Question 1

The incidence of compartment syndrome following calcaneus fracture is:

Explanation

In a review article by Myerson, compartment syndrome was described to occur in 10% of calcaneal fractures. Of these, half will develop clawing, stiffness, or neurologic dysfunction. Diagnosis is confirmed by multistick invasive catheterization, especially the calcaneal compartment.

Question 2

Posterior antiglide plating of AO type B lateral malleolar fractures may be associated with:

Explanation

Posterior antiglide plating is associated with an increased need for hardware removal (43%) and an increased incidence of peroneal tendon lesions. The highest risk for peroneal tendon lesions was with distal placement of the plate and a protruding screw head in the most distal hole.

Question 3

Displaced talar neck fractures should be treated:

Explanation

A retrospective review of 102 talar neck fractures that underwent open reduction internal fixation showed no decrease in the development of osteonecrosis in fractures that were treated earlier. The mean time to fixation was 3.4 days for patients who had development of osteonecrosis, compared with 5 days for patients who did not have development of osteonecrosis.

Question 4

How many weeks following open reduction and internal fixation of a right ankle fracture can patients resume driving with normal braking times:

Explanation

Total braking time following open reduction and internal fixation of right ankle fractures was tested at 6, 9, and 12 weeks postoperatively. These patients were managed with a functional brace, non-weight bearing, and early range of motion in the postoperative period. Braking time was significantly slower than normal at 6 weeks, but had returned to near normal by 9 weeks postoperatively.

Question 5

Time to radiographic fusion following arthroscopic ankle arthrodesis is:

Explanation

Time to radiographic fusion following arthroscopic ankle arthrodesis is shorter than following open ankle arthrodesis. Theoretically, the decreased dissection and soft-tissue stripping contributes to greater vascular inflow to heal the fusion site.

Question 6

Superficial peroneal nerve injury following ankle fracture:

Explanation

One hundred twenty patients with ankle fractures were evaluated. Symptomatic superficial peroneal nerve injury was identified in 21% of patients who underwent open reduction internal fixation and 9% of nonoperatively treated patients. AOFAS scores were decreased in patients with symptomatic superficial peroneal nerve injury. No injuries to the superficial peroneal nerve occurred in patients who underwent surgery involving a posterolateral approach to the fibula.

Question 7

Which of the following is the most reliable way to determine that a deltoid ligament injury is associated with a Weber B level lateral malleolus fracture:

Explanation

Weber B supination, external rotation ankle fractures were evaluated to determine the reliability of medial tenderness, ecchymosis, and swelling in predicting deltoid incompetence. These clinical signs were poorly predictive, and stress radiographs were recommended for an accurate diagnosis of instability.

Question 8

The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is:

Explanation

The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is neutral flexion, 5° valgus, and 5° external rotation. Historically, surgeons thought that women should be fused in some amount of equinus to better allow them to wear heeled shoes. However, this can increase the development of neighboring joint arthritis and also create a knee recurvatum deformity when ambulating barefoot. Currently it is recommended that all patients are fused in neutral dorsi- /plantarflexion.

Question 9

Varus malunion following talar neck fracture is best corrected by:

Explanation

The best way to address varus malunion in talar neck fractures and maintain motion is by talar neck osteotomy. However, there is a further possible risk of talar avascular necrosis with this procedure. The other acceptable treatment is a triple arthrodesis, although this eliminates all hindfoot motion.

Question 10

Neighboring joint arthritis following ankle arthrodesis has not been found in the:

Explanation

Long-term follow-up of ankle fusions show that nearly all patients develop arthritis in the hindfoot, midfoot, and 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. There is no evidence to show that the hip or knee is at greater risk for developing arthritis following ankle fusion.

Question 11

Following calcaneus fracture, risk factors for later need for subtalar arthrodesis due to painful posttraumatic arthritis include all of the following except:

Explanation

Buckley conducted a series of large prospective studies following calcaneus fracture outcomes in Canada. All of the above factors were associated with the need for later subtalar fusion except female gender. In his other studies, it was demonstrated that male gender was a risk factor for not having a significantly better clinical outcome with surgery versus nonsurgical treatment.

Question 12

Range of motion following total ankle replacement is closely correlated with:

Explanation

A radiographic study comparing preoperative to postoperative tibio-talar range of motion as measured by radiographs showed that the amount of motion that patients had following ankle replacement was most dependent upon the motion they had before surgery.

Question 13

Patients sustaining a crushing injury to the foot with midfoot tenderness but without any radiographic signs of fracture or dislocation:

Explanation

Patients who sustain a foot injury and have clinical midfoot tenderness should be assumed to have a serious midfoot sprain until proven otherwise. These patients should be protected non-weight bearing until the tenderness is gone before weight-bearing and physical therapy begins.

Question 14

The distinguishing factor in a Hawkins type 4 talar neck fracture is:

Explanation

Hawkins type 1 fractures are nondisplaced. Hawkins type 2 fractures have an incongruent subtalar joint. Hawkins type 3 fractures have an incongruent ankle and subtalar joint. Hawkins type 4 fractures have the above injuries and incongruent talo-navicular joint.

Question 15

The calcaneal compartment of the foot contains all of the following structures except:

Explanation

The four interossei muscles are contained in their respective interosseous compartments. The calcaneal compartment may also variably contain the medial plantar nerve. The remaining compartments of the foot are the adductor, medial, lateral, and superficial.

Question 16

Gustilo-Anderson type I and type IIA open calcaneal fractures with a medial wound can be treated:

Explanation

Forty-three open calcaneal fractures were studied, showing that open reduction internal fixation with plate and screws of type I and type IIA fractures with medial wounds had outcomes similar to closed injuries. Type IIIB open calcaneal fractures should undergo early flap coverage. Early internal fixation should be avoided in these injuries due to the high rates of osteomyelitis and amputation.

Question 17

Take-down of ankle arthrodesis and conversion to total ankle replacement:

Explanation

This article studied the success rates of revising previous ankle fusions to ankle replacement. The authors found that if the etiology of a patientâ s pain was unclear, the patients did poorly. Patients with prior fibula resection could still be revised to ankle replacement with allograft bone to support the lateral side of the implant. Range of motion following revision to arthroplasty was comparable to primary replacement.

Question 18

The distinction between a Lauge-Hansen supination-external rotation III injury and a Lauge-Hansen supination-external rotation IV injury is:

Explanation

The sequence of injury according to the Lauge-Hansen classification system in supination-external rotation injuries is AITFL disruption, spiral oblique fracture of the lateral malleolus, PITFL disruption or posterior malleolus fracture, and finally stage IV, which is a deltoid ligament disruption or medial malleolus fracture.C orrect Answer: Deltoid ligament disruption or medial malleolus fracture

Question 19

Development of hindfoot arthritis following total ankle replacement is seen in:

Explanation

Although it is felt that the retention of some degree of ankle motion with ankle replacement can help prevent the development of hindfoot arthritis, in a 9-year follow-up study nearly 25% of patients still had radiographic signs of arthritis.

Question 20

When using external fixation in the treatment of tibial pilon fractures, distal transfixation wires:

Explanation

In cadaver specimens, the anterolateral capsular reflection of the ankle joint extended proximally the highest with an average of 9.3 mm and a maximum of 12.2 mm. There was a 100% communication between the distal tibia- fibula joint and the ankle joint.

Question 21

C linical improvement following ankle distraction arthroplasty:

Explanation

Distraction arthroplasty with an Ilizarov external fixator is usually associated with half of the clinical improvement occurring within the first year, and the other half happening over the next 5 years.

Question 22

Failure following supramalleolar osteotomy for ankle arthritis is associated with:

Explanation

In their clinical series, Takakura and colleagues showed that inadequate correction and initial chondromalacia were predictors of poor outcome following supramalleolar osteotomy.

Question 23

Isolated talonavicular fusion:

Explanation

This cadaver study examined the motion that remained in the hindfoot joints following sequential immobilization of the talonavicular, subtalar, and calcaneo-cuboid joints. Fixing the talo-navicular joint virtually locked all subtalar motion.

Question 24

Following triple arthrodesis, ankle range of motion is:

Explanation

This clinical study following triple arthrodesis patients for 10 years showed a 27% loss of ankle plantarflexion but no loss of dorsiflexion.

Question 25

Triple arthrodesis is associated with:

Explanation

Saltzman and colleagues followed 67 patients who underwent triple arthrodesis at 44-year follow-up. Nearly all patients had ankle arthritis at final follow-up. C linical relief of pain deteriorated over time between intermediate 25-year follow-up and 44-year follow-up in the same group of patients.

Question 26

Isolated subtalar arthrodesis:

Explanation

Subtalar fusion decreased talonavicular motion more so than calcaneocuboid motion in this cadaver study. Isolated talonavicular fusion is the most influential of the hindfoot joints, locking hindfoot motion.

Question 27

Isolated subtalar fusion:

Explanation

In 48 subtalar fusions followed for 5 years, 36% of patients developed ankle arthritis and 41% of patients developed transverse tarsal joint arthritis.

Question 28

Following anatomic open reduction and internal fixation of a Lisfranc fracture-dislocation:

Explanation

In a series of patients who underwent open reduction internal fixation of Lisfranc fracture dislocations, 25% of patients developed midfoot arthritis at final follow-up, but only half of these patients required eventual midfoot arthrodesis.

Question 29

Which injury is likely to have a worse clinical outcome:

Explanation

Question 30

Hallux rigidus is associated with:

Explanation

In a large series of patients with hallux rigidus, risk factors were evaluated. The only factor that had a positive correlation with having hallux rigidus was the radiographic shape of the 1st metatarsal head. Metatarsus primus elevatus, first ray hypermobility, or long first metatarsal head were not significantly associated with hallux rigidus.C orrect Answer: Flat- or chevron-shaped metatarsal head

Question 31

C urrently recommended indications for surgical management of hallux rigidus with an arthrodesis include:

Explanation

Coughlin and colleagues recommend that when pain with axial grind testing of the metatarsophalangeal joint is present or >50% loss of articular cartilage occurs intraoperatively, then first metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis should be performed.

Question 32

A Moberg procedure for hallux rigidus is:

Explanation

The Moberg procedure involves a dorsal closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal phalanx. This sets the hallux higher off the floor, allowing for easier toe-off with less dorsal impingement during gait.

Question 33

The optimal position for hallux interphalangeal joint arthrodesis is:

Explanation

The optimal position for hallux interphalangeal joint arthrodesis is 5° to 10° of plantarflexion, neutral varus-valgus, and neutral rotation. The plantarflexion helps the toe pad to contact the ground during gait.

Question 34

First metatarsophalangeal prosthetic joint replacements:

Explanation

First metatarsophalangeal joint replacement in this prospective comparative study performed poorly compared to arthrodesis. Patients with arthroplasties had greater pain and little improvement in range of motion.

Question 35

Deep infection following open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) for tibial pilon fractures is most commonly associated with:

Explanation

Deep infection following ORIF of pilon fractures is correlated with postoperative wound dehiscence or skin slough but not with the presence of an open fracture in a series of 60 pilon fractures treated by ORIF.

Question 36

Talar body fractures are best classified by a fracture line:

Explanation

Talar neck and body fractures can be difficult to distinguish, especially when they extend superiorly into the anteromedial aspect of the trochlea. These two fractures have a different prognosis. The authors recommend classification of these fractures based on the inferior fracture line; if anterior to lateral process of the talus, then it is a neck fracture; if posterior to lateral process of the talus, then it is a body fracture.

Question 37

The most effective fixation technique that will ensure adequate visualization (imaging) of avascular necrosis changes following talar neck fracture is:

Explanation

High-quality magnetic resonance images of the talus can consistently be obtained in the presence of titanium screws in contrast to images obtained with stainless steel implants. Magnetic resonance imaging is better than plain radiographs at assessing the volume of talar avascular necrosis.

Question 38

The plantar ecchymosis sign is:

Explanation

The plantar ecchymosis sign is described as an ecchymotic area on the plantar midfoot that is indicative of possible injury to the plantar tarsometatarsal ligaments.

Question 39

The joint contact area of the second tarsometatarsal joint after Lisfranc dislocation diminishes the greatest with:

Explanation

Minor degrees of displacement not apparent on plain radiographs lead to significant decrease in the contact area of the second tarsometatarsal joint. Dorsolateral subluxation of the second tarsometatarsal joint suffers a loss of contact area more severely than pure dorsal or lateral subluxation. Just 3 mm of dorsolateral subluxation causes a 38% loss of contact area.

Question 40

The â fleck signâ in midfoot injuries is a result of avulsion of the:

Explanation

The fleck sign was described as an avulsion of the ligament that runs from the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal, the so-called Lisfranc ligament. It is considered pathognomonic for a tarsometatarsal injury.

Question 41

Delayed unions and nonunions of base of fifth metatarsal fractures have been demonstrated to heal by:

Explanation

Nine delayed unions and nonunions of the proximal fifth metatarsal were treated with pulsed electromagnetic fields. All fractures healed in a mean of 4 months (follow-up 39 months, no refractures).

Question 42

The strongest hardware configuration for fixation of talar neck fractures is:

Explanation

Biomechanical cadaveric testing of several screw configurations showed two parallel screws from proximal to distal as the strongest fixation. The screws can be inserted either open or percutaneously. All screw configurations were stronger than K-wire configurations.

Question 43

According to Sandersâ computed tomography (C T) classification for calcaneus fractures, a Sanders III fracture has:

Explanation

The Sanders C T classification is determined on coronal C T scans of the calcaneus at the level where the posterior facet is widest. A Sanders I is a nondisplaced fracture; Sanders II consists of a single fracture line splitting the posterior facet into two main fragments; Sanders III has two fracture lines with three main posterior facet fragments; and a Sanders IV has four or more articular fragments present.

Question 44

The incidence of compartment syndrome following calcaneus fracture is:

Explanation

In a review article by Myerson, compartment syndrome was described to occur in 10% of calcaneal fractures. Of these, half will develop clawing, stiffness, or neurologic dysfunction. Diagnosis is confirmed by multistick invasive catheterization, especially the calcaneal compartment.

Question 45

Posterior antiglide plating of AO type B lateral malleolar fractures may be associated with:

Explanation

Posterior antiglide plating is associated with an increased need for hardware removal (43%) and an increased incidence of peroneal tendon lesions. The highest risk for peroneal tendon lesions was with distal placement of the plate and a protruding screw head in the most distal hole.

Question 46

Displaced talar neck fractures should be treated:

Explanation

A retrospective review of 102 talar neck fractures that underwent open reduction internal fixation showed no decrease in the development of osteonecrosis in fractures that were treated earlier. The mean time to fixation was 3.4 days for patients who had development of osteonecrosis, compared with 5 days for patients who did not have development of osteonecrosis.

Question 47

Superficial peroneal nerve injury following ankle fracture:

Explanation

One hundred twenty patients with ankle fractures were evaluated. Symptomatic superficial peroneal nerve injury was identified in 21% of patients who underwent open reduction internal fixation and 9% of nonoperatively treated patients. AOFAS scores were decreased in patients with symptomatic superficial peroneal nerve injury. No injuries to the superficial peroneal nerve occurred in patients who underwent surgery involving a posterolateral approach to the fibula.

Question 48

Which of the following is the most reliable way to determine that a deltoid ligament injury is associated with a Weber B level lateral malleolus fracture:

Explanation

Weber B supination, external rotation ankle fractures were evaluated to determine the reliability of medial tenderness, ecchymosis, and swelling in predicting deltoid incompetence. These clinical signs were poorly predictive, and stress radiographs were recommended for an accurate diagnosis of instability.

Question 49

Varus malunion following talar neck fracture is best corrected by:

Explanation

The best way to address varus malunion in talar neck fractures and maintain motion is by talar neck osteotomy. However, there is a further possible risk of talar avascular necrosis with this procedure. The other acceptable treatment is a triple arthrodesis, although this eliminates all hindfoot motion.

Question 50

Following calcaneus fracture, risk factors for later need for subtalar arthrodesis due to painful posttraumatic arthritis include all of the following except:

Explanation

Buckley conducted a series of large prospective studies following calcaneus fracture outcomes in C anada. All of the above factors were associated with the need for later subtalar fusion except female gender. In his other studies, it was demonstrated that male gender was a risk factor for not having a significantly better clinical outcome with surgery versus nonsurgical treatment.

Question 51

A 35-year-old male sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury. Compared to open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), primary arthrodesis of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints is associated with:

Explanation

Primary arthrodesis for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries yields similar or superior functional outcomes compared to ORIF. It significantly decreases the need for subsequent surgeries, such as symptomatic hardware removal or salvage fusion.

Question 52

During percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture, the sural nerve is at greatest risk of injury in which of the following areas?

Explanation

The sural nerve crosses from the midline of the calf to the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 10 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus. Percutaneous sutures placed lateral to the tendon at this level carry the highest risk of nerve entrapment.

Question 53

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced in extension but tight in flexion. Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

Explanation

A knee that is balanced in extension but tight in flexion has an isolated tight flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component translates the posterior femoral condyles anteriorly, thus enlarging the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 54

According to Lewinnek, what is the ideal acetabular cup position during a total hip arthroplasty to minimize the risk of postoperative dislocation?

Explanation

The Lewinnek safe zone for acetabular cup placement in total hip arthroplasty is defined as 40 degrees of abduction and 15 degrees of anteversion. Placement outside this zone has been classically associated with a significantly higher risk of postoperative dislocation.

Question 55

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28% and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability is a primary indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The Latarjet procedure restores the glenoid articular arc and provides an active sling effect via the conjoint tendon.

Question 56

An infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is being treated with a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up visit, the infant is noted to have an absent spontaneous quadriceps contraction and decreased active knee extension. Which of the following harness adjustments is required?

Explanation

The clinical presentation is consistent with a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication caused by hyperflexion of the hips in the Pavlik harness. The most appropriate immediate management is to decrease the tension on the anterior flexion straps to alleviate nerve compression.

Question 57

When utilizing a posteromedial approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a Schatzker IV tibial plateau fracture, the surgical interval is developed between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and which of the following structures?

Explanation

The posteromedial approach to the proximal tibia utilizes the interval between the pes anserinus tendons anteriorly and the medial head of the gastrocnemius posteriorly. Retracting the gastrocnemius laterally safely protects the neurovascular bundle in the popliteal fossa.

Question 58

Which of the following is the most common complication associated with dual plating of a Schatzker VI bicondylar tibial plateau fracture using a single extensile anterior incision?

Explanation

Single extensile anterior incisions for bicondylar tibial plateau fractures historically have high rates of wound breakdown and infection. Contemporary management favors dual incisions or staging with a spanning external fixator to allow soft tissue recovery.

Question 59

In a healthy 25-year-old patient with a displaced, vertically oriented (Pauwels type III) femoral neck fracture, what is the most significant biomechanical advantage of using a sliding hip screw with a derotation screw compared to multiple cancellous screws?

Explanation

Pauwels type III fractures are highly vertical and subjected to significant shear forces. A fixed-angle device like a sliding hip screw provides superior biomechanical resistance to these vertical shear forces compared to parallel cancellous screws.

Question 60

A 6-year-old boy presents with a displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. After closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, the radial pulse remains absent, but the hand is warm, pink, and has capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Explanation

A "pink, pulseless" hand following reduction and pinning of a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture is generally treated with close observation. Unless the hand becomes ischemic, routine surgical exploration of the artery is not indicated.

Question 61

When performing an open repair of an Achilles tendon rupture using a standard posteromedial approach, which of the following structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if the incision extends too far laterally or distally?

Explanation

The sural nerve courses distally along the posterolateral aspect of the calf, crossing the lateral border of the Achilles tendon roughly 10 cm proximal to its insertion. A posteromedial incision is utilized specifically to minimize the risk of injuring this nerve.

Question 62

Which of the following radiographic findings is considered pathognomonic for a Lisfranc injury?

Explanation

The 'fleck sign' represents an avulsion fracture of the Lisfranc ligament from the base of the second metatarsal. It is considered pathognomonic for a Lisfranc injury and indicates significant midfoot instability requiring operative stabilization.

Question 63

A patient develops isolated acute compartment syndrome of the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely expected?

Explanation

The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve, which provides motor innervation to the tibialis anterior, EHL, and EDL, and sensory innervation to the first dorsal web space. Ischemia to this compartment results in decreased sensation in the first web space and weakness in ankle and toe dorsiflexion.

Question 64

In a 12-year-old child diagnosed with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), which of the following is an absolute indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral hip?

Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is strongly indicated in patients with underlying endocrinopathies, such as hypothyroidism, or renal failure. These metabolic conditions carry a significantly higher risk of bilateral involvement compared to idiopathic cases.

Question 65

Which of the following factors most significantly increases the risk of "squeaking" in a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty?

Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, which often results from a malpositioned acetabular component. Excessive cup anteversion or inclination disrupts the fluid film lubrication, leading to stripe wear and subsequent squeaking.

Question 66

A 25-year-old male sustains a vertically oriented (Pauwels Type III) femoral neck fracture. Which of the following fixation constructs provides the most biomechanically stable fixation against shear forces?

Explanation

Pauwels Type III fractures have a high vertical shear angle, leading to increased rates of nonunion and varus collapse. A fixed-angle device, such as a sliding hip screw with a derotational screw, provides superior biomechanical stability against shear forces compared to multiple cancellous screws.

Question 67

A patient sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. The high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) in this region is primarily due to the retrograde blood supply originating from which of the following vessels?

Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, entering distally and supplying the proximal pole. This supply originates almost entirely from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, making proximal pole fractures highly susceptible to ischemic necrosis.

Question 68

A 14-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal femur lesion showing an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. A biopsy reveals small, round blue cells. Which specific chromosomal translocation is most characteristically associated with this diagnosis?

Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by a diaphyseal location, onion-skin periosteal reaction, and small round blue cells on histology. The classic genetic abnormality is the t(11;22) translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.

Question 69

During rehabilitation after anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a hamstring autograft, the patient is most likely to experience a persistent deficit in which of the following functional motions compared to a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft?

Explanation

Patients with hamstring autograft ACL reconstructions often demonstrate persistent weakness in deep knee flexion (flexion at high angles) and internal tibial rotation. Conversely, bone-patellar tendon-bone autografts are more commonly associated with anterior knee pain and extension deficits.

Question 70

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a broad-based gait. Physical exam reveals a positive Hoffmann sign and hyperreflexia. Sagittal MRI shows cervical stenosis with a kyphotic alignment. Which surgical approach is most appropriate?

Explanation

The patient has cervical spondylotic myelopathy with a kyphotic deformity. An anterior approach (ACDF or corpectomy) is indicated to decompress the spinal cord and correct the kyphosis, whereas posterior decompression alone in the setting of kyphosis can worsen the deformity and fail to relieve anterior cord tension.

Question 71

Primary (direct) bone healing, which occurs without callus formation, relies heavily on the activity of cutting cones. This type of healing is typically achieved by which of the following fixation methods?

Explanation

Primary bone healing requires absolute stability and anatomical reduction, typically achieved with rigid internal fixation like lag screws and neutralization plates. Methods providing relative stability (e.g., IM nails, casts, bridge plates) result in secondary bone healing with visible callus formation.

Orthopedic Prometric Exam Preparation MCQs - Part 1

Orthopedic Prometric Exam Preparation MCQs - Part 6

Orthopedic Prometric Exam Preparation MCQs - Part 6

Chapter Index