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AAOS & ABOS Basic Science MCQs (Set 3): Bone Biology, Biomechanics & Anatomy Review

Orthopedic Anatomy Practice Questions (Set 1): Musculoskeletal & Clinical Concepts for AAOS/ABOS

23 Apr 2026 50 min read 101 Views
Anatomy 2008 MCQs - Part 1

Key Takeaway

This high-yield question set (Set 1) for AAOS/ABOS exams rigorously tests foundational orthopedic anatomy. It covers essential musculoskeletal structures, clinical anatomy applications, and topographical regions critical for understanding orthopedic principles and surgical approaches, ensuring comprehensive board preparation.

Orthopedic Anatomy Practice Questions (Set 1): Musculoskeletal & Clinical Concepts for AAOS/ABOS

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

During a retroperitoneal approach to the L4-5 disk, what structure must be ligated to safely mobilize the common iliac vessels toward the midline from laterally and gain exposure?





Explanation

To mobilize the common iliac vessels across the midline, the iliolumbar vein must be ligated. It has a short trunk and can be torn if mobilization is attempted without ligation. It is the only branch off the common iliacs (there are no arterial branches) prior to the terminal branches, the internal (hypogastric) and external iliacs. The middle sacral vessels run distally from the axilla of the bifurcation and are a factor when accessing the L5-S1 disk. Baker JK, Reardon PR, Reardon MJ, et al: Vascular injury in anterior lumbar surgery. Spine 1993;18:2227-2230.

Question 2

The injection shown in Figures 1a and 1b would most benefit a patient who reports which of the following symptoms?





Explanation

The images demonstrate a L5 selective root block as it exits the L5-S1 foramen. This root block best helps relieve pain or paresthesias in the L5 distribution, which is the dorsal first web space and the great toe. The lateral foot is an S1 distribution and would need to be blocked through the posterior first sacral foramen. The anterior shin and thigh represent the L4 root which exits a level above this at the L4-5 foramen. A stocking distribution is nonanatomic and not indicative of a specific root. Magee D: Principles and concepts, in Orthopaedic Physical Assessment, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 1-18.


Question 3

In Figure 2, which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer in preventing valgus instability of the elbow?





Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is the prime stabilizer of the medial aspect of the elbow and is indicated by "B" in the figure. When intact, this anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is a restraint to valgus instability of the elbow. The posterior bundle is regarded as a secondary stabilizer of the medial elbow (C). The transverse bundle (D), annular ligament (A), and biceps tendon (E) do not play a role in valgus stability of the elbow. Jobe F, Elattrache N: Diagnosis and treatment of ulnar collateral ligament injuries in athletes, in Morrey B (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 566.


Question 4

When performing surgical excision of the lesion shown in the MRI scan in Figure 3, what nerve is most likely at risk?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows a large mass (lipoma) in the thenar muscles of the palm. The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar muscles. The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) in the proximal forearm innervates the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and flexor digitorum pollicis to the index and frequently the middle finger. The terminal branch of the AIN innervates only the wrist capsule. The palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve is a sensory structure to the hypothenar area. There is no commonly described recurrent branch of the ulnar nerve.


Question 5

Figure 4a shows the radiograph of a 20-year-old man who has an injury to the right shoulder. Figure 4b shows an arthroscopic view (posterior portal). The arrow points to a





Explanation

The radiograph shows an anterior dislocation of the shoulder. A frequently encountered sequela of this is a compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head, commonly referred to as a Hill-Sachs defect. The arthroscopic view of the glenohumeral joint visualizes the posterior aspect of the humeral head. In the image, the area devoid of cartilage to the right is the bare area. The indentation seen to the left is a Hill-Sachs defect. Matsen FA, Thomas SC, Rockwood CA, et al: Glenohumeral instability, in Rockwood CA, Matsen FA (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 611-754.


Question 6

A 15-year-old girl who swims the breaststroke has had hip pain after training excessively for a national level competition. Based on the MRI scans shown in Figures 5a through 5c, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The MRI scans reveal open physes but no evidence of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, labral tear, or acetabular dysplasia. The femoral neck does not show evidence of a fracture. The muscle tear seen on the right side lies near the musculotendinous junction of the external rotators of the hip at the level of the lesser trochanter, representing the obturator externus. This is consistent with the forced motion required for the breaststroke kick. Grote K, Lincoln TL, Gamble JG: Hip adductor injury in competitive swimmers. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:104-108.


Question 7

During placement of an external fixator for a distal radius fracture, the most commonly injured nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves?





Explanation

Pin track infections and sensory injuries are among the most common complications of external fixation for distal radius fractures. The proximal pins of most distal radius external fixators are placed in the "bare area" of the distal radius, about four finger-breadths above the radial styloid. This corresponds to the area where the dorsal sensory branch of the radial nerve penetrates the fascia dorsal to the brachioradialis tendon to become a subcutaneous structure. Injury to the superficial radial nerve may produce painful dysesthesias and neuromas.


Question 8

Figure 6 shows a sagittal oblique MRI scan. The arrow is pointing to what structure?





Explanation

The meniscofemoral ligaments connect the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the intercondylar wall of the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey (arrow) passes anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament, whereas the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the posterior cruciate ligament. One or the other has been identified in 71% to 100% of cadaver knees, with the ligament of Wrisberg being more common. Clarke HD, Scott WN, Insall JN, et al: Anatomy, in Insall JN, Scott WN (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2006, vol 1, pp 3-66.


Question 9

An 18-year-old woman sustains a twisting injury of the knee while skiing. Figures 7a and 7b show the radiograph and coronal MRI scan of the knee. In addition to the injury shown, what is the most likely associated injury?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows a Segond fracture, which is a small avulsion of the lateral joint capsule from the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia. It is almost always associated with anterior cruciate ligament rupture and often with a tear of either the medial or lateral meniscus. Goldman AB, Pavlov H, Rubenstein D: The Segond fracture of the proximal tibia: A small avulsion that reflects major ligamentous damage. Am J Roentgenol 1988;151:1163-1167. Sanders TG, Miller MD: A systematic approach to magnetic resonance imaging interpretation of sports medicine injuries of the knee. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:131-148.


Question 10

A 42-year-old athletic trainer has a persistent popping sensation about the lateral ankle associated with weakness and pain following a remote injury. Deficiency in what structure directly leads to this pathology?





Explanation

The patient has instability of the peroneal tendon. The superior peroneal retinaculum is the primary retaining structure preventing peroneal subluxation. It is a thickening of fascia that arises off the posterior margin of the distal 1 to 2 cm of the fibula and runs posteriorly to blend with the Achilles tendon sheath. The inferior peroneal retinaculum attaches to the peroneal tubercle of the calcaneus and is not involved in this pathology. A deficient groove in the posterior distal fibula may also be a contributing factor in the development of the condition.


Question 11

A 21-year-old man sustains multiple gunshot wounds to his right upper extremity. He can not extend his digits or his thumb but can extend and radially deviate his wrist. An injury to the radial nerve or one of its branches has most likely occurred at which of the following locations?





Explanation

In this patient, the radial nerve is most likely injured at the level of the radial neck. The radial nerve emerges from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and travels along the spiral groove of the humerus. At the level of the lateral humeral condyle, the radial nerve branches into the posterior interosseous nerve after giving off two cutaneous branches, the superficial radial and the posterior cutaneous. The posterior interosseous nerve travels through the supinator muscle and winds around the radial neck. At this level, the posterior interosseous nerve is vulnerable to injury, particularly following fracture or penetrating trauma. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, p 53.


Question 12

A woman with a neck and chest tumor has weakness in the biceps and paresthesias in the thumb. Brachioradialis and infraspinatus function are normal. The lesion is affecting which of the following structures?





Explanation

The lateral cord terminates as the musculocutaneous nerve and also contributes sensory fibers to the median nerve. Involvement of the C6 root or upper trunk could potentially cause weakness of the infraspinatus and the brachioradialis. The middle trunk and the posterior cord do not contribute motor fibers to the thumb or sensory fibers to the thumb.


Question 13

Figure 8 shows the radiograph of a 76-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. History reveals that he underwent total knee arthroplasty 18 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The radiograph reveals complete loss of joint space with particulate metal debris consistent with total polyethylene failure and metal-on-metal articulation. The components appear to be well fixed and minimal osteolysis is evident. Kilgus DJ, Moreland JR, Finerman GA, et al: Catastrophic wear of tibial polyethylene inserts. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1991;273:223-231.


Question 14

Which of the following radiographic images is best for detecting anterior acetabular deficiency in the dysplastic hip?





Explanation

The false profile view of Lequesne and de Seze is obtained with the patient standing with the affected hip on the cassette, the ipsilateral foot parallel to the cassette, and the pelvis rotated 65 degrees from the plane of the cassette. This view best assesses anterior coverage of the femoral head. Garbuz DS, Masri BA, Haddad F, et al: Clinical and radiographic assessment the young adult with symptomatic dysplasia. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;418:18-22.


Question 15

Figure 9 shows the AP radiograph of a 65-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Although all the choices are known causes of joint degeneration (secondary osteoarthritis), only chondrocalcinosis shows distinct linear calcification of the cartilage due to deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Gout is a recurrent acute arthritis resulting from the deposition of monosodium urate from supersaturated hyperuricemic body fluids. Hemochromotosis is characterized by focal or generalized deposition of iron within body tissues. Arthritis may be present but is less common than other manifestations such as liver cirrhosis, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, and cardiac disease. Rheumatoid arthritis is a nonspecific, usually symmetric inflammation of peripheral joints resulting in destruction of articular and periarticular structures. Ochronosis is a hereditary enzyme deficiency (homogentisic acid oxidase) resulting in deposition of homogentisic acid polymers in articular cartilage. Barrack RL, Booth RE Jr, Lonner JH, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, p 188.


Question 16

If a surgeon inadvertently burrs through the midlateral wall of C5 during a anterior corpectomy, what structure is at greatest risk for injury?





Explanation

The vertebral artery is contained within the vertebral foramen and thus tethered alongside the vertebral body, making it vulnerable to injury if a drill penetrates the lateral wall. The C5 root passes over the C5 pedicle and is not in the vicinity. The C6 root passes under the C5 pedicle but is posterior to the vertebral artery and is only vulnerable at the very posterior-inferior corner. The carotid artery and the vagus nerve are both within the carotid sheath and well anterior. Pfeifer BA, Freidberg SR, Jewell ER: Repair of injured vertebral artery in anterior cervical procedures. Spine 1994;19:1471-1474.


Question 17

In patients with displaced radial neck fractures treated with open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and screws, the plate must be limited to what surface of the radius to avoid impingement on the proximal ulna?





Explanation

The radial head is covered by cartilage on 360 degrees of its circumference. However, with the normal range of forearm rotation of 160 to 180 degrees, there is a consistent area that is nonarticulating. This area is found by palpation of the radial styloid and Lister's tubercle. The hardware should be kept within a 90-degree arc on the radial head subtended by these two structures. Smith GR, Hotchkiss RN: Radial head and neck fractures: Anatomic guidelines for proper placement of internal fixation. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:113-117.


Question 18

A 57-year-old man reports right hip pain that has been progressive for the past several months. The pain is exacerbated by weight-bearing activities and improves somewhat with rest. A radiograph is shown in Figure 10a and a coronal T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 10b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

These are classic findings of osteonecrosis of the hip. The radiograph reveals the subchondral sclerotic pattern commonly seen in osteonecrosis and is quite extensive in this patient. The MRI scan reveals the typical serpentine-like region of low signal intensity with a central zone where the signal is similar to fat. Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 3160-3162.


Question 19

The arrow in Figure 11 points toward a finding consistent with which of the following?





Explanation

The finding of a unilateral absent pedicle is often referred to as a winking owl sign and is a manifestation of pedicle destruction from metastatic disease. As the vertebral body is destroyed from the neoplastic process, it extends into the pedicle and destroys the cortical rim that normally creates the oval ring of the pedicle on an AP image. McLain R, Weinstein J (eds): Rothman-Simeone: The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, p 1173.


Question 20

The attachments of the transverse carpal ligament include which of the following structures?





Explanation

The transverse carpal ligament is the volar boundary of the carpal tunnel. It attaches to the scaphoid and trapezium radially and the pisiform and the hook of the hamate ulnarly. The ulna and trapezoid do not receive attachments of the transverse carpal ligament. Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 471-472.


Question 21

A 23-year-old woman falls from a bicycle and sustains a right knee injury. Figures 12a through 12d show radiographs and MRI scans of the knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The radiographs and MRI scans both show an avulsion of the anterior cruciate ligament, which has been described by Meyers and McKeever in three different fracture patterns. Type I fractures are nondisplaced or have minimal displacement of the anterior margin. Type II fractures have superior displacement of their anterior aspect with an intact posterior hinge. Type III fractures are completely displaced. Although the injury is visible on the radiographs, it is more subtle in adults than children. Thus, MRI is helpful in clarifying this injury in adults. Open or arthroscopic reduction and internal fixation is recommended for type II and type III fractures that do not respond to closed reduction. Meyers MH, McKeever FM: Fracture of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1677-1684. Wiss DA, Watson JT: Fractures of the tibial plateau, in Rockwood CA, Green DP, Bucholz RW, et al (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1920-1953.


Question 22

A 25-year-old man has a mass on the medial aspect of the left knee. He reports that the mass has been present for several years, but a recent increase in physical activity has resulted in periodic tenderness. Radiographs are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The radiographs reveal a sessile lesion projecting from the medial aspect of the distal femur. The lesion shares the cortex with the bone and the base communicates with the medullary space of the femur. This is the classic appearance of an osteochondroma, the most common benign tumor of bone. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.


Question 23

A previously asymptomatic 40-year-old man injures his shoulder in a fall. Examination shows that he is unable to lift the hand away from his back while maximally internally rotated. An axial MRI scan of the shoulder is shown in Figure 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The MRI scan shows detachment of the subscapularis from its insertion on the lesser tuberosity. The examination finding is consistent with a positive lift-off test, also indicating a tear of the subscapularis. Lyons RP, Green A: Subscapularis tendon tears. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:353-363.


Question 24

A patient is treated with volar plating for a distal radius fracture. The CT scan shown in Figure 15 is obtained after union of the fracture because the patient reports ongoing symptoms. The prominent hardware is most likely injuring what tendon?





Explanation

Extensor tendon injuries have been reported after volar plating of distal radius fractures. The CT scan shows prominent dorsal hardware a few millimeters ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The second compartment, the ECRL and ECRB, is radial to Lister's tubercle. The ECU runs along the distal ulna. The contents of the fourth dorsal compartment run just ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The EDC tendon is likely irritated in this patient. The EPB runs along the radial border of the radius and is well away from prominent hardware. Benson EC, Decarvalho A, Mikola EA, et al: Two potential causes of EPL rupture after distal radius volar plate fixation. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2006;451:218-222.


Question 25

A 9-year-old child sustains a proximal tibial physeal fracture with a hyperextension mechanism. What structure is at most risk for serious injury?





Explanation

The most serious injury associated with proximal tibial physeal fracture is vascular trauma. The popliteal artery is tethered by its major branches near the posterior surface of the proximal tibial epiphysis. During tibial physeal displacement, the popliteal artery is susceptible to injury. Injuries to the other structures are less common.


Question 26

During an open posterior approach to the shoulder, the axillary nerve is at risk as it exits the quadrangular space. What forms the superior boundary of this space?





Explanation

The quadrangular space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery exit the axilla through this space.

Question 27

In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level will most likely result in direct compression of which neural structure?





Explanation

Far-lateral or extraforaminal disc herniations compress the exiting nerve root at that specific level. At L4-L5, the L4 nerve root exits below the L4 pedicle and is directly compressed by a far-lateral herniation, whereas a paracentral herniation typically compresses the traversing L5 root.

Question 28

During the ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, significant hemorrhage occurs while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to an injury to the corona mortis, which represents an anastomosis between the obturator vessels and which of the following?





Explanation

The corona mortis ('crown of death') is a critical vascular connection between the obturator vessels and the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels. It is located posterior to the superior pubic ramus at a distance of roughly 4-9 cm from the pubic symphysis.

Question 29

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Prior to piercing the hip capsule, it courses posteriorly between which two muscles?





Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the quadratus femoris but posterior to the obturator externus. It then travels superiorly along the posterior capsule to supply the femoral head, making it vulnerable during posterior approaches.

Question 30

During reconstruction of the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments for an acromioclavicular joint separation, anatomic placement is crucial. Which of the following best describes the normal anatomic orientation of the CC ligaments?





Explanation

The conoid ligament attaches posteromedially on the clavicle at the conoid tubercle, acting primarily to resist superior displacement. The trapezoid ligament attaches anterolaterally on the trapezoid line and resists axial compression.

Question 31

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), excessive lateral dissection risks injury to the vertebral artery. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically branches from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at C6 in approximately 90-95% of individuals. Dissection lateral to the longus colli muscle borders increases the risk of iatrogenic injury.

Question 32

When treating stenosing tenosynovitis (trigger finger) surgically, the A1 pulley is released. To prevent biomechanical bowstringing of the flexor tendons, which two pulleys of the finger must remain intact?





Explanation

The A2 and A4 pulleys are the major biomechanical stabilizers of the flexor tendon mechanism. Complete division of these critical pulleys leads to tendon bowstringing and severe loss of active interphalangeal joint flexion.

Question 33

When establishing the anterolateral portal for ankle arthroscopy, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) is at risk. What is the most reliable external landmark to minimize injury to the SPN during portal placement?





Explanation

The anterolateral ankle portal is ideally placed just lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon to minimize risk to the superficial peroneal nerve. Transillumination is also frequently used to visualize and avoid the branches of the SPN.

Question 34

The volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius exposes the bone while navigating between muscle intervals. To safely protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) during proximal exposure, the forearm should be placed in which position?





Explanation

Maximal supination moves the insertion of the supinator muscle anteriorly and wraps the PIN laterally, away from the surgical field. This maneuver safely displaces the nerve during the proximal Henry approach.

Question 35

The direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip involves splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?





Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Its main trunk courses approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, marking the safe limit for proximal dissection.

Question 36



During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, accurate femoral tunnel placement is required. What is the normal anatomic relationship of the femoral footprints of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) and the popliteus tendon?





Explanation

On the lateral femoral epicondyle, the popliteus tendon insertion is situated distal and anterior to the attachment of the fibular collateral ligament. Precise identification of these footprints is critical for anatomic PLC reconstruction.

Question 37

During the deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the conjoined tendon is often retracted to gain exposure. How far distal to the tip of the coracoid process does the musculocutaneous nerve typically enter the coracobrachialis muscle?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Retractors placed below the conjoined tendon must be carefully positioned to avoid compression or traction injury to this nerve.

Question 38

When performing a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, which structure must be carefully identified and ligated to safely retract the brachioradialis laterally and the pronator teres medially?





Explanation

The radial recurrent artery (the 'leash of Henry') crosses the operative field in the proximal volar approach to the radius. It must be ligated to allow mobilization of the brachioradialis laterally and expose the supinator.

Question 39

During a posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach to the acetabulum, the quadratus femoris muscle is carefully preserved or only partially released. This is primarily to protect which of the following structures?





Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head and runs closely related to the superior border of the quadratus femoris. Protecting the quadratus femoris or leaving a stable cuff minimizes the risk of iatrogenic injury to the MFCA.

Question 40

Which of the following best describes the precise anatomic attachment of the popliteus tendon on the lateral femoral condyle relative to the fibular collateral ligament (FCL)?





Explanation

The femoral footprint of the popliteus tendon is situated anterior and distal (inferior) to the origin of the fibular collateral ligament on the lateral femoral condyle. Understanding this relationship is critical for anatomical posterolateral corner reconstructions.

Question 41

When performing a lateral transpsoas approach to the lumbar spine (LLIF), a surgeon must navigate the lumbar plexus safely. Which nerve lies directly on the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle?





Explanation

The genitofemoral nerve pierces the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle and runs longitudinally down its anterior aspect. It is at significant risk of iatrogenic injury during anterior and lateral approaches to the lumbar spine.

Question 42

The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve provides innervation to the thenar muscles. Which of the following is the most common anatomic variation of its course relative to the transverse carpal ligament?





Explanation

The extraligamentous course is the most common variant of the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve, occurring in roughly 50-70% of individuals. The nerve typically branches off the median nerve just distal to the transverse carpal ligament and curves back to innervate the thenar musculature.

Question 43

During a lateral extensile approach for a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, full-thickness flaps are elevated. Which structure is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury during the creation of the inferior and posterior limb corner?





Explanation

The sural nerve courses along the lateral aspect of the foot and ankle, posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is highly susceptible to injury when creating the corner of the 'L' flap in a lateral extensile approach to the calcaneus.

Question 44

In an anterior pelvic approach (ilioinguinal), a vascular anastomosis known as the 'corona mortis' may be encountered. This structure typically connects the obturator vessels with which of the following?





Explanation

The corona mortis is an arterial or venous anastomosis between the obturator vessels and the external iliac or deep inferior epigastric vessels. It lies on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and can cause catastrophic bleeding if inadvertently disrupted.

Question 45

The axillary nerve is at risk during inferior capsular release of the shoulder. It exits the axilla through the quadrangular space. What forms the superior border of this space?





Explanation

The quadrangular space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery traverse this space.

Question 46

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Where does the LUCL typically insert?





Explanation

The LUCL originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. Disruption of this ligament leads to posterolateral rotatory instability.

Question 47

A 25-year-old gymnast presents with ulnar-sided wrist pain. MRI reveals a central tear of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC). Why is debridement preferred over repair for this specific injury pattern?





Explanation

The central articular disc of the TFCC is avascular, whereas the peripheral 15-20% receives blood supply from the ulnar artery branches. Consequently, central tears do not heal well and are typically treated with debridement.

Question 48

A patient presents with an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. Which nerve is most likely compressed or injured?





Explanation

The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) innervates the flexor pollicis longus, the flexor digitorum profundus to the index and long fingers, and the pronator quadratus. An AIN palsy presents with the classic inability to make an 'OK' sign.

Question 49

During a posterior approach to the hip, the surgeon must remember the anatomical relationship of the sciatic nerve to the short external rotators. In the majority of the population, the sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen in what relation to the piriformis muscle?





Explanation

In the majority of the population (approximately 80-85%), the entire sciatic nerve exits the pelvis inferior to the piriformis muscle. Variations exist where the common peroneal division pierces or passes superior to the piriformis.

Question 50

In the cervical spine, the vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which vertebral level?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level, although anatomical variations can occur. It ascends through the transverse foramina of C6 to C1 before entering the foramen magnum.

Question 51

Which of the following structures passes anterior to the medial malleolus and is at risk during the placement of the anteromedial portal in ankle arthroscopy?





Explanation

The great saphenous vein and the saphenous nerve travel anterior to the medial malleolus. They are at significant risk of injury during the establishment of the anteromedial ankle arthroscopy portal.

Question 52

In the evaluation of a patient with scapular winging, physical examination reveals medial prominence of the scapula when pushing against a wall. Injury to which nerve is the most likely cause?





Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior weakness, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is typically due to trapezius dysfunction, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve.

Question 53

During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon must be mindful of the superficial palmar arch. This structure is primarily formed by the continuation of which artery?





Explanation

The superficial palmar arch is primarily the direct continuation of the ulnar artery, which anastomoses with the superficial palmar branch of the radial artery. It lies superficial to the flexor tendons and is at risk if the incision extends too far distally.

Question 54

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles. Which statement accurately describes the tension pattern of these bundles during knee range of motion?





Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tight in flexion, whereas the posterolateral (PL) bundle is tight in extension. This biomechanical relationship is fundamental in assessing knee stability and performing anatomic ACL reconstructions.

Question 55

During a posterolateral approach to the ankle for fixation of a posterior malleolar fracture, the internervous plane is developed between the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and the peroneal muscles. Which nerve is at greatest risk during the superficial dissection of this approach?





Explanation

The sural nerve runs superficially with the small saphenous vein along the posterolateral aspect of the ankle. It is at significant risk during the superficial dissection in the posterolateral approach.

Question 56

The major blood supply to the body of the talus is derived primarily from which of the following vessels?





Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, provides the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the sinus tarsi.

Question 57

During the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip, an internervous plane is utilized. Which of the following describes the correct muscular interval and their respective innervations?





Explanation

The Smith-Petersen approach utilizes the superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 58

During a posterior approach to the humerus, the radial nerve is identified. It passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment through the lateral intermuscular septum. At what average distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does this occur?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment at an average distance of 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. Identifying this landmark is critical during posterior plating of the humerus.

Question 59

During an ilioinguinal approach for an acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage occurs while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to an injury of an anastomotic vessel connecting which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The "corona mortis" is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels (internal iliac system) and the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is at risk during the ilioinguinal approach.

Question 60

When extending the anterolateral approach to the distal tibia, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury as it crosses the surgical field?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve exits the lateral compartment to become subcutaneous approximately 10-12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It crosses the surgical field from lateral to medial when extending an anterolateral tibial approach distally.

Question 61

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of external rotation of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. If the cyst is located strictly at the spinoglenoid notch, which muscle will show denervation changes on EMG?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch affects both.

Question 62

The volar (Henry) approach to the radius utilizes an internervous plane. Proximally, this plane is found between which of the following two muscles?





Explanation

Proximally, the volar Henry approach exploits the internervous plane between the brachioradialis (radial nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve). Distally, the plane shifts to run between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis.

Question 63

To preserve the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head during a posterior approach to the hip, which of the following structures must be carefully protected as it defines the upper limit of the deep dissection?





Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posteriorly and is protected by the intact obturator externus muscle, making it a critical landmark to preserve during a posterior approach.

Question 64

A surgeon is placing pedicle screws in the L4 vertebra during a lumbar fusion. A breach of the inferior cortex of the L4 pedicle places which of the following structures at highest immediate risk of injury?





Explanation

The L4 nerve root exits the neural foramen immediately inferior to the L4 pedicle. Therefore, an inferior breach of the L4 pedicle directly endangers the exiting L4 nerve root.

Question 65

Placement of an anterior shoulder arthroscopy portal typically requires passing lateral to the coracoid process. If the portal is placed medially to the coracoid by mistake, which structure is at greatest immediate risk of injury?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the conjoint tendon approximately 3-5 cm distal to the coracoid process. Placing the anterior portal medial to the coracoid process significantly endangers this nerve and the major neurovascular bundle.

Question 66

During a medial approach to the midfoot, the surgeon encounters the "Master Knot of Henry". This anatomic structure is formed by the crossing of which two tendons?





Explanation

The "Master Knot of Henry" is located in the plantar midfoot near the navicular. It is the site where the flexor hallucis longus tendon crosses dorsal (superior) to the flexor digitorum longus tendon.

Question 67

While performing an in situ decompression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, the surgeon releases the aponeurosis connecting the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). This aponeurotic band is classically known as:





Explanation

Osborne's ligament connects the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris, forming the roof of the cubital tunnel. The Arcade of Struthers is located more proximally in the arm and can be an independent site of ulnar nerve compression.

Question 68

In an extensile lateral approach for an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, a full-thickness flap is created. Which of the following structures must be intentionally kept within the flap to prevent necrosis and wound complications?





Explanation

The extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus utilizes a full-thickness "no-touch" flap. The sural nerve and lesser saphenous vein must be included within the retracted superior flap to preserve flap vascularity and avoid nerve injury.

Question 69

The anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip joint utilizes the interval between the gluteus medius and the tensor fasciae latae. Since both are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, what anatomical characteristic makes this approach viable?





Explanation

The Watson-Jones approach is an intermuscular (not internervous) plane since both muscles are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve. Dissection is safe as long as it does not proceed more than 4-5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter, which avoids injuring the nerve branches.

Question 70

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), excessive lateral dissection carries the risk of vertebral artery injury. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen from the neck?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at the level of C6 in about 90% of individuals. It bypasses the transverse foramen of C7, making it vulnerable to injury anteriorly at the cervicothoracic junction.

Question 71

During a posterior approach to the knee, the surgeon dissects through the popliteal fossa. From superficial to deep (posterior to anterior), what is the correct order of the major neurovascular structures encountered?





Explanation

In the popliteal fossa, from superficial (posterior skin) to deep (anterior/closest to the bone capsule), the structures are arranged strictly as Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, and Popliteal artery. This makes the artery the most difficult to repair if injured.

Question 72

To safely expose the anterior L4-L5 disc space during an anterior retroperitoneal approach, which of the following vascular structures typically requires ligation and division to allow mobilization of the common iliac vessels?





Explanation

The iliolumbar vein typically crosses the L5 body and tethers the left common iliac vein. Ligation is critical for safely mobilizing the left common iliac vein medially during an L4-L5 anterior exposure.

Question 73

When performing a volar Henry approach to the proximal radius, which structure must be ligated to safely mobilize the brachioradialis laterally and the pronator teres medially?





Explanation

The recurrent radial artery forms a tether across the proximal interval of the Henry approach (brachioradialis and pronator teres). It must be identified and ligated to mobilize the mobile wad laterally.

Question 74

During a lateral extensile approach to the calcaneus for an intra-articular fracture, the sural nerve is at risk of injury. What is the normal anatomic course of the sural nerve at the level of the lateral malleolus?





Explanation

The sural nerve passes posterior to the lateral malleolus and runs superficial to the peroneal tendons and their retinaculum. It must be carefully elevated with the full-thickness flap.

Question 75

During an ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, the surgeon encounters bleeding from the 'corona mortis.' This vascular structure represents an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) vessels and the internal iliac (obturator) vessels. It lies over the superior pubic ramus.

Question 76

A patient is undergoing arthroscopic medial meniscus repair using an inside-out technique. Which anatomic structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury when passing sutures through the posterior horn?





Explanation

The saphenous nerve (specifically the sartorial branch) is at greatest risk during inside-out medial meniscus repairs. A posteromedial safety incision is used to protect it.

Question 77

During a direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) for total hip arthroplasty, the superficial internervous plane is developed between which two muscles?





Explanation

The superficial plane in the direct anterior approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 78

A patient presents with weakness in internal rotation and adduction of the shoulder, specifically lacking the ability to perform latissimus dorsi pull-downs. Which of the following cords of the brachial plexus provides the primary innervation to this muscle?





Explanation

The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve, which arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

Question 79

In an adult patient, which vessel provides the primary blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible supply in adults.

Question 80

During an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia, the superficial peroneal nerve must be identified and protected. At what approximate distance proximal to the lateral malleolus does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve normally pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.

Question 81

During anterior cervical spine surgery, knowledge of vertebral artery anatomy is crucial. The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically arises from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at the C6 vertebral level in over 90% of individuals.

Question 82

In the anatomic reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL), the femoral tunnel placement is highly sensitive. The exact anatomic femoral insertion of the MPFL is located in which relation to bony landmarks?





Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL (Schöttle's point) is located in the saddle-shaped sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.

Question 83

During hip arthroscopy, a variety of portals are established. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the placement of the anteroinferior portal?





Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is at highest risk during the establishment of anterior and anteroinferior portals in hip arthroscopy.

Question 84

When performing an arthroscopic subacromial decompression, brisk bleeding may be encountered from the acromial branch of the thoracoacromial artery. This vessel typically runs in close proximity to which structure?





Explanation

The acromial branch of the thoracoacromial artery runs parallel to and supplies the coracoacromial (CA) ligament. It is routinely encountered during CA ligament release or acromioplasty.

Question 85

A patient presents with an attritional tendon rupture following a distal radius fracture. The ruptured tendon normally passes through the third dorsal extensor compartment. Which tendon is this?





Explanation

The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon is the sole occupant of the third dorsal extensor compartment and uses Lister's tubercle as a fulcrum.

Question 86

The internervous plane for the Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach to the hip lies between muscles innervated by which of the following pairs of nerves?





Explanation

The anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve) superficially. Deeply, the plane lies between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 87

During a volar Henry approach to the forearm, which of the following vascular structures must be mobilized and its recurrent branches ligated to safely expose the proximal radius?





Explanation

During the proximal exposure of the radius via the volar Henry approach, the radial artery must be identified and protected. Its recurrent branches (the "leash of Henry") must be ligated to safely mobilize the artery ulnarly and expose the supinator.

Question 88

Which of the following tendons are contained within the first dorsal compartment of the wrist?





Explanation

The first dorsal compartment of the wrist contains the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons. Stenosing tenosynovitis of this compartment is known as de Quervain's tenosynovitis.

Question 89

What nerve is at greatest risk of injury during a standard medial approach to the knee for a medial meniscus repair?





Explanation

The infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve crosses the proximal anteromedial tibia from medial to lateral. It is at high risk of iatrogenic injury during anteromedial incisions, potentially causing medial knee numbness or neuroma.

Question 90

A 25-year-old male sustains a midshaft humerus fracture and is noted to have a profound wrist drop on examination. The nerve responsible for this deficit passes through which of the following anatomical spaces?





Explanation

The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery exit the axilla to enter the posterior compartment of the arm via the triangular interval. The radial nerve is frequently injured in midshaft humerus fractures (Holstein-Lewis variant).

Question 91

In the lumbar spine, a central-posterolateral disc herniation at the L4-L5 level will most likely impinge which of the following nerve roots?





Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a typical posterolateral disc herniation impinges the traversing nerve root rather than the exiting one. Therefore, an L4-L5 herniation affects the L5 nerve root.

Question 92

Which ligament is considered the primary static restraint to anterior translation of the talus relative to the tibia in a plantarflexed ankle?





Explanation

The anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is the weakest of the lateral ankle ligaments and acts as the primary restraint to anterior translation of the talus on the tibia. It is the most commonly torn ligament in an ankle inversion sprain.

Question 93

During an Ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, the "lateral window" is bounded medially by which of the following anatomical structures?





Explanation

The ilioinguinal approach provides access via three distinct windows. The lateral window is bounded laterally by the ASIS/iliac crest and medially by the iliopectineal fascia.

Question 94

A surgeon is performing a posterolateral (Kocher) approach to the radial head. Maximal pronation of the forearm during this approach is necessary to protect which of the following neural structures?





Explanation

Pronation of the forearm translates the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) further anteriorly and medially, away from the surgical field. This maneuver significantly decreases the risk of iatrogenic injury during a Kocher approach.

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