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Orthopedic Ob Reconstru Review | Dr Hutaif Hip & Knee R -...

Orthopedic Hip And Knee Review | Dr Hutaif Hip & Knee R -...

20 Jun 2026 53 min read 120 Views
Illustration of eds orthopaedic knowledge update - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

Key Takeaway

This topic focuses on Orthopedic MCQS online Hip and knee ADULT RECONSTRUCTION, An **eds orthopaedic knowledge update** clarifies that a quadriceps snip during revision total knee arthroplasty does not alter postoperative physical therapy, allowing no restriction in range of motion or weight bearing. Early signs of probable infection after primary total knee arthroplasty include increased pain, swelling, erythema, and wound drainage two weeks post-surgery.

Orthopedic Hip And Knee Review | Dr Hutaif Hip & Knee R -...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain 15 years after a primary cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show eccentric wear of the femoral head within the acetabular cup and focal osteolysis around the proximal femur. Which of the following cells is the primary effector of the osteolysis cascade triggered by the wear debris?
Explanation
Polyethylene wear particles are phagocytosed by macrophages, which then release proinflammatory cytokines (such as TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6). These cytokines activate osteoclasts via the RANKL pathway, leading to periprosthetic osteolysis and aseptic loosening.
Question 2
According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a major criterion, diagnostic in isolation, for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?
Explanation
Major criteria for PJI (which are definitive for diagnosis on their own) include a sinus tract communicating directly with the joint, or two positive periprosthetic cultures with phenotypically identical organisms. A single positive culture or elevated biomarkers represent minor criteria.
Question 3
During a total knee arthroplasty utilizing a gap balancing technique, the surgeon evaluates the joint after initial resections and finds that the knee is tight in flexion and perfectly balanced in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to correct this mismatch?
Explanation
A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap can be addressed by increasing the posterior slope of the proximal tibial cut (which increases the flexion space without significantly affecting extension) or by downsizing the femoral component to decrease the AP dimension. Resecting more distal femur or releasing the posterior capsule only affects the extension gap.
Question 4
A 72-year-old female sustains a fall 5 years after an uncemented THA. Radiographs reveal a periprosthetic fracture around the femoral stem extending from the distal aspect of the lesser trochanter to just proximal to the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose, but the surrounding cortical bone stock is thick and adequate. How is this fracture classified according to the Vancouver system?
Explanation
Vancouver B fractures occur around or just below the tip of the stem. B1 indicates a well-fixed stem; B2 indicates a loose stem but adequate bone stock; B3 indicates a loose stem with severely deficient bone stock. Since the stem is loose with adequate bone, it is a Vancouver B2 fracture, which typically requires revision using a long-stem prosthesis.
Question 5
The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip is increasingly popular for THA. This approach utilizes a superficial internervous plane between which of the following muscles?

Explanation
The direct anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) superficially. The deep plane is between the rectus femoris (femoral n.) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.).
Question 6
A 68-year-old female presents with a painful "catch" and a palpable pop at the anterior aspect of her knee when extending from a flexed position, one year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. What is the primary etiology of this phenomenon?
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome primarily occurs in posterior-stabilized total knees. It is caused by the formation of a fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella that engages the intercondylar box of the femoral component during deep flexion and "clunks" out as the knee extends (typically around 30-45 degrees).
Question 7
Which of the following is the hallmark histologic feature of adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR/ALVAL) associated with a failed metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation
ALVAL (Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis-Associated Lesions) is characterized histologically by a prominent perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. This represents a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (cobalt and chromium) generated by the bearing surface.
Question 8
To minimize the risk of dislocation following a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, the acetabular component should optimally be placed within Lewinnek's safe zone. What are the parameters of this zone?
Explanation
Lewinnek's safe zone for the acetabular cup is described as 40 ± 10 degrees of abduction (inclination) and 15 ± 10 degrees of anteversion. Implants placed outside this zone have a significantly higher risk of both anterior and posterior dislocation depending on the specific malposition.
Question 9
In native knee kinematics, femoral rollback during deep flexion is essential to improve the moment arm of the extensor mechanism and prevent posterior impingement. This rollback is primarily driven by the tension in which of the following structures?
Explanation
As the knee flexes, the tension in the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) forces the femur to roll and translate posteriorly on the tibial plateau. This femoral rollback allows for increased flexion before the posterior femur impinges on the posterior tibia.
Question 10
A 55-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene THA returns 8 years postoperatively with vague groin pain. Joint aspiration yields a sterile, gray-tinged fluid. Serum cobalt is markedly elevated, while chromium levels are normal. Radiographs show no cup loosening. Which of the following is the most likely source of the problem?

Explanation
Elevated serum cobalt out of proportion to chromium in the setting of a non-metal-on-metal bearing strongly suggests mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck taper junction. This results in local adverse tissue reactions.
Question 11
During a total knee arthroplasty for a fixed, severe valgus deformity, soft tissue balancing is required. Which structure is typically the first to be released on the lateral side to correct a tight extension gap?
Explanation
In a valgus knee, the iliotibial band (ITB) is typically the primary tight structure in extension. The standard sequence of lateral release for a fixed valgus deformity usually begins with the ITB (or posterolateral capsule), followed by the LCL and popliteus depending on whether the tightness persists in flexion or extension.
Question 12
A 40-year-old female underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic THA 3 years ago and now complains of a loud squeaking noise from her hip during gait, without significant pain. Which of the following factors most strongly correlates with the development of squeaking in this bearing surface?
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is a multifactorial phenomenon, but it is most strongly associated with edge loading caused by component malposition (such as excessive cup inclination or retroversion) and microseparation, which disrupt normal fluid film lubrication.
Question 13
A 78-year-old female sustains a distal femur fracture above a well-fixed posterior-stabilized TKA (Lewis-Rorabeck Type II). The fracture is comminuted and extends to the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

Explanation
Lewis-Rorabeck Type II fractures (displaced fracture, well-fixed prosthesis) are primarily treated with open reduction and internal fixation, usually with a laterally applied periarticular locking plate. While retrograde nailing is an option for some fractures, many posterior-stabilized knee designs feature a closed intercondylar box that blocks nail passage.
Question 14
In total knee arthroplasty, inadvertent internal rotation of the femoral component during bone preparation leads to which of the following kinematic complications?
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component shifts the trochlear groove medially relative to the extensor mechanism, effectively increasing the Q-angle. This predisposes the patient to lateral patellar maltracking and subluxation. It also results in a tight medial flexion gap.
Question 15
What is the primary mechanism by which polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) bone cement secures a total joint arthroplasty component to the host bone?
Explanation
PMMA acts as a grout, not an adhesive glue. It provides initial rigid fixation by penetrating the trabecular interstices of cancellous bone and creating a robust mechanical interlock once it polymerizes and hardens.
Question 16
A patient with ankylosing spondylitis and a completely fused lumbar spine requires a THA. How does this lack of spinopelvic mobility affect functional acetabular cup orientation when the patient transitions from a standing to a sitting position?
Explanation
Normally, when moving from standing to sitting, the lumbar spine flexes and the pelvis tilts posteriorly, which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the femur. In a stiff spine, the pelvis cannot tilt posteriorly, leading to a lack of necessary functional anteversion. This results in anterior impingement of the femoral neck on the cup and subsequent posterior dislocation.
Question 17
When planning the surgical management of a chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) of the knee, which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to a single-stage (direct exchange) revision?
Explanation
A successful single-stage revision heavily relies on the use of targeted, organism-specific antibiotics loaded into the bone cement. If the infecting organism is unknown preoperatively, or if it is a highly resistant pathogen (e.g., MRSA, VRE, fungal), a single-stage exchange is contraindicated, and a two-stage revision with an antibiotic spacer is standard of care.
Question 18
A 65-year-old female presents with an intractable Trendelenburg lurch and recurrent hip instability 2 years following a THA via a lateral approach. MRI confirms complete avulsion of the gluteus medius and minimus tendons with severe fatty infiltration and atrophy of the muscle bellies. What is the most reliable surgical salvage option for stability?

Explanation
In the setting of chronic, irreparable abductor deficiency with severe fatty atrophy, direct repairs and muscle transfers have unacceptably high failure rates. To prevent dislocation while allowing a functional range of motion, revising the acetabular construct to a dual mobility bearing is highly reliable and preferred over constrained liners, which have higher rates of mechanical failure and loosening.
Question 19
When evaluating a patient for a medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA), which of the following clinical or radiographic findings is traditionally considered a strict contraindication according to the Kozinn and Scott criteria?
Explanation
Classic Kozinn and Scott criteria established strict contraindications for UKA, including a flexion contracture >15 degrees, varus deformity >10 degrees, ROM <90 degrees, and inflammatory arthritis. An intact ACL is generally required for a mobile-bearing UKA. Weight and age limits have been largely expanded or eliminated in modern indications.
Question 20
The introduction of highly crosslinked polyethylene (HXLPE) in total hip arthroplasty has drastically reduced volumetric wear rates and osteolysis. What is the primary mechanical trade-off associated with the high-dose gamma irradiation process used to create HXLPE?
Explanation
High-dose gamma irradiation breaks molecular chains to create free radicals, which then recombine to form crosslinks, significantly improving wear resistance. However, this process alters the crystalline structure, resulting in decreased mechanical properties, specifically lower yield strength, ultimate tensile strength, and fatigue resistance. This makes HXLPE more susceptible to fracture under high-stress conditions like rim loading.
Question 21
A surgeon is performing a primary total knee arthroplasty. After making the initial bone cuts, trial components are placed. The knee is found to be tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension. Which of the following technical adjustments is the most appropriate to address this mismatch?
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension has an isolated tight flexion gap. Increasing the posterior slope of the tibial cut resects more posterior tibial bone, effectively increasing the flexion gap without significantly altering the extension gap. Resecting more distal femur or releasing the posterior capsule would affect the extension gap.
Question 22
During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon opts to increase the femoral neck offset by selecting a different stem option, without changing the vertical neck length or the center of rotation. What is the primary biomechanical effect of this change?
Explanation
Increasing femoral offset laterally displaces the greater trochanter, which increases the lever arm (moment arm) of the abductor muscles. A longer abductor moment arm means less muscle force is required to maintain a level pelvis during single-leg stance, which consequently decreases the overall joint reaction force across the hip.
Question 23
According to the classic Lewinnek 'safe zone', what is the recommended target range for acetabular cup anteversion and inclination to minimize the risk of dislocation in a primary total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation
The Lewinnek safe zone for acetabular component placement in total hip arthroplasty is defined as an inclination of 40° ± 10° and anteversion of 15° ± 10°. Placing the cup within this zone has traditionally been associated with a lower risk of postoperative dislocation.
Question 24
A 65-year-old female presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years postoperatively. Joint aspiration yields a synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count of 2,500 cells/µL with 75% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Her serum CRP is 15 mg/L. According to the 2013/2018 Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, what is the next best step in diagnosis or management?
Explanation
The patient's aspirate results (WBC 2,500 and 75% PMNs) are equivocal/indeterminate for a late periprosthetic joint infection (thresholds are typically WBC > 3,000 and PMN > 80%). In cases of indeterminate results, further testing such as synovial alpha-defensin, synovial CRP, or repeat aspiration is recommended to confirm or rule out infection.
Question 25
A 45-year-old male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. At his 2-year follow-up, he notes an audible squeaking sound from his hip during ambulation, though he denies any pain. Radiographs show well-fixed components in acceptable alignment. What is the most recognized mechanical etiology for squeaking in this specific bearing?
Explanation
Squeaking is a known phenomenon specific to hard-on-hard bearings, particularly ceramic-on-ceramic. It is most commonly associated with component malposition (e.g., steep cup angle) leading to edge loading, loss of fluid film lubrication, and micro-separation or impingement during the gait cycle.
Question 26
A 35-year-old male presents with severe groin pain. Plain radiographs of the pelvis demonstrate a 'crescent sign' in the anterosuperior aspect of the left femoral head, indicative of a subchondral fracture, but the overall contour of the femoral head is maintained with preserved joint space. According to the Ficat and Arlet classification for osteonecrosis, what stage does this represent?
Explanation
In the Ficat and Arlet classification of femoral head osteonecrosis: Stage I has normal x-rays but abnormal MRI/bone scan. Stage II shows cystic/sclerotic changes with a normal contour. Stage III is characterized by subchondral fracture (the crescent sign) and early subchondral collapse, but joint space is preserved. Stage IV involves secondary osteoarthritis with joint space narrowing.
Question 27
A 72-year-old female with a history of a cementless total hip arthroplasty falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture. Radiographs show a fracture around the stem tip. The stem is loose and has subsided, but the proximal femoral bone stock remains adequate.

Based on the Vancouver classification, what is the injury type and the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Explanation
A fracture around the stem or just below it is a Vancouver type B. Because the stem is loose (subsided), it is not a B1. Because the proximal bone stock is adequate, it is a B2 (loose stem, good bone). The standard treatment for a Vancouver B2 fracture is revision arthroplasty using a longer stem (often a diaphyseal-engaging splined, tapered stem) that bypasses the fracture, frequently combined with cerclage wiring.
Question 28
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon assesses patellar tracking and notes lateral subluxation of the patella as the knee is flexed. Which of the following intraoperative technical errors is LEAST likely to cause this lateral maltracking?
Explanation
Lateral maltracking of the patella is caused by an increased Q-angle or component malrotation. Internal rotation of the femoral or tibial components, medialization of the femoral component, and lateralization of the patellar button all effectively increase the Q-angle and promote lateral subluxation. Conversely, placing the patellar button slightly medially on the native patella lateralizes the bony patella relative to the trochlea, which IMPROVES tracking. Thus, medialization of the patellar button is the exception.
Question 29
Which of the following best describes the normal 'screw-home' kinematic mechanism of the knee as it moves from active flexion into terminal extension in an open kinetic chain?
Explanation
The 'screw-home' mechanism provides stability to the knee in full extension. Due to the asymmetry of the femoral condyles (the medial articular surface is longer than the lateral), as the knee reaches terminal extension in an open kinetic chain, the tibia externally rotates on the femur. In a closed kinetic chain, the femur internally rotates on the fixed tibia.
Question 30
A 55-year-old female with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain and swelling 6 years postoperatively. Blood cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. An MRI with MARS reveals a large cystic mass.

What histological finding is most characteristic of this adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL)?
Explanation
Aseptic Lymphocyte-dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesion (ALVAL) is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction seen in metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty. Histologically, it is characterized by a dense perivascular infiltrate of T-lymphocytes, macrophage accumulation, and varying degrees of tissue necrosis (forming pseudotumors). Multinucleated giant cells with birefringent particles describe polyethylene wear debris, not ALVAL.
Question 31
Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is widely used in modern total hip arthroplasty to reduce volumetric wear. Which of the following is a recognized biomechanical trade-off resulting from the increased radiation dose used to cross-link the polyethylene?
Explanation
While high doses of gamma radiation improve the wear resistance of polyethylene by creating cross-links, it negatively affects its mechanical properties, resulting in decreased yield strength, ultimate tensile strength, and fatigue resistance. This can make the liner more susceptible to fracture or rim damage, particularly in thin liners or edge-loading situations.
Question 32
Dual mobility articulations in total hip arthroplasty are primarily utilized for patients at high risk of dislocation. Which of the following is a unique complication specifically associated with dual mobility constructs?
Explanation
Intraprosthetic dislocation is a complication unique to dual mobility cups. It occurs when the small inner prosthetic head dissociates from the larger, mobile polyethylene liner. This can occur due to wear of the polyethylene retention rim over time or iatrogenic damage during closed reduction attempts.
Question 33
During a standard posterior approach to the hip (Moore or Southern approach), the short external rotators are sharply released. Which of the following vessels provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head and is at significant risk of injury if dissection is carried too close to the intertrochanteric crest or quadratus femoris?
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its deep branch, provides the main arterial blood supply to the adult femoral head. It crosses posterior to the obturator externus tendon and anterior to the quadratus femoris. Dissection or release of the quadratus femoris too close to the femur can injure this crucial vessel.
Question 34
A 78-year-old female undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty for massive aseptic loosening. Intraoperatively, the surgeon notes that the superior half of the acetabulum moves completely independently of the inferior half, indicating a transverse fracture line through the cotyloid fossa. What is the most appropriate acetabular reconstruction technique to address this specific pathology?
Explanation
The intraoperative finding of the superior and inferior halves of the pelvis moving independently defines pelvic discontinuity. Reconstruction requires stabilizing the two halves of the pelvis. This is typically achieved with a construct that bridges the defect and provides rigid fixation, such as a cup-cage construct, custom triflange acetabular component, or a highly porous shell used with structural allograft/distraction techniques.
Question 35
A 62-year-old male is 8 months post-primary total knee arthroplasty. He complains of posterolateral knee pain that is particularly exacerbated by active knee flexion and walking downhill. Examination reveals localized tenderness over the posterolateral joint line. Radiographs reveal a properly sized and aligned femoral component, but there is prominent overhang of the femoral component laterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Popliteus tendon impingement is a recognized complication in TKA, often caused by an oversized femoral component or prominent posterolateral overhang of the femoral or tibial tray. The popliteus tendon rubs against the prominent edge during flexion, causing posterolateral knee pain.
Question 36
Which of the following statements best describes the surgical principle of true 'kinematic alignment' in total knee arthroplasty?
Explanation
Kinematic alignment in TKA aims to co-align the axes of the components with the three kinematic axes of the normal knee, thereby restoring the patient's pre-arthritic native anatomy and joint lines. This approach often results in a joint line that is in mild varus compared to traditional mechanical alignment, and typically relies on measured resections with minimal to no soft tissue releases.
Question 37
A 70-year-old male requires a revision total knee arthroplasty due to a failed implant complicated by severe varus-valgus instability. Intraoperatively, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is completely deficient, but femoral and tibial metaphyseal bone stock is adequate. What is the most appropriate implant constraint choice for this patient?
Explanation
A Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK) implant provides substantial varus-valgus stability through a tall, thick tibial post, but it requires competent collateral ligaments (primarily the MCL) to function without premature failure. When the MCL is completely deficient or absent, a rotating hinge knee is required to provide the necessary coronal plane stability and prevent dislocation.
Question 38
During a primary total knee arthroplasty in a patient with a severe preoperative flexion contracture, the surgeon performs the routine bony cuts, removes posterior femoral osteophytes, and drops in trial components. A 15-degree flexion contracture (tight extension gap) persists, while the flexion gap is well-balanced. What is the next most appropriate step to achieve full extension?
Explanation
The treatment algorithm for a persistent flexion contracture (isolated tight extension gap) after standard cuts and removal of posterior osteophytes is to sequentially release the posterior capsule from the posterior femur. If capsular release is insufficient, the surgeon should then recut the distal femur to resect more bone. Recutting the proximal tibia would enlarge both the flexion and extension gaps, requiring a thicker poly, leaving the relative mismatch unchanged.
Question 39
A 65-year-old female presents with severe lateral hip pain and a profound Trendelenburg gait 3 years following a primary total hip arthroplasty. MRI reveals a massive, retracted tear of the gluteus medius and minimus tendons with fatty infiltration, deemed irreparable. The THA components are well-fixed and optimally positioned.

What is the most recognized salvage muscle transfer procedure to reconstruct the abductor mechanism in this setting?
Explanation
For massive, irreparable abductor tears following THA, transfer of the anterior third of the gluteus maximus (often along with the tensor fasciae latae) to the greater trochanter is the most widely recognized and reliable salvage procedure to improve gait mechanics, reduce pain, and restore active abduction.
Question 40
In the diagnostic workup of a painful total knee arthroplasty, the synovial fluid alpha-defensin test is frequently utilized. What is the precise biological nature of alpha-defensin that makes it a highly specific biomarker for periprosthetic joint infection?
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide that is naturally produced and secreted by host neutrophils in response to infection by pathogens. Because it is part of the innate immune response specifically targeting microbes, its concentration in synovial fluid is highly sensitive and specific for detecting periprosthetic joint infection, distinguishing it from aseptic inflammation.
Question 41
A 72-year-old female with a history of recurrent total hip arthroplasty (THA) dislocations and severe abductor deficiency undergoes revision THA with the placement of a constrained acetabular liner. Which of the following is the most significant long-term complication associated specifically with the use of a constrained liner in this setting?
Explanation
Constrained liners are used in patients with severe abductor deficiency or recurrent instability where other options (like dual mobility) are insufficient. Because the femoral head is locked into the liner, impingement or extreme ranges of motion transmit significant torque and shear forces directly to the liner-cup and cup-bone interfaces. This drastically increases the risk of aseptic loosening and mechanical failure of the acetabular component.
Question 42
A 65-year-old male presents with new-onset right groin pain 8 years after a primary THA. He has a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with a large-diameter (36-mm) cobalt-chromium femoral head on a titanium stem. Radiographs show a well-fixed prosthesis with no osteolysis. Serum cobalt levels are significantly elevated, while chromium levels are normal. MRI demonstrates a solid and cystic soft-tissue mass around the hip joint. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion, occurs at the modular head-neck junction. It is particularly associated with large-diameter metal heads on titanium stems (which increase the torsional forces at the trunnion). The classic serological profile is a preferential elevation of cobalt over chromium. This leads to an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) or ALVAL, presenting as a pseudotumor despite a metal-on-polyethylene bearing.
Question 43
Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers utilized in the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) is an antimicrobial peptide naturally produced by neutrophils?
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide secreted by neutrophils in response to pathogens. It is a highly sensitive and specific synovial fluid biomarker for diagnosing PJI. Leukocyte esterase is an enzyme produced by neutrophils, not an antimicrobial peptide itself. CRP, IL-6, and D-dimer are acute-phase reactants or systemic markers.
Question 44
A 45-year-old active male is undergoing an opening-wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO) for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis. Compared to a closing-wedge HTO, which of the following postoperative changes in knee geometry is most reliably anticipated with an opening-wedge technique?
Explanation
An opening-wedge HTO inherently tends to increase the posterior tibial slope (due to the triangular shape of the proximal tibia and soft tissue tethers like the MCL) and results in relative patella baja (inferior displacement of the patella relative to the joint line) because the osteotomy is proximal to the tibial tubercle, effectively elevating the joint line away from the tubercle.
Question 45
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), after the initial bone cuts are made, the surgeon evaluates the gaps using spacer blocks. The flexion gap is perfectly balanced and symmetric, but the extension gap is excessively tight. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to achieve balance?
Explanation
A knee that is balanced in flexion but tight in extension requires an intervention that only affects the extension gap. Resecting more distal femur or releasing the posterior capsule will increase the extension gap without significantly altering the flexion gap. Resecting more proximal tibia would increase both gaps symmetrically. Downsizing the femur increases the flexion gap.
Question 46
A 68-year-old female presents with an inability to perform a straight leg raise 6 months after a primary TKA. Ultrasound confirms a complete, retracted rupture of the patellar tendon. The primary TKA components are well-fixed. What is the most reliable surgical option for restoring function in this chronic setting?
Explanation
Chronic patellar tendon ruptures following TKA are notoriously difficult to treat due to poor tissue quality and retraction. Primary repair (with or without wire augmentation) has a high failure rate in the chronic setting. Reconstruction using an extensor mechanism allograft (often comprising the tibial tubercle, patellar tendon, patella, and quadriceps tendon) or synthetic mesh is the gold standard for restoring the extensor mechanism in a chronic post-TKA disruption.
Question 47
A 70-year-old female presents with chronic pelvic pain 15 years after a revision THA.

Radiographs demonstrate severe osteolysis, medial migration of the acetabular component, and a complete fracture line extending through Kohler's line, separating the superior and inferior hemipelvis. What is the most definitive intraoperative finding that confirms pelvic discontinuity, and what is the optimal reconstructive strategy?
Explanation
Pelvic discontinuity is defined by a complete separation of the superior (ilium) and inferior (ischium/pubis) hemipelvis. The definitive intraoperative diagnosis is independent mobility between the two halves. Reconstruction requires bypassing the defect and stabilizing both halves, typically utilizing a highly porous jumbo cup with distraction, a cup-cage construct, or a custom triflange acetabular component. Standard cups or cages alone lack the biological fixation and mechanical stability required to heal the discontinuity.
Question 48
Based on the classic Kozinn and Scott criteria, which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) for anteromedial osteoarthritis?
Explanation
Inflammatory arthropathy (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) is an absolute contraindication to UKA due to the systemic, pan-articular nature of the disease, which will predictably destroy the preserved compartments. While Kozinn and Scott originally proposed weight >82 kg and age <60 as contraindications, these are now considered relative or obsolete. Asymptomatic patellofemoral osteophytes or chondrocalcinosis without frank arthritis are not absolute contraindications.
Question 49
In the biomechanical design of a dual-mobility acetabular component for THA, which of the following principles best explains its enhanced stability compared to a standard fixed-liner THA?
Explanation
Dual-mobility components consist of a small inner metal or ceramic head that articulates within a larger mobile polyethylene liner, which in turn articulates within the metal acetabular shell. The stability is primarily conferred by the large effective outer diameter of the mobile polyethylene head, which dramatically increases the 'jump distance' (the distance the head must translate to dislocate) and allows for a greater impingement-free range of motion.
Question 50
A posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty utilizes a cam-and-post mechanism. What is the primary biomechanical function of this design during deep knee flexion?
Explanation
In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, the PCL is sacrificed. The tibial post and femoral cam engage during flexion to substitute for the PCL's function. This engagement forces the femur to roll posteriorly on the tibia (posterior femoral rollback), preventing anterior sliding of the femur, improving impingement-free flexion, and maximizing the quadriceps moment arm.
Question 51
A 78-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around her THA.

Radiographs show the fracture involves the bone around the stem, the stem is definitively loose, and there is severe comminution and osteolysis of the proximal femur leaving entirely inadequate bone stock for proximal fixation. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B3 fracture: the fracture is around the stem (B), the stem is loose (3), and the proximal bone stock is inadequate (3). Treatment requires bypassing the deficient proximal bone to achieve stable fixation in the intact distal diaphysis using a long, distally fixing fluted tapered modular stem (often with structural allograft) or, in older/sedentary patients, a proximal femoral replacement (tumor prosthesis).
Question 52
During a primary THA, restoring the anatomic femoral offset (the horizontal distance from the center of rotation to the femoral anatomic axis) has which of the following biomechanical effects?
Explanation
Restoring or slightly increasing femoral offset increases the mechanical advantage (moment arm) of the abductor musculature. By the equation of static equilibrium in the coronal plane, an increased abductor moment arm means less abductor force is required to keep the pelvis level during the single-leg stance phase of gait. This subsequently decreases the overall compressive joint reactive force across the hip.
Question 53
A 65-year-old female presents with acute, severe medial-sided knee pain occurring after a minor twisting injury. Radiographs are normal, but an MRI demonstrates a subchondral crescent sign and bone marrow edema strictly localized to the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle.

This condition is most strongly associated with which of the following concurrent pathologies?
Explanation
The clinical picture describes Spontaneous Osteonecrosis of the Knee (SPONK), also known as subchondral insufficiency fracture of the knee (SIFK). It overwhelmingly affects the medial femoral condyle in older females. Recent literature demonstrates a very strong association between SPONK and medial meniscus posterior root tears, which abruptly disrupt hoop stresses, leading to localized articular overloading and subsequent subchondral insufficiency fracture.
Question 54
A 55-year-old male is evaluated for a primary TKA. He has an extra-articular deformity due to a previous midshaft femur fracture that healed with 25 degrees of coronal plane varus malunion. When planning the TKA, what is the most important consideration regarding the management of this extra-articular deformity?
Explanation
Extra-articular deformities of the femur or tibia must be carefully evaluated before TKA. Generally, a coronal plane deformity >20 degrees (or sagittal >20 degrees) too close to the joint cannot be compensated for entirely with intra-articular bone cuts and soft tissue balancing without compromising the collateral ligament insertions or violating the envelope of the joint. These cases typically require an extra-articular corrective osteotomy (often performed as a staged or concurrent procedure).
Question 55
A 68-year-old male is 1 year post-TKA and complains of recurrent knee swelling, pain when rising from a chair, and a feeling that the knee is 'giving way' specifically when descending stairs. Physical exam reveals a well-healed incision, no varus/valgus instability in full extension, but significant anteroposterior laxity at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Radiographs show well-fixed components with no loosening. What is the most likely etiology?
Explanation
The classic presentation of flexion instability post-TKA includes recurrent effusions, instability specifically descending stairs (which requires quadriceps eccentric control in flexion), and difficulty rising from a chair. Physical exam demonstrates a loose flexion gap (AP laxity at 90 degrees) while the extension gap is stable. This is often caused by an undersized femoral component, excessive posterior slope, or failure to balance the PCL in a cruciate-retaining knee.
Question 56
Which of the following conditions is widely considered an absolute contraindication to metal-on-metal Hip Resurfacing Arthroplasty (HRA)?
Explanation
Metal-on-metal (MoM) hip resurfacings generate metal ions (cobalt and chromium) that are primarily excreted by the kidneys. Chronic kidney disease (renal failure) is an absolute contraindication because the patient cannot adequately clear these ions, leading to systemic metal toxicity. Other contraindications include females of childbearing age, severe osteoporosis, and large structural cysts in the femoral head.
Question 57
During a primary TKA, the popliteal artery is most vulnerable to direct traumatic injury. At what anatomical level relative to the joint line is the popliteal artery most tethered and closest to the posterior capsule, increasing its risk of injury from an oscillating saw?
Explanation
The popliteal artery is at greatest risk of direct injury during the flat proximal tibial bone cut. It is tethered closely to the posterior capsule by the fibrous arch of the soleus muscle just distal to the joint line. An oscillating saw penetrating the posterior capsule or an improperly placed posterior retractor behind the tibia can directly lacerate or avulse the artery.
Question 58
A 72-year-old patient presents with acute onset of severe left knee pain, swelling, and fever 2 years after a primary TKA. Symptoms began 5 days ago. Aspiration yields 85,000 WBC/uL with 95% neutrophils. Radiographs show a well-fixed TKA. The surgeon opts for DAIR (Debridement, Antibiotics, and Implant Retention). To optimize the success rate of this procedure, which surgical principle is paramount?
Explanation
In the setting of an acute hematogenous periprosthetic joint infection (symptoms <3 weeks in a previously well-functioning, well-fixed joint), DAIR is indicated. The success of DAIR is significantly improved by performing a thorough OPEN debridement (arthroscopy is inadequate) and strictly exchanging the modular polyethylene insert. Exchanging the poly allows access to the posterior recess of the knee for thorough debridement and removes bacteria adhering to the poly.
Question 59
Which of the following patients represents the most appropriate candidate for an isolated patellofemoral arthroplasty (PFA)?
Explanation
Ideal candidates for isolated patellofemoral arthroplasty (PFA) have isolated anterior compartment osteoarthritis. Strict prerequisites include intact knee ligaments (ACL is crucial to prevent abnormal kinematics and rapid wear), normal tibiofemoral alignment (varus or valgus deformities overload the other compartments leading to rapid failure), and absence of inflammatory arthropathy (which will invariably progress to involve the entire joint).
Question 60
A 60-year-old male presents with severe stiffness 8 weeks following an uncomplicated primary TKA. His active range of motion is 10 to 65 degrees. Physical therapy has plateaued. The components are correctly sized and positioned on radiographs. If a manipulation under anesthesia (MUA) is planned, what does the literature suggest regarding its timing and efficacy?
Explanation
Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA) is the primary treatment for arthrofibrosis (stiffness) post-TKA after a trial of conservative therapy has failed. It is most successful when performed within the 'window' of 6 to 12 weeks post-surgery. After 12 weeks, the intra-articular scar tissue becomes excessively mature and dense, significantly reducing the efficacy of MUA and increasing the risk of complications like periprosthetic fracture or extensor mechanism rupture.
Question 61
A 68-year-old female with severe lumbar flatback deformity and spinal fusion from T10-Pelvis is undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty. How should the acetabular component placement be adjusted compared to a patient with normal spinopelvic mobility?
Explanation
Patients with a stiff spine cannot accommodate to sitting by posteriorly tilting their pelvis. To prevent posterior dislocation during hip flexion, the acetabular cup must be placed in increased anteversion and inclination.
Question 62
During a total knee arthroplasty for a fixed 15-degree valgus deformity, after the initial bone cuts are made, the knee is tight laterally in flexion but perfectly balanced in extension. Which structure should be released to specifically address this mismatch?
Explanation
The popliteus tendon is a primary lateral stabilizer in flexion but not in extension. Releasing it selectively addresses a tight lateral flexion gap without affecting the balanced extension gap.
Question 63
A 55-year-old male presents with groin pain and a palpable anterior thigh mass 5 years after receiving a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Aspiration is negative for infection, but serum cobalt levels are markedly elevated. MRI shows a large cystic solid mass. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Explanation
This patient has an adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL) or pseudotumor from metal-on-metal wear debris. Definitive management requires revision to a non-metal bearing, typically ceramic-on-polyethylene, accompanied by a thorough synovectomy.
Question 64
A 72-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture 8 years after a primary cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a spiral fracture around the stem, and the stem is clearly loose with subsidence. Proximal bone stock is compromised but distal bone stock is adequate. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Explanation
A Vancouver B2 fracture occurs around a loose stem with adequate distal bone stock. It requires revision to a long bypass stem, such as a fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem, to achieve secure distal fixation.
Question 65
A 65-year-old female presents with a painful popping sensation at the superior pole of her patella when extending her knee from a flexed position, 1 year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized knees when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella. This nodule catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component during active extension.
Question 66
A patient complains of anterior knee pain and lateral patellar subluxation following a primary total knee arthroplasty. CT evaluation of component rotation is performed. Which combination of component malrotation most commonly leads to this specific complication?
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral and tibial components medially displaces the patellar groove and internally rotates the extensor mechanism relative to the tibial tubercle. This increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking.
Question 67
A 68-year-old male presents with acute severe knee pain, erythema, and swelling 3 weeks after a primary total knee arthroplasty. Joint aspiration yields 65,000 WBC/uL with 95% neutrophils. Radiographs show well-fixed components. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
For acute periprosthetic joint infection occurring within 4 weeks of surgery with well-fixed components, DAIR is the standard of care. Modular polyethylene exchange is a mandatory surgical step to effectively reduce the bacterial bioburden.
Question 68
During a primary total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon opts to use a high-offset femoral stem rather than a standard-offset stem with the same neck length. What is the expected biomechanical effect of this change?
Explanation
A high-offset stem increases femoral offset (horizontal distance) without altering the leg length (vertical height). This effectively increases the abductor lever arm, thereby increasing abductor tension and decreasing the overall joint reaction force.
Question 69
A 45-year-old active male with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty presents to the ER after hearing a loud "crack" in his hip followed by sudden severe pain. Radiographs confirm a shattered ceramic head. During revision surgery, which of the following steps is critical to prevent early failure of the new bearing?
Explanation
Ceramic fracture generates microscopic third-body shards that rapidly destroy non-ceramic bearings. A thorough synovectomy is critical to remove debris, and a new ceramic head (often with a titanium sleeve if the native trunnion is retained) must be used.
Question 70
In correcting a severe varus deformity during a primary total knee arthroplasty, after resection of osteophytes, the medial side remains tight in both flexion and extension. According to standard medial release algorithms, which structure is typically released first?
Explanation
In a varus knee, the deep MCL and medial capsule are typically released first along with comprehensive osteophyte removal. If further balancing is needed, the superficial MCL and pes anserinus can be sequentially addressed.
Question 71
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses spacer blocks to assess the gaps. The joint is found to be symmetrically loose in full extension but perfectly balanced at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to correct this mismatch?
Explanation
A joint that is loose in extension but balanced in flexion requires tightening of the extension gap exclusively. Adding distal femoral augments addresses this space deficit without altering the flexion gap.
Question 72
A 70-year-old patient with a prior lumbar fusion from L2 to the pelvis is scheduled for a total hip arthroplasty. Preoperative imaging reveals a stiff spinopelvic junction with failure of the pelvis to retrovert when transitioning from standing to sitting. To prevent posterior dislocation during sitting, what adjustment should be made to the acetabular component positioning?
Explanation
A stiff spinopelvic segment fails to retrovert during sitting, depriving the hip of the necessary functional anteversion to accommodate flexion. To compensate and avoid anterior impingement with subsequent posterior dislocation, the surgeon must place the cup in increased operative anteversion and inclination.
Question 73
During a total knee arthroplasty for a severe fixed valgus deformity, the surgeon proceeds with a step-wise soft tissue release. If the knee is found to be tight exclusively in flexion on the lateral side, which of the following structures is the primary tether and should be targeted for release?
Explanation
In a valgus knee, the structures on the lateral side contribute variably to gap tightness. The popliteus tendon is the primary lateral stabilizer in flexion, and releasing it addresses isolated flexion gap tightness.
Question 74
A 55-year-old male complains of a high-pitched squeaking noise coming from his hip 3 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. He denies pain, and inflammatory markers are normal. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this specific acoustic phenomenon?
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is overwhelmingly linked to mechanical edge loading. This phenomenon most commonly results from acetabular component malpositioning, specifically excessive inclination or insufficient anteversion.
Question 75
A 75-year-old female sustains a fall and presents with severe thigh pain. Radiographs show a periprosthetic fracture around her cementless femoral stem. The stem has subsided 3 cm, but the surrounding proximal femoral bone stock remains robust and intact.

According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate definitive management?
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B2 fracture, characterized by a loose femoral component in the presence of adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a longer cementless stem (often fluted and tapered) that bypasses the fracture site by at least two cortical diameters.
Question 76
When utilizing the direct anterior approach (DAA) for a primary total hip arthroplasty, the superficial surgical dissection utilizes an internervous plane. Which of the following pairs of muscles defines this interval?
Explanation
The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) exploits the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).
Question 77
Synovial fluid alpha-defensin testing has emerged as a highly sensitive and specific diagnostic adjunct for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). What is the physiological origin and function of alpha-defensin?
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is a biomarker naturally produced and released by host neutrophils. It functions as an antimicrobial peptide that helps destroy bacterial pathogens within the joint fluid.
Question 78
A 68-year-old female presents with an audible and palpable 'pop' in her anterior knee that is occasionally painful. This occurs primarily as she actively extends her knee from a seated position following a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. At what degree of flexion does this 'patellar clunk' classically occur?
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome is caused by a fibrous nodule forming at the superior pole of the patella. As the knee actively extends from deep flexion, the nodule catches in the intercondylar notch of the femoral component and abruptly dislodges around 30 to 45 degrees of flexion.
Question 79
A 60-year-old male with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty develops severe groin pain. MRI reveals a large, solid and cystic soft-tissue mass. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. Which immunological mechanism primarily drives this adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL)?
Explanation
Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) or aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesions (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal hips are predominantly driven by a Type IV cell-mediated (T-cell) delayed hypersensitivity response to metal wear debris.
Question 80
High peak subsurface contact stresses in historical flat-on-flat total knee arthroplasty designs predominantly led to which specific mechanism of polyethylene failure?
Explanation
Older flat-on-flat total knee designs suffered from highly concentrated peak contact stresses that propagated below the polyethylene surface. This mechanism caused subsurface fatigue cracks, classically resulting in delamination and pitting of the polyethylene.

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Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
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