as 'zebra lines'. These serve as a radiographic marker of prior treatment cycles.

Question 32

A 4-year-old obese male presents with severe, progressive bilateral infantile tibia vara. Radiographs reveal a sharp step-off and depression of the medial tibial metaphysis. According to the Langenskiöld classification, this child is classified as having Stage III disease. What is the most appropriate definitive management?





Explanation

In infantile Blount's disease (tibia vara), brace treatment (KAFO) is only effective for children under the age of 3 with Langenskiöld Stage I or II disease. Once a child reaches 4 years of age or progresses to Langenskiöld Stage III (which involves a step-off in the metaphysis), conservative management is universally unsuccessful. The standard of care is a proximal tibial valgus osteotomy (often with derotation) before permanent physeal damage occurs.

Question 33

A 10-month-old, non-ambulatory infant is brought to the emergency department for irritability. Radiographs reveal an isolated, displaced spiral fracture of the left femoral shaft. The parents state the infant fell off a low sofa onto a carpeted floor. What is the most critical next step in the clinical management of this patient?





Explanation

Any femoral shaft fracture in a non-ambulatory infant is highly suspicious for non-accidental trauma (child abuse), regardless of the fracture pattern (spiral or transverse). A low-energy fall from a sofa cannot generate the force required to break an infant's femur. The paramount next step is hospital admission, performing a complete skeletal survey, and consulting Child Protective Services to ensure the child's safety.

Question 34

A 35-year-old male presents with progressive intrinsic muscle weakness in his right hand and numbness involving the ring and small fingers. He recalls sustaining an elbow injury at age 5 that was treated non-operatively in a cast. Physical examination reveals a prominent cubitus valgus deformity of the right elbow. What was the most likely pediatric elbow injury this patient sustained?





Explanation

The classic presentation of a missed or non-united lateral condyle fracture of the humerus in childhood is the gradual development of a cubitus valgus deformity over years. This valgus stretching of the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle leads to a 'tardy ulnar nerve palsy' decades later, manifesting as intrinsic hand weakness and sensory changes in the ulnar nerve distribution.

Question 35

A 3-year-old child presents with an anterolateral bow of the right tibia and a distinct mid-diaphyseal pseudarthrosis. Examination reveals multiple café-au-lait macules on the trunk. This underlying genetic syndrome is caused by a mutation in a gene that encodes a protein responsible for downregulating which of the following cellular signaling pathways?





Explanation

The patient has congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia (CPT) with classic signs of Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). NF1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17. The gene encodes neurofibromin, which is a GTPase-activating protein that normally downregulates the RAS/MAPK signaling pathway. Loss of neurofibromin leads to hyperactive RAS signaling, contributing to tumor formation and dysplastic bone.

Question 36

A 6-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and presents with severe forearm pain. Radiographs demonstrate an isolated transverse fracture of the proximal ulnar diaphysis with apex-anterior angulation. The radiocapitellar line does not bisect the capitellum on any view. According to the Bado classification, what is the specific associated injury in this type of Monteggia fracture?





Explanation

A Monteggia fracture-dislocation consists of a proximal third ulnar fracture with a radial head dislocation. The Bado classification describes the direction of the radial head dislocation, which generally follows the apex of the ulnar fracture angulation. Apex-anterior ulnar angulation is associated with an anterior dislocation of the radial head (Bado Type I), which is the most common type in children.

Question 37

A 14-year-old elite adolescent baseball pitcher presents with vague, insidious shoulder pain that is maximal during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. An AP radiograph of the shoulder with the arm in external rotation reveals widening of the proximal humeral physis with adjacent metaphyseal sclerosis. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

This patient has 'Little League Shoulder', which is a stress fracture (epiphysiolysis) of the proximal humeral physis due to repetitive rotational torque from throwing. The pathognomonic radiographic sign is widening and irregularity of the proximal humeral physis. The definitive treatment is absolute rest from throwing, typically for 3 months, followed by a gradual return-to-throwing program.

Question 38

A 15-year-old competitive female gymnast presents with insidious onset of localized low back pain that is strictly exacerbated by lumbar extension. Neurologic exam is normal. Plain radiographs, including oblique views, are completely negative for any abnormality. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals marked marrow edema localized to the pars interarticularis of L5 bilaterally, without a visible fracture line. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

The clinical presentation and MRI findings of marrow edema in the pars interarticularis without a clear fracture line represent an early, acute stress reaction (spondylolysis) before the development of a frank nonunion (pars defect). Because there is healing potential in this acute/edematous stage, the treatment of choice is restriction from the offending activity (gymnastics) and rigid bracing (TLSO or antilordotic brace) to immobilize the pars for 6 to 12 weeks.

Question 39

A newborn infant presents with a congenital lower extremity deformity characterized by marked shortening of the right leg, a dimple over the anterior tibia, equinovalgus foot deformity, and the absence of the lateral two digits of the right foot. Radiographs confirm the complete absence of the fibula. Which of the following knee anomalies is almost universally present in this condition?





Explanation

Fibular hemimelia is the most common long-bone deficiency. It is associated with a spectrum of anomalies along the lateral column of the lower extremity, including anteromedial tibial bowing with a skin dimple, ball-and-socket ankle joint, tarsal coalitions, and absent lateral rays. In the knee, anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) absence or profound hypoplasia is almost universally present, often leading to knee instability.

Question 40

A 3-year-old child presents with massive, asymmetric overgrowth of the index and middle fingers of the right hand. The affected digits are enlarged in both length and girth, and are becoming progressively stiff and deviated. A biopsy of the subcutaneous tissue shows massive fibrofatty infiltration of the digital nerves. This condition, known as macrodactyly or macrodystrophia lipomatosa, is driven by a somatic mosaic mutation in which of the following genes?





Explanation

Macrodactyly (macrodystrophia lipomatosa) is characterized by fibrofatty enlargement of a nerve territory (most commonly the median nerve in the hand) leading to asymmetric digital overgrowth. It falls under the umbrella of PIK3CA-related overgrowth spectrum (PROS). The genetic basis is a somatic gain-of-function mosaic mutation in the PIK3CA gene, which upregulates the PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway, causing excessive cellular growth.

Question 41

A 12-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid flatfoot. Clinical examination demonstrates peroneal spasticity. Radiographs demonstrate an 'anteater nose' sign. Which of the following radiographic views is most appropriate to best visualize the pathology in question?





Explanation

The 'anteater nose' sign is a radiographic finding representing a calcaneonavicular coalition. It is characterized by an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus extending toward the navicular. This specific coalition is best visualized on a 45-degree internal oblique radiograph of the foot. Talocalcaneal coalitions, on the other hand, often present with a 'C-sign' on the lateral view and are best evaluated with a Harris axial view or CT scan.

Question 42

A 14-year-old girl presents with progressive wrist pain, decreased extension, and a prominent ulnar head. Radiographs reveal palmar and ulnar tilt of the distal radial articular surface with relative overgrowth of the ulna. The primary tethering structure responsible for this specific deformity is the:





Explanation

The patient has Madelung deformity, which involves premature closure of the volar-ulnar portion of the distal radial physis. The Vickers ligament (an abnormally thickened and shortened radiolunate ligament) acts as a primary volar tether that tethers the lunate to the radius, restricting growth and causing the characteristic palmar and ulnar inclination of the distal radius.

Question 43

A 4-year-old child with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) presents with congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia (Crawford Type IV). The patient is scheduled for surgical reconstruction with an intramedullary rod and a vascularized fibular graft. Achieving bony union relies critically on the complete radical resection of which of the following abnormal tissues at the pseudarthrosis site?





Explanation

Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia (CPT) is frequently associated with NF1. The primary pathognomonic lesion is a thickened, highly cellular, hamartomatous periosteum that chokes the underlying bone, leading to osteoclastic resorption and impaired blood supply. Radical excision of this abnormal periosteal tissue is a prerequisite for achieving successful bony union.

Question 44

A 5-year-old boy presents with progressive bilateral genu varum, short stature, and a waddling gait. Genetic testing confirms X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (mutation in the PHEX gene). Which of the following serum laboratory profiles is most characteristic of this condition prior to medical treatment?





Explanation

In X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (XLH), a mutation in the PHEX gene leads to elevated levels of Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF23), causing renal phosphate wasting. Because calcium levels remain normal, parathyroid hormone (PTH) is typically normal (or only mildly elevated). Therefore, the classic profile is normal calcium, low phosphate, normal PTH, and normal or low 1,25-OH Vitamin D. Alkaline phosphatase is invariably elevated.

Question 45

In a 6-year-old child diagnosed with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy, which of the following factors serves as the strongest independent predictor for the development of lateral hip displacement (subluxation)?





Explanation

The risk of hip displacement in children with cerebral palsy is directly and strongly correlated with their Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS) level. Children who are non-ambulatory (GMFCS levels IV and V) have the highest incidence of hip displacement (up to 90%), necessitating strict radiographic surveillance protocols. The GMFCS is the most critical prognostic indicator.

Question 46

A 6-year-old boy with Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV (Morquio syndrome) is scheduled for elective lower extremity realignment surgery. Before clearance for general anesthesia is given, which of the following specific orthopedic screening evaluations is absolutely mandatory?





Explanation

Morquio syndrome (MPS IV) is characterized by severe skeletal dysplasias due to a deficiency of N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase. A hallmark and potentially lethal manifestation is odontoid hypoplasia, which leads to profound atlantoaxial (C1-C2) instability. Cervical spine flexion/extension radiographs are mandatory prior to any procedure involving general anesthesia or intubation to prevent catastrophic spinal cord injury.

Question 47

A newborn is diagnosed with Proximal Focal Femoral Deficiency (PFFD). Upon further physical examination and imaging of the affected extremity, which of the following concurrent musculoskeletal anomalies is almost universally present?





Explanation

Proximal focal femoral deficiency (PFFD) is heavily associated with fibular hemimelia, shortening of the extremity, and knee instability. Approximately 70-100% of patients with PFFD will have an absent anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Other common associations include fibular hemimelia and coxa vara, but absent ACL is a classic, universally-tested association.

Question 48

A 2-month-old infant is evaluated for bilateral rigid rocker-bottom feet. To reliably differentiate Congenital Vertical Talus (CVT) from an oblique talus, which of the following imaging modalities or specific views is most diagnostic?





Explanation

In Congenital Vertical Talus (CVT), the talonavicular joint is rigidly and irreducibly dislocated dorsally. The definitive radiographic diagnostic test is a lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantarflexion. If the navicular (or the first metatarsal axis if the navicular is unossified) fails to align with the talar axis and remains dorsally displaced, CVT is confirmed. In an oblique talus, it will reduce.

Question 49

A newborn presents with short limbs, severe rigid clubfeet, 'hitchhiker' thumbs, and cystic swelling of the ear pinnae (cauliflower ears). This skeletal dysplasia is caused by a genetic mutation affecting which of the following?





Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for Diastrophic Dysplasia. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 gene, which encodes a sulfate transporter (also known as DTDST). This results in under-sulfation of cartilage proteoglycans. Key features include hitchhiker thumbs, cauliflower ears, severe clubfeet, and cervical kyphosis.

Question 50

Congenital pseudarthrosis of the clavicle occurs almost exclusively on the right side. If a newborn presents with isolated congenital pseudarthrosis of the LEFT clavicle, what is the most important clinical entity to rule out?





Explanation

Congenital pseudarthrosis of the clavicle is virtually always right-sided, believed to be due to normal right subclavian artery pulsations interfering with the fusion of the medial and lateral primary ossification centers. If it presents on the left side, it implies reversed vascular anatomy, meaning the clinician must urgently rule out dextrocardia or situs inversus.

Question 51

A 3-month-old presents with severe, atypical (complex) clubfoot characterized by a short, chubby foot, a deep transverse plantar crease, and severe equinus. Treatment via the modified Ponseti method should strictly emphasize which of the following?





Explanation

Atypical or complex clubfeet respond poorly to standard Ponseti casting and are prone to severe complications like iatrogenic midfoot break. The modified Ponseti technique involves recognizing the complex nature early, avoiding hyperabduction (limiting abduction to 30-40 degrees instead of the usual 60-70 degrees), and performing an early percutaneous Achilles tenotomy to correct the severe equinus.

Question 52

A 2.5-year-old child presents with bilateral progressive tibia vara. Radiographs reveal fragmentation of the medial tibial metaphysis with a metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (Drennan's angle) of 18 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

The child has Infantile Blount disease. A metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (Drennan's angle) greater than 16 degrees strongly predicts true Blount disease rather than physiologic bowing. For children under 3 years of age with an angle > 16 degrees (Langenskiold Stage I or II), the standard initial treatment is KAFO (knee-ankle-foot orthosis) bracing. Surgery is indicated if bracing fails or if the child presents after age 3-4 with advanced stages.

Question 53

A 14-year-old male sustains an isolated Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. Which of the following is the predominant mechanism of injury for this specific fracture pattern?





Explanation

The scenario describes a Tillaux fracture (Salter-Harris III of the anterolateral distal tibia). It occurs due to an external rotation force of the foot relative to the leg, leading to an avulsion by the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). This happens in adolescents because the distal tibial physis closes in a predictable pattern: central, then medial, and finally lateral, leaving the anterolateral portion vulnerable.

Question 54

A 4-year-old girl is evaluated for congenital gigantism isolated to the middle and index fingers of her right hand. Biopsy of the overgrown tissues shows prominent fibrofatty infiltration surrounding the median nerve. Which gene mutation is most likely responsible for this condition?





Explanation

True macrodactyly usually follows a peripheral nerve territory (most commonly the median nerve) and is characterized by marked fibrofatty overgrowth within and around the nerve. It is now known to be part of the PIK3CA-related overgrowth spectrum (PROS). Somatic mosaic mutations in the PIK3CA gene drive this asymmetric tissue overgrowth.

Question 55

A 3-year-old sustains a minor fall. Cervical spine radiographs demonstrate anterior displacement of C2 on C3 of 3.5 mm. Swischuk's line is drawn to differentiate physiologic pseudosubluxation from true traumatic injury. Which of the following defines a true pathologic subluxation utilizing this line?





Explanation

Swischuk's line is drawn from the anterior cortex of the posterior arch of C1 to the anterior cortex of the posterior arch of C3. In normal physiologic pseudosubluxation, the anterior cortex of the posterior arch of C2 should lie within 1.5 to 2 mm of this line. If the C2 arch is displaced > 2 mm anterior to the line, it indicates a true pathologic subluxation.

Question 56

A 12-year-old overweight boy presents with sudden severe left hip pain and is completely unable to bear weight, even with crutches (Loder unstable SCFE). The exceptionally high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) in this condition is primarily due to disruption of which of the following vessels?





Explanation

An unstable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) carries an AVN risk of up to 47%. The blood supply to the femoral head in this age group relies almost entirely on the posterosuperior and posteroinferior retinacular vessels, which are terminal lateral epiphyseal branches of the Medial Femoral Circumflex Artery (MFCA). These vessels are uniquely stretched or torn during the acute slip.

Question 57

A 14-year-old with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents with worsening 'crouch gait'. Kinematic analysis shows excessive knee flexion throughout the stance phase. Which of the following prior surgical interventions most commonly precipitates or significantly worsens an iatrogenic crouch gait?





Explanation

Crouch gait involves excessive hip and knee flexion with excessive ankle dorsiflexion during stance. A frequent iatrogenic cause is isolated overlengthening of the Achilles tendon. This abolishes the critical plantarflexion-knee extension couple; without strong plantarflexors to control the forward progression of the tibia over the foot, the knee inevitably buckles into excessive flexion (crouch).

Question 58

A 13-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with insidious onset shoulder pain that occurs primarily during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Radiographs show widening and sclerosis of the proximal humeral physis. What is the primary pathophysiology of this specific condition?





Explanation

The scenario describes 'Little League Shoulder', which is essentially a stress fracture or repetitive microtrauma leading to epiphysiolysis (a chronic Salter-Harris Type I fracture) of the proximal humeral physis. It is caused by the repetitive high-torque rotational forces generated during throwing.

Question 59

A 6-year-old boy presents with bilateral hearing loss, mild midface hypoplasia, and rigid flatfeet. Radiographs reveal bilateral calcaneocuboid and carpal coalitions. Genetic testing reveals a Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Muenke syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a specific mutation (Pro250Arg) in the FGFR3 gene. It is characterized by coronal craniosynostosis, sensorineural hearing loss, and notably, carpal and tarsal coalitions (especially calcaneocuboid coalitions). Apert, Crouzon, and Pfeiffer syndromes are primarily associated with FGFR2 mutations (though Pfeiffer can be FGFR1/2).

Question 60

Which of the following intramedullary implants is widely considered the modern gold standard for long bone stabilization in a growing child with severe osteogenesis imperfecta, as it accommodates longitudinal growth while minimizing the need for repetitive surgeries?





Explanation

In severe osteogenesis imperfecta, long bones frequently fracture and become deformed. Stabilization typically involves multi-level corrective osteotomies (so-called 'shish kebab' technique) followed by intramedullary fixation. The Fassier-Duval telescoping nail is a single-incision telescopic rod designed to elongate as the child grows, preventing the implant from migrating or the bone from 'growing off' the rod, which is a common failure mode for non-telescoping pins (e.g., Rush or TENs).

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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