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Orthopedic Board Review Mock Exam #603: 100 High-Yield MCQs

OITE & ABOS Practice Test Set #713 | 100 High-Yield Orthopedic MCQs

27 Apr 2026 102 min read 85 Views
AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs: Board Prep Part 4

Key Takeaway

This page offers Mock Exam Set #713, providing 100 high-yield Orthopedic Surgery Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Ideal for ABOS, OITE, and FRCS board exam preparation, these randomized questions cover sports medicine, trauma, spine, and reconstruction, helping surgeons master essential concepts and succeed in their exams.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 46-year-old man who reports the acute onset of right knee pain and is unable to bear weight on the extremity. His medical history is unremarkable. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of





Explanation

The patient has a pathologic fracture of the right distal femur; therefore, given the patient's age, the most likely diagnosis is metastatic carcinoma. Staging studies should be obtained prior to surgical treatment. Immediate intramedullary fixation is contraindicated before a diagnosis is made by biopsy. Surgical stabilization should be performed prior to radiation therapy.

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Question 2

Which of the following is a contraindication to laminoplasty in a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy?

Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 3





Explanation

Laminoplasty or any posterior decompressive procedure is contraindicated in patients with cervical spondylotic myelopathy and cervical kyphosis. The residual kyphotic posture of the cervical spine results in persistent spinal cord compression. The other choices are not contraindications for laminoplasty. Concomitant cervical radiculopathy can be addressed at the time of laminoplasty with a keyhole foraminotomy. Emery SE: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:376-388.

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Question 3

A 19-year-old girl has had pain and swelling in the right ankle for the past 4 months. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a small soft-tissue mass over the anterior aspect of the ankle and slight pain with range of motion of the ankle joint. The examination is otherwise unremarkable. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 45a and 45b, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 45c and 45d. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Giant cell tumors typically occur in a juxta-articular location involving the epiphysis and metaphysis of long bones, usually eccentric in the bone. The radiographs show a destructive process within the distal tibia and an associated soft-tissue mass. The histology shows multinucleated giant cells in a bland matrix with a few scattered mitoses. Osteosarcoma can have a similar destructive appearance but a very different histologic pattern with osteoid production. Ewing's sarcoma also can have a diffuse destructive process in the bone. The histologic pattern of Ewing's sarcoma is diffuse round blue cells. Aneurysmal bone cysts typically are seen as a fluid-filled lesion on imaging studies and have only a scant amount of giant cells histologically. Metastatic adenocarcinoma does not demonstrate the pattern shown in the patient's histology specimen. Wold LA, et al: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 198-199.

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Question 4

The spread of malignant cells to the vertebrae is often through





Explanation

In 1940, Batson described a valveless plexus of veins that extend from the dural venous sinuses of the skull to the sacrum. This system permits retrograde blood flow and enables tumor cells to enter vertebral bodies at multiple levels. Increased intra-abdominal pressure will enhance this retrograde blood flow.

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Question 5

The condition shown in Figures 9a and 9b is most likely the result of





Explanation

The clinical photograph and radiograph show gout, which is the result of urate deposition in the joint and soft tissues. Radiographs frequently reveal periarticular erosions. The crystals are intracellular and negatively birefringent under the polarized microscope. Treatment for acute flares include colchicines, indomethacin, and corticosteroids (including injections). Medications such as allopurinol help prevent recurrent flares. Tophi such as that seen in this patient are often confused with and associated with infection. Wortmann RL, Kelley WM: Crystal-induced inflammation: Gout and hyperuricemia, in Harris ED, Budd RC, Firestein GS, et al (eds): Kelley's Textbook of Rheumatology, ed 7. New York, NY, Elsevier Science, 2005, pp 1402-1429. Trumble TE (ed): Hand Surgery Update 3: Hand, Elbow, & Shoulder. Rosemont, IL, American Society for Surgery of the Hand, 2003, pp 433-457.

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Question 6

A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by





Explanation

The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912.

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Question 7

What is the reported failure rate for surgical treatment of a Morton's neuroma?

Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 22





Explanation

The reported failure rate is in the range of 15%, which may be the result of incorrect diagnosis, improper web space selection, or formation of a stump neuroma. Therefore, the procedure should be approached with caution, measures should be taken to ensure that the diagnosis is accurate, and nonsurgical options should be exhausted. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 101-111. Beskin JL: Nerve entrapment syndromes of the foot and ankle. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:261-269.

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Question 8

Figure 27 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who has late instability. The problem most likely occurred as a result of

Hip & Knee Reconstruction Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24





Explanation

Although dislocation can occur anytime after hip arthroplasty, the highest incidence is observed within the first few months. Dislocation occurring many years after arthroplasty has also been described. In contrast to early dislocation, it appears that late dislocation frequently requires surgical intervention. Recent studies suggest that the incidence of late dislocation may be greater than initially appreciated and that the cumulative rate of dislocation rises with increasing follow-up. The presumed etiologic factors for late instability include long-standing problems with the prosthesis (such as malpositioning of the components) with late manifestation, trauma, deterioration in the neurologic status of the patient, and polyethylene wear. The eccentric position of the femoral head in this patient confirms polyethylene wear. The femoral stem is well-fixed, and the greater trochanter osteotomy has united well. The minor osteolysis observed around the proximal femur is also the consequence of wear and is not the cause of instability. Infection, without component loosening and massive soft-tissue destruction, is not otherwise known to result in late instability. Berry DJ, von Knoch M, Schleck CD, et al: The cumulative long-term risk of dislocation after primary Charnley total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:9-14.

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Question 9

A 21-year-old collegiate female cross-country athlete reports right hip pain that begins about 12 miles into a run, followed by pain resolution when she discontinues running. However, each time she tries to resume a running program, she experiences recurrence of pain deep in the anterior groin. A plain radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. Management should consist of





Explanation

The history is consistent with a stress fracture. Findings on the plain radiograph are marginal, but the MRI scan shows evidence of stress reaction in the medial neck of the femur (compression side). A lesion on the compression side is not normally at risk for displacement and usually can be managed nonsurgically. A bone scan would further identify the lesion but is not necessary. A skeletal survey and chest radiograph are used in staging a tumor. Radioisotope injection and guided biopsy are sometimes used for osteoid osteomas. Boden BP, Osbahr DC: High-risk stress fractures: Evaluation and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:344-353.

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Question 10

A 58-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department after falling at home. History reveals that she underwent right total knee arthroplasty 2 years ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 56a and 56b. What is the most appropriate treatment?





Explanation

The radiographs show an oblique periprosthetic distal femoral fracture. Of the options listed, open reduction and internal fixation is the most appropriate surgical option because a well-fixed, posterior stabilized closed box femoral component is present. Nonsurgical methods are not favored because of the highly displaced, unstable fracture pattern and prolonged immobility. Revision with a stemmed component is an option but would sacrifice more bone stock in this younger patient. Moran MC, Brick GW, Sledge CB, et al: Supracondylar femoral fracture following total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1996;324:196-209. Raab GE, Davis CM III: Early healing with locked condylar plating of periprosthetic fractures around the knee. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:984-989.

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Question 11

A 51-year-old man sustained an open fracture of his tibia in Korea 42 years ago. An infection developed and it was resolved with surgical treatment. For the past 6 months, an ulcer with mild drainage has developed over the medial tibia. The ulcer is small and there is minimal erythema at the ulcer site. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 43a and Figure 43b. Initial cultures show Staphylococcus aureus susceptible to the most appropriate antibiotics. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 70 mm/h. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?





Explanation

The patient has chronic tibial osteomyelitis that is due to low virulent bacteria. The history and studies do not suggest the need for an amputation or a free-flap procedure. This is a localized tibial infection that is in a healed bone; there is no need to resect the entire area of the tibia bone around the infection. The most appropriate treatment is curettage, debridement of nonviable bone, and placement of absorbable antibiotic beads, followed by a course of IV antibiotics from 1 to 4 weeks and a 6-week course of oral antibiotics. Studies have shown that in cases of localized osteomyelitis that are of low virulence, as little as 1 week of IV antibiotics followed by 6 weeks of oral antibiotics is successful. Patzakis MJ, Zalavras CG: Chronic posttraumatic osteomyelitis and infected nonunion of the tibia: Current management concepts. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:417-427.

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Question 12

A 46-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle accident reports a 4-month history of right-sided lower back pain and pain radiating into the right thigh. The patient underwent an extensive 3-month course of physical therapy and now is dependent on narcotic medication for pain control. Epidural injection therapy has failed to improve her symptoms. Examination is significant for weakness of hip flexion in the seated position and for decreased sensation to light touch in the medial anterior thigh region. Straight leg raise is negative, but the femoral stretch test reproduces anterior thigh pain. A CT myelogram image, at L3-L4, is shown in Figure 3. What is the most appropriate management at this time?

Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 14





Explanation

The CT scan reveals a right-sided lateral disk protrusion at L3-4 that has been symptomatic for more than 4 months despite appropriate nonsurgical management. Relative surgical indications include persistent radiculopathy despite an adequate trial of nonsurgical management, recurrent episodes of sciatica, persistent motor deficit with tension signs and pain, and pseudoclaudication caused by underlying stenosis. Whereas studies have shown improvement in patients with sciatica from a lumbar disk herniation treated either nonsurgically or surgically, those undergoing surgical treatment had an overall greater improvement of symptoms. Weinstein JN, Lurie JD, Tosteson TD, et al: Surgical vs nonoperative treatment for lumbar disk herniation: The Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) observational cohort. JAMA 2006;296:2451-2459.

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Question 13

Which of the following methods most reliably detects mechanical loosening of the hip?





Explanation

Mechanical loosening of the hip is best revealed by serial radiographs of the prosthetic joint. None of the other methods of evaluation is considered reliable in diagnosing mechanical loosening. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492.

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Question 14

A 51-year-old woman with no preoperative neurologic deficit is undergoing elective anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with plating and fusion for a C5-6 disk herniation with right-sided neck pain. Thirty minutes into the surgery the neurophysiologic monitoring shows a rapid drop and then loss of amplitude in the right cortical somatosensory-evoked potential waveform. All other waveforms remained normal and unchanged, including right-sided cervical (subcortical) and peripheral (Erb's point), and those from the left-sided upper extremity and both lower extremities. What is the most likely cause of the change?

Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 25





Explanation

The change noted is focal and confined to the cortex, sparing the opposite side, both lower extremities, and the subcortical waveforms, making all the choices unlikely with the exception of carotid compression with focal cortical ischemia. This may be associated with poor collateral flow from the opposite hemisphere due to an incomplete circle of Willis. Drummond JC, Englander RN, Gallo CJ: Cerebral ischemia as an apparent complication of anterior cervical discectomy in a patient with an incomplete circle of Willis. Anesth Analg 2006;102:896-899.

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Question 15

What is the most common arthroscopic finding of internal impingement in an overhead athlete?





Explanation

Internal impingement occurs when the articular side of the supraspinatus abrades against the posterior superior glenoid in the cocking position. Damage may include a posterior labral tear where the contact occurs, not anteriorly as in a Bankart lesion. Biceps fraying and acromion spurs are more commonly seen in extrinsic impingement. Loose bodies may occur from multiple lesions associated with instability and articular cartilage disorders but are uncommon in internal impingement. Jobe CM: Posterior superior impingement of the rotator cuff on the glenoid rim as a cause of shoulder pain in the overhead athlete. Arthroscopy 1993;9:697-699.

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Question 16

The strongest biomechanical construct for open reduction and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture uses what interval and entry point?





Explanation

The strongest biomechanical construct is posterior to anterior fixation with the entry point being at the level of the posterolateral tubercle of the talus. This uses the interval between the peroneus brevis and the flexor hallucis longus. The interval between the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus with entry at the posteromedial tubercle of the talus is not an accepted approach for fixation of talar neck fractures. All of the other options use screw placements from anterior to posterior. Swanson TV, Bray TJ, Homes GB Jr: Fractures of the talar neck: A mechanical study of fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:544-551.

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Question 17

An 11-year-old female gymnast has had gradually increasing right wrist pain for the past 6 months. Examination reveals normal range of motion and strength. Moderate tenderness is present over the distal radius. AP radiographs will most likely show





Explanation

Distal radial physeal stress syndrome has been reported in up to 25% of nonelite gymnasts showing premature closure of the distal radial physis and distal ulnar overgrowth, producing positive ulnar variance. The diagnosis should be suspected when there is tenderness at the distal radial physis in a young gymnast. The pathology is thought to be the result of repetitive compressive stresses caused by upper extremity weight-bearing forces. The recommended treatment is 3 to 6 months of rest. Salter-Harris fractures with a distal radial epiphyseal slip are unlikely, especially in the absence of a specific traumatic event. Mandelbaum BR, Bartolozzi AR, Davis CA, Teurlings L, Bragonier B: Wrist pain syndrome in the gymnast: Pathogenetic, diagnostic, and therapeutic consideration. Am J Sports Med 1989;17:305-317.

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Question 18

A 20-year-old woman with a history of subtotal meniscectomy has a painful knee. What associated condition is a contraindication to proceeding with a meniscal allograft?

Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1





Explanation

Patients with significant joint malalignment place increased stresses on the allograft, and this malalignment must be corrected to decrease the likelihood of meniscal allograft failure. None of the other options would lead to failure of the allograft.

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Question 19

During total knee arthroplasty using a posterior cruciate-retaining design, excessive tightness in flexion is noted, while the extension gap is felt to be balanced. Which of the following actions will effectively balance the knee?

Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 18





Explanation

Excessive flexion gap tightness can be addressed with a variety of techniques; including: (a) recess and release the posterior cruciate ligament; (b) resect a posterior slope in the tibia; (c) avoid an oversized femoral component that moves the posterior condyles more distally; (d) resect more posterior femoral condyle and use a smaller femoral component placed more anteriorly; and (e) release the tight posterior capsule and balance the collateral ligaments.

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Question 20

A 63-year-old woman reports giving way of the knee and pain after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago. Examination reveals that the knee is stable in full extension but has gross anteroposterior instability at 90 degrees of flexion. The patient can fully extend her knee with normal quadriceps strength. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 12a and 12b, respectively. What is the appropriate management?





Explanation

The radiographs show posterior flexion instability that is the result of a flexion-extension gap imbalance and posterior cruciate ligament incompetence after a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining TKA. The femur is anteriorly displaced on the tibia, with lift-off of the femoral component from the tibial polyethylene. Revision to a larger femoral component will address the larger flexion gap relative to the extension gap, and a posterior stabilized implant will address the posterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Pagnano and associates, reporting on a series of painful TKAs previously diagnosed as pain of unknown etiology, showed that the pain was secondary to flexion instability. Pain relief was achieved by revision to a posterior stabilized implant. Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. Fehring TK, Valadie AL: Knee instability after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;299:157-162.

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Question 21

Which of the following nerves is most commonly injured when obtaining a bone graft from the posterior ilium?

Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7





Explanation

Cutaneous sensation to the buttock is provided by the superior, middle, and inferior cluneal nerves. The superior cluneal nerves are the lateral branches of the dorsal rami of the upper three lumbar nerves and penetrate deep fascia just proximal to the iliac crest. They pass distally to the skin of the buttock and will be injured if the exposure extends more than 8 cm anterolateral to the posterior superior iliac spine. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can be injured in an anterior ilium bone graft. The superior gluteal nerve or even the sciatic nerve can be injured if bone is removed from the sciatic notch or dissection is not kept subperiosteal; however, the rate of injury is far less than cluneal nerve injury. The L5 and S1 nerve roots are anterior and can be injured if the inner table bone is harvested and the dissection is not kept subperiosteal or is too medial; however, the rate of injury still is far less than cluneal nerve injury. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 295-297. Hollinshead WH: Textbook of Anatomy, ed 3. Hagerstown, MD, Harper and Row, 1974, p 379. Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6. London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, p 23.

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Question 22

A 15-year-old boy has hindfoot pain and very limited subtalar motion. A CT scan reveals a talocalcaneal coalition involving 40% of the middle facet. He has no degeneration of the posterior subtalar facet. Following failure of nonsurgical management, treatment should consist of





Explanation

The CT scan is an important test to help determine the extent of involvement of the talocalcaneal facet in a talocalcaneal coalition. In a young patient with no arthritis and joint involvement of less than 50%, resection of the coalition and fat pad interposition has been shown to be successful. A calcaneal osteotomy does not address the coalition. Subtalar arthroereisis has been used for treatment of a flexible flatfoot; tarsal coalition patients have a rigid-type flatfoot deformity. Sullivan JA: The child's foot, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 2, pp 1077-1135.

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Question 23

A 62-year-old man has cervical myelopathy with no evidence of cervical radiculopathy. MRI reveals stenosis at C4-5 and C5-6 with severe cord compression. Examination will most likely reveal which of the following findings?

Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 20





Explanation

Cervical myelopathy involves compression of the spinal cord and presents as an upper motor neuron disorder. Patients commonly have extremity spasticity and problems with ambulation and balance. Hoffman's sign is often present and is elicited by suddenly extending the distal interphalangeal joint of the middle finger; reflexive finger flexion represents a positive finding. The extremities are usually hyperreflexic with myelopathy. With cervical radiculopathy (lower motor neuron disorder), reflexes are hyporeflexic, and patients report pain along a dermatomal distribution. A hyperactive jaw jerk reflex indicates pathology above the foramen magnum or in some cases, systemic disease. Flaccid paraparesis suggests a lower motor neuron problem. Sachs BL: Differential diagnosis of neck pain, arm pain and myelopathy, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 741-742.

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Question 24

A high school athlete reports the sudden onset of low back pain while performing a dead lift. Examination reveals a lumbar paraspinal spasm and a positive straight leg raising test. The deep tendon reflexes, motor strength, and sensation in the lower extremeties are normal. The radiographs are normal. If symptoms persist for more than a few weeks, management should consist of





Explanation

In adolescents, a lumbar herniated disk is characterized by a paucity of clinical findings; a positive straight leg raising test may be the only consistent positive finding. This may result in a long period of nonsurgical management that fails to provide relief. Activities that place a significant shear load on the lumbar spine, such as the dead lift, are associated with an increased risk of central disk herniation. When an adolescent who lifts weights has a history of low back pain that fails to respond to a short period of active rest, an MRI scan is the study of choice to evaluate for a lumbar herniated disk. Epstein JA, Epstein NE, Marc J, Rosenthal AD, Lavine LS: Lumbar intervertebral disk herniation in teenage children: Recognition and management of associated anomalies. Spine 1984;9:427-432.

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Question 25

A 28-year-old man who sustained an ankle fracture in a motor vehicle accident underwent open reduction and internal fixation 3 months ago. He continues to report significant ankle pain with ambulation. Radiographs are shown in Figure 26. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 9





Explanation

The patient sustained a bimalleolar ankle fracture with a syndesmosis disruption. The initial open reduction and internal fixation did not successfully reduce the distal tibiofibular joint. The patient may need a derotational distraction osteotomy of the fibula to reduce the syndesmosis. The other procedures do not address the primary problem of the fibular malunion and syndesmosis malreduction. There is no radiographic evidence of significant arthritis; therefore, ankle arthrodesis is not indicated.

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Question 26

Figure 9 shows the radiograph of a 75-year-old woman who reports the sudden onset of disabling medial knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hip Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1





Explanation

Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle occurs predominantly in women older than age 60 years. It is characterized by pain centered in the medial anterior aspect of the knee, and onset is sudden. Flattening, sclerosis, and the radiolucent crescent sign are radiographic indicators of osteonecrosis. The radiographs show no narrowing of the joint space or osteophyte formation to indicate osteoarthritis, and there are no loose bodies to indicate synovial osteochondromatosis. A meniscal tear is not consistent with the radiographic findings shown here. Meniscal tears can coexist with osteonecrosis, but the pain is not eliminated merely by partial meniscectomy. Metastatic lesions to the distal femoral epiphysis are exceedingly rare. Urbaniak JR, Jones JP Jr (eds): Osteonecrosis: Etiology, Diagnosis, and Treatment. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 413-418.

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Question 27

A previously asymptomatic 12-year-old girl sustained a direct blow to the right lateral knee from a baseball bat. Examination reveals an area of ecchymosis and tenderness over the lateral thigh. The patient can walk without pain, but range of motion of the knee causes discomfort. Plain radiographs of the knee are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. To address the bone lesion, management should consist of





Explanation

The plain radiographs reveal a pedunculated osteochondroma with a fracture. There is a bony growth in the metaphysis of a long bone, on a stalk that is directed away from the nearby epiphysis. On the AP view, the host cortical and medullary bone are shown as "blending" with lesional bone. There is also a fracture through the lesion. Based on these radiographic findings, the diagnosis is an osteochondroma; therefore, initial management of an acute fracture of an osteochondroma is symptomatic treatment alone. Additional imaging studies are not indicated in this patient. At times it may be difficult to distinguish a sessile osteochondroma from a parosteal osteosarcoma. In the latter case, the host medullary bone and lesion bone are not confluent. A CT scan may be helpful to distinguish if the host medullary and cortical bone are confluent with the lesion.

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Question 28

A 17-year-old high school gymnast who has peripatellar knee pain has been unable to practice on a consistent basis for the past 3 years. She denies any specific injury events. Physical therapy for modalities, quadriceps strengthening, and hamstring stretching provide temporary relief. A trial of patellar taping significantly reduces her pain. Examination reveals an 15-degree Q angle, moderate lateral facet tenderness, negative patellar apprehension, and the inability to evert the patella. Radiographs show a moderate lateral patellar tilt. Treatment should now consist of





Explanation

The patient has patellofemoral stress and a tight lateral retinaculum that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management; therefore, the most appropriate treatment includes an arthroscopic lateral retinacular release. A patellar restraining brace may aggravate the peripatellar pain by increasing pressure on the lateral facet. There is no evidence of patellar instability or significant malalignment; therefore, medial retinacular repair or a tibial tubercle transfer is not indicated. A modified Maquet tibial tubercle elevation would be considered only for significant patellofemoral arthrosis. Gambardella RA: Techical pitfalls of patellofemoral surgery. Clin Sports Med 1999;18:897-903.

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Question 29

A 20-year-old man has a symptomatic lesion of fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck. Management should consist of





Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck frequently warrants treatment because of the risk of pathologic fracture. Cortical strut grafts reduce the risk of local recurrence compared with cancellous bone grafting. Because of the consequences associated with fracture in this location, prophylactic fixation is recommended. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are not used for this benign condition. Simon M, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 197.

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Question 30

A 41-year-old man who plays golf regularly has had ulnar-sided wrist pain for the past several days after striking a tree root with a golf club. Examination reveals significant pain with resisted flexion of the ring and small fingers and tenderness over the hook of the hamate. Which of the following radiographic views would be most helpful in identifying the pathology of this injury?

Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 1





Explanation

The history and examination findings suggest an acute fracture of the hook of the hamate. The radiographic study considered most helpful in identifying this type of fracture is the carpal tunnel view. PA and lateral views of the wrist will not adequately visualize the hook of the hamate. Bruerton's view is intended for the assessment of the metacarpophalangeal joints. Pathology would not be suspected in the scaphoid, metacarpals, or the phalanges, so the scaphoid view and the PA, lateral, and oblique views of the hand would not be helpful. Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, p 855.

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Question 31

What are the five most common tumors that metastasize to bone?





Explanation

The five most common primary carcinomas that metastasize to bone are breast, prostate, lung, renal, and thyroid in decreasing order of incidence. Frassica FJ, Gitelis S, Sim FH: Metastatic bone disease: General principles, pathophysiology, evaluation, and biopsy. Instr Course Lect 1992;41:293-300.

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Question 32

What is the most likely complication following treatment of the humeral shaft fracture shown in Figure 6?

Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1





Explanation

The humerus was treated with an intramedullary nail. Findings from two prospective randomized studies of intramedullary nailing or compression plating of acute humeral fractures have shown approximately a 30% incidence of shoulder pain with antegrade humeral nailing. This is the most common complication in both of these series. Nonunions are present in approximately 5% to 10% of humeral fractures treated with an intramedullary nail. Infection has an incidence of approximately 1%. Elbow injury is unlikely unless the nail is excessively long. Rarely, injury to the radial nerve is possible if it is trapped in the intramedullary canal. Chapman JR, Henley MB, Agel J, et al: Randomized prospective study of humeral shaft fracture fixation: Intramedullary nails versus plates. J Orthop Trauma 2000;14:162-166.

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Question 33

A 42-year-old man who is right-hand dominant injured his right shoulder when he fell from a ladder onto his outstretched arm 1 hour ago. Radiographs reveal a two-part greater tuberosity anterior fracture-dislocation. Initial management should consist of





Explanation

Greater tuberosity anterior fractures associated with anterior glenohumeral dislocations respond very well to closed methods in the majority of patients. Closed reduction of the glenohumeral joint often anatomically reduces the greater tuberosity into its cancellous bed, without the need for open fixation or cuff repair. Once closed reduction of the joint is performed, tuberosity displacement and joint articulation should be evaluated radiographically with AP and scapular lateral views as well as an axillary view. The axillary view will not only definitively show the joint articulation but also demonstrate posterior displacement of the greater tuberosity missed on the AP and lateral views. If no or minimal (5 mm) displacement is found, then nonsurgical management consisting of a sling and gentle passive range-of-motion exercises can be instituted. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286.

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Question 34

An active 48-year-old woman has had progressive retrocalcaneal pain for the past 2 years. She reports that an injection into the retrocalcaneal bursa 3 weeks ago provided relief, but she now has swelling and weakness after tripping on the stairs 3 days ago. The Thompson test is positive. A radiograph is shown in Figure 36. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 16





Explanation

The patient's long-standing symptoms and radiograph indicate a chronic insertional Achilles tendinopathy that has progressed to complete rupture. This situation is best treated with tendon debridement and repair, often requiring supplementation graft from the flexor hallucis longus. MRI could provide additional information on the quality of the Achilles tendon, but neither MRI nor ultrasound is necessary to make a diagnosis or determine the surgical indication. Conservative management will be unpredictable with a chronic degenerative tendon injury. Myerson MS, McGarvey W: Disorders of the Achilles tendon: Insertion and Achilles tendinitis. Instr Course Lect 1999;48:211-218. Wilcox DK, Bohay DR, Anderson JG: Treatment of chronic Achilles tendon disorders with flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer/augmentation. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:1004-1010.

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Question 35

Treatment of adhesive capsulitis has a high failure rate when the underlying cause is

Shoulder Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 17





Explanation

Diabetes mellitus has been associated with resistant cases of adhesive capsulitis. With other causes of onset, adhesive capsulitis frequently responds to nonsurgical management such as stretching exercises or, when this fails, manipulation under anesthesia and/or arthroscopic release. Manipulation is rarely successful for the treatment of adhesive capsulitis associated with diabetes mellitus, and arthroscopic release may be preferred. Fisher L, Kurtz A, Shipley M: Association between cheiroarthropathy and frozen shoulder in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Br J Rheumatol 1986;25:141-146. Janda DH, Hawkins RJ: Shoulder manipulation in patients with adhesive capsulitis and diabetes mellitus: A clinical note. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1993;2:36-38.

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Question 36

During what phase of the throwing motion is the highest torque measured across the glenohumeral joint?





Explanation

Electromyography is used to evaluate muscular firing patterns about the shoulder during the throwing sequence. The rotator cuff muscles and biceps are relatively inactive during the acceleration phase, whereas the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis show highest activity. By contrast, deceleration is accomplished by the rotator cuff musculature and the larger trunk muscles acting in concert to slow down the arm. It is during this phase of follow through that the highest torque is measured secondary to eccentric muscle contraction. Jobe FW, Moynes DR, Tibone JE, Perry J: An EMG analysis of the shoulder in pitching: A second report. Am J Sports Med 1984;12:218-220. Pappas AM, Zawacki RM, Sulliva TJ: Biomechanics of baseball pitching: A preliminary report. Am J Sports Med 1985;13:216-222.

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Question 37

A 19-year-old man has had back pain with activity, especially running in soccer and baseball, for the past 4 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals no motor weakness or sensory changes in the lower extremities. Range of motion shows increased pain with extension and mild limitation with flexion. A sitting straight leg raising test is limited at approximately 60 degrees bilaterally by back and buttocks pain. Plain radiographs are normal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 13a through 13e. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The patient has an isthmic spondylolysis. The plain radiographs are normal, but the MRI scans show increased marrow edema and signal at the L5 pars interarticularis. Findings of bilateral hamstring tightness and increased pain with extension over flexion suggests spondylolysis. The MRI scans do not show any signs of the other conditions. Wiltse LL, Rothman SL: Spondylolisthesis: Classification, diagnosis and natural history. Sem Spine Surg 1993;5:264-280.

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Question 38

In recurrent posterior shoulder instability, what is the recommended approach to the posterior capsule?





Explanation

Using an infraspinatus-splitting incision allows for excellent exposure of the posterior capsule and minimizes the risk of injury to the axillary nerve which lies inferior to the teres minor in the quadrilateral space. Dreese J, D'Alessandro D: Posterior capsulorrhaphy through infraspinatus split for posterior instability. Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;6:199-207. Shaffer BS, Conway J, Jobe FW, et al: Infraspinatus muscle-splitting incision in posterior shoulder surgery: An anatomic and electromyographic study. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:113-120.

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Question 39

Figure 1 shows the radiograph of a 68-year-old man who underwent revision hip arthroplasty with impaction grafting of the femur and cementing of a tapered component into the graft 2 years ago. The patient remains symptom-free. Which of the following best describes the most likely histologic appearance of the proximal femur if a biopsy was performed?

Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1





Explanation

The radiograph shows three zones: an outer regenerated cortical layer, an interface zone consisting of viable trabecular bone and occasional particles of bone cement, and an inner layer of necrotic bone embedded in cement. No fibrous membrane is noted, and there is no direct contact of cement with native bone. Based on these findings, it is believed that the middle layer is the result of incorporation of the allograft with further remodeling. Nelissen RG, Bauer TW, Weidenhielm LR, LeGolvan DP, Mikhail WE: Revision hip arthroplasty with the use of cement and impaction grafting: Histological analysis of four cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:412-422.

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Question 40

A previously healthy 30-year-old woman has neck pain and bilateral hand and lower extremity tingling with weakness after falling down stairs. She is alert and oriented. Examination reveals incomplete quadriplegia at the C6 level that remains unchanged throughout her evaluation and initial treatment. Radiographs show a bilateral facet dislocation of C6 on C7 without fracture. Attempts at reduction with halo cervical traction up to her body weight are unsuccessful. What is the next most appropriate step?

Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4





Explanation

A facet dislocation that cannot be reduced in an alert, awake patient with some preservation of cord function requires MRI to evaluate the disk prior to a reduction under anesthesia. The presence or absence of a disk herniation must be assessed, as this factor may influence the method of reduction. Vaccaro AR, Falatyn SP, Flanders AE, et al: Magnetic resonance evaluation of the intervertebral disc, spinal ligaments, and spinal cord before and after closed traction reduction of cervical spine dislocations. Spine 1999;24:1210-1217. Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 247-262. Eismont FJ, Arena MJ, Green BA: Extrusion of an intervertebral disc associated with traumatic subluxation or dislocation of cervical facets. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1555-1560.

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Question 41

A 68-year-old man had a 3-year history of shoulder pain that failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Examination reveals forward elevation to 120 degrees and external rotation to 30 degrees. True AP and axillary radiographs and an axial CT scan are shown in Figures 1a through 1c. What management option would lead to the best long-term results?





Explanation

The radiographs and CT scan reveal osteoarthritis with posterior subluxation and posterior bone loss. Total shoulder arthroplasty with reaming of the high side to neutralize the glenoid surface has been shown to yield better results than hemiarthroplasty. The amount of bone loss in this patient does not require posterior glenoid augmentation. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for rotator cuff tear arthropathy; therefore, it is not applicable. Arthroscopic debridement has yielded poor results with advanced osteoarthritis and posterior subluxation. Results from glenoid osteotomy have been variable and glenoid osteotomy is not indicated with associated osteoarthritis. Iannotti JP, Norris TR: Influence of preoperative factors on outcome of shoulder arthroplasty for glenohumeral osteoarthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:251-258.

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Question 42

Based on the MRI scan shown in Figure 6, the abnormal signal is seen in what carpal bone?

Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 13





Explanation

The MRI scan reveals an abnormal signal in the trapezoid, which lies adjacent to the capitate in the distal carpal row. The tumor is a giant cell tumor of bone. Cooney WP, Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH: The Wrist: Diagnosis and Operative Treatment. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 278-282. Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, pp 2238-2240. bar based on these measurements is shown in Figure 54d. Initial treatment should consist of 1- bony bar resection and distal fibula epiphysiodesis. 2- bony bar resection and corrective osteotomy. 3- bony bar resection and physiodesis of the opposite distal tibial physis. 4- corrective osteotomy and a limb-lengthening procedure. 5- corrective osteotomy and physiodesis of the opposite distal tibial physis. 2 54a 54b 54c 54d Mapping of a physeal bar from biplane polytomography or CT helps to identify lesions that should be treated surgically and aids in planning the surgical approach and resection. Criteria for surgical excision are at least 2 years of longitudinal growth remaining and involvement of no more than 50% of the physis. Osteotomy is required if angular deformity is greater than 20 degrees. Although this physeal bar is large, it is slightly less than 50% of the total area of the physis. Limb lengthening in this case should be reserved for failure of bar resection. Physiodesis of the opposite distal tibia at this age would result in disproportionate shortening of both tibiae. Carlson WO, Wenger DR: A mapping method to prepare for surgical excision of a partial physeal arrest. J Pediatr Orthop 1984;4:232-238.

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Question 43

The axis of forearm rotation occurs between what two anatomic points?

Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 29





Explanation

Forearm rotation results from a complex interaction of osseous articulations and soft tissues including the radiocapitellar articulation, proximal and distal radioulnar joints, the interosseous membrane, and the adjacent forearm muscles. The rotation occurs around a longitudinal forearm axis extending from the center of the radial head proximally through the foveal region of the ulnar head distally. Werner FW, An KN: Biomechanics of the elbow and forearm. Hand Clin 1994;10:357-373.

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Question 44

Which of the following is considered the preferred approach to resect a lesion in the posterior one third of the proximal humerus?





Explanation

At least 8 cm of the posterior aspect of the proximal region of the humeral diaphyseal cortex can be exposed through the interval between the lateral head of the triceps and the deltoid muscle. No nerves or blood vessels need to be exposed in the dissection. The deltoid muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve and the triceps muscle by the radial nerve. This is a true internervous plane.

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Question 45

Figure 49 shows the radiograph of a 3-year-old child with progressive bowlegs. Laboratory studies show a calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (normal 9.0 to 11.0 mg/dL), a phosphorus level of 4.2 mg/dL (normal 3 to 5.7 mg/dL), and an alkaline phosphatase level of 305 IU/L (normal 104 to 345 IU/L). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pediatrics Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6





Explanation

The patient has bowlegs associated with very wide physes, particularly noted at the hips. The widening of the growth plates is a classic sign of rickets; however, the normal levels of calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase rule out both nutritional and hypophosphatemic rickets. Patients with nutritional rickets or hypophosphatemic rickets have hypophosphatemia and increased alkaline phosphatase levels. Jansen metaphyseal dysostosis has very severe radiographic findings that are not found in this patient; however, these radiographic findings are classic for Schmid metaphyseal dysostosis. This disorder is caused by a mutation in the gene for type X collagen, which is found only in the growth plates of growing children. Lachman RS, Rimoin DL, Spranger J: Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia - Schmid type: Clinical and radiographic delineation with a review of the literature. Pediatr Radiol 1988;18:93-102.

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Question 46

What is the most appropriate orthosis for hallux rigidus?

Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10





Explanation

A Morton's extension limits excursion of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. It also functions as a ground reaction stabilizer during the toe-off phase of gait and thus reduces torque and joint reaction force at the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The metatarsal arch pad and full-length semi-rigid longitudinal arch support may help by dorsiflexing the first metatarsal relative to the phalanx and thus decompress the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, they are not as biomechanically effective as the Morton's extension. Both medial hindfoot and lateral forefoot posting are contraindicated because they increase ground reaction at the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Coughlin MJ: Arthritides, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, p 611.

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Question 47

Free flap coverage for severe trauma to the upper extremity has the fewest complications when performed within what time period after injury?





Explanation

Flap necrosis and infection rates are lowest if free flap coverage is performed within 72 hours of injury. Delays beyond 72 hours are associated with a higher rate of complications. Godina M: Early microsurgical reconstruction of complex trauma of the extremities. Plast Reconstr Surg 1986;78:285-292.

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Question 48

A 13-year-old girl is referred for a painful progressive valgus deformity of the right knee. Examination reveals an antalgic gait with an obvious valgus deformity. The right distal femur has a palpable, tender mass with erythema and warmth. Figures 4a and 4b show a clinical photograph and a radiograph. Management should consist of





Explanation

The radiograph shows a pathologic fracture through a destructive lesion of the distal femur metaphysis with osteolytic and osteoblastic features. The lateral cortex is destroyed, and there is periosteal new bone formation. These findings are consistent with malignancy, most likely an osteogenic sarcoma. Patients with suspected malignant tumors are best managed by surgeons with specific expertise in orthopaedic oncology. The biopsy of a malignant lesion should be deferred to the surgeon who is capable of definitive management of the patient. Enneking W: Principles of musculoskeletal oncologic surgery, in Evarts C (ed): Surgery of the Musculoskeletal System. New York, NY, Churchill Livingston, 1990.

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Question 49

A 52-year-old man underwent arthroscopic repair of a 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear 3 weeks ago. He was doing well until he fell down three stairs. One week after the fall he continues to report pain similar to his preoperative pain. An MRI scan reveals a minimally retracted 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear in the same location as his original tear. Management should now consist of

Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 33





Explanation

The patient has retorn his rotator cuff repair. This traumatic retear is different from a chronic tear and should be treated similar to an acute rotator cuff tear. Because the patient is younger than age 65 and has a small, single tendon tear, a revision rotation cuff repair is indicated with an expected tendon healing rate of greater than 95%. A physical therapy program is not indicated, and further delay in repair compromises his functional recovery. A cortisone injection is not indicated for this repairable tendon tear. Immobilization will not allow the tendon to heal once it has retorn. A debridement procedure is not indicated on this repairable tendon tear; this procedure is indicated in painful, chronic, irreparable tendon tears. Boileau P, Brassart N, Watkinson DJ, et al: Arthroscopic repair of full-thickness tears of the supraspinatus: Does the tendon really heal? J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1229-1240. Jost B, Zumstein M, Pfirrmann CWA, et al: Long-term outcome after structural failure of rotator cuff repairs. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:472-479.

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Question 50

A 21-year-old basketball player inverts his foot during practice. Examination reveals obvious deformity of the hindfoot with a prominence of the talar head dorsolaterally and medial displacement of the forefoot. A radiograph is shown in Figure 17. What is the most likely obstacle to closed reduction?

Trauma Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13





Explanation

The patient has a medial subtalar dislocation. These injuries should be reduced as soon as possible to minimize risk to the skin. Most often, this can be done easily, and further radiographic evaluation then can be performed as necessary. On rare occasions, closed reduction is not possible because of fractures of the articular surface of the talus, navicular, interposed extensor digitorum brevis, or transverse fibers of the cruciate crural ligament. The posterior tibial tendon is the most common obstruction to closed reduction in lateral subtalar dislocations, which are less common than medial dislocations. The majority of both injuries can be managed by closed reduction and immobilization. Mulroy RD: The tibialis posterior tendon as an obstacle to reduction of a lateral anterior subtalar dislocation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1953;37:859-863. Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations of the foot, in Rockwood CA, Green DP, Bucholz RW (eds): Fractures in Adults. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991, pp 2093-2100.

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Question 51

When performing a gastrocnemius recession, what structure should be protected?





Explanation

When performing a gastrocnemius slide at the tendinous portion of the gastrocnemius insertion, the sural nerve and saphenous vein, which tend to run midline posterior at this level, must be protected and retracted laterally. An anatomic study of the sural nerve at this level localized the nerve superficial to the deep fascia overlying the gastrocnemius in 42.5% of the cases; deep to the superficial fascia in 57.5% of the cases, and directly applied to the gastrocnemius tendon in 12.5% of cases. Pinney SJ, Sangeorzan BJ, Hanen ST Jr: Surgical anatomy of the gastrocnemius resection (Strayer procedure). Foot Ankle Int 2004;25:247-250.

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Question 52

A 4-month-old infant is referred for evaluation of congenital scoliosis. The child has no congenital heart anomalies, and a renal ultrasound shows that he has one kidney. Examination reveals mild scoliosis and a large hairy patch on the child's back. Neurologic evaluation is normal for his age. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. Initial management should consist of





Explanation

Congenital anomalies of the spine, including failure of formation and failure of segmentation, are associated with other anomalies in other organ systems that develop at the same time. These include anomalies in the genitourinary system, cardiac anomalies, Sprengel's deformity, radial hypoplasia, and gastrointestinal anomalies including imperforate anus and trachealesophageal fistula. Spinal dysraphism is the most common associated abnormality. McMaster found an 18% incidence before the common use of MRI. Bradford and associates reported on 16 of 42 patients with congenital spinal anomalies and spinal dysraphism using MRI. Neural axis lesions may be associated with visible midline abnormalities such as a hairy patch or nevus. The child has already had a cardiac and renal work-up, and based on the findings of the hairy patch and congenital vertebral anomalies, MRI of the entire spine is prudent at this time. Spinal fusion is indicated for progressive congenital scoliosis or kyphosis. Physical therapy does not affect the natural history of congenital scoliosis. McMaster MJ: Occult intraspinal anomalies and congenital scoliosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:588-601. Bradford DS, Heithoff KB, Cohen M: Intraspinal abnormalities and congenital spine deformities: A radiographic and MRI study. J Pediatr Orthop 1991;11:36-41.

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Question 53

As reflected by the SF-36 scores, patients with which of the following conditions demonstrate the most disability in physical function?

Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 39





Explanation

Pollak and associates found that the average SF-36 score for patients who sustained a pilon fracture was significantly lower than patients with diabetes mellitus, AIDS, hypertension, asthma, migraines, pelvic fracture, polytrauma, and AMI. Moreover, patients having undergone pilon fixation scored lower on all but three of the SF-36 scales (vitality, mental health, and emotional health).

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Question 54

What complication is more likely following excessive medial retraction of the anterior covering structures during the anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip?

Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 41





Explanation

The femoral nerve is the most lateral structure in the anterior neurovascular bundle. The femoral artery and vein lie medial to the nerve. Retractors placed in the anterior acetabular lip should be safe, although neurapraxia of the femoral nerve may occur if retraction is prolonged or forceful leading to quadriceps weakness. The femoral artery and nerve are well protected by the interposed psoas muscle. Damage to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, causing numbness over the anterolateral thigh, can occur while developing the interval between the tensor fascia latae and sartorious in the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach but less likely in the Watson-Jones approach. Superior gluteal injury and accompanying abductor insufficiency may occur during excessive splitting of the glutei during the direct lateral (Hardinge) approach. Foot drop secondary to sciatic injury is more common with a posterior exposure or posterior retractor placement. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, p 325.

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Question 55

A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with a stage IIB osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. Following neoadjuvant chemotherapy, local control should consist of





Explanation

Local control of osteosarcoma consists of wide resection and reconstruction. Radiation therapy is not recommended except in unresectable lesions or for palliation. Curettage and bone grafting result in intralesional resection with an unacceptable high rate of local recurrence. Chemotherapy alone is not adequate for local control. Simon M, Springfield D, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 274.

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Question 56High Yield

Figures 8a and 8b show the current radiographs of a 10-year-old boy with a hip disorder who was treated with an abduction orthosis 3 years ago. If no further remodeling occurs, what is the most likely prognosis?

Explanation

The radiographs show a child with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (LCPD) that has healed. Deformity (asphericity) of the femoral head is evident, but the femoral head and acetabulum are congruous. Stulberg and associates found that hips with aspherical congruity at skeletal maturity functioned well until the fifth or sixth decade of life. Similarly, another study found that degenerative arthritis caused deteriorating hip function after age 40 years in patients with this degree of residual deformity. Repeated episodes of ischemic necrosis are unlikely. Although some studies suggested coagulation abnormalities such as protein C and S deficiencies in children with LCPD, other studies failed to show any evidence of inherited thrombophila in most children with this disorder. There are no studies to suggest growth acceleration occurs following LCPD. Stulberg SD, Cooperman DR, Wallenstein R: The natural history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:479-489.

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Question 57

A 25-year-old woman has significant pain and swelling in her left ankle after falling off her bicycle. Examination reveals that she is neurovascularly intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a through 33c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?





Explanation

The radiographs show a displaced ankle fracture with widening of the syndesmosis. Open reduction and internal fixation is indicated with fixation of the mortise with syndesmotic screws. Wuest TK: Injuries to the distal lower extremity syndesmosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:172-181.

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Question 58

A 51-year-old woman is seen for evaluation of chronic supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears. Three years ago, in an attempted repair the surgeon was unable to repair the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears. Currently she has a marked amount of pain, reduced range of motion, and weakness. Examination reveals anterosuperior escape. Radiographs show no signs of arthritic changes. You are considering a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. During the discussion, you mention that





Explanation

Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is considered a surgical option for treatment in patients with chronic supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears. Preoperative subscapularis function is necessary for good clinical results. Additionally, men with active elevation to shoulder level and active external rotation to 20 degrees have predictably good results. Women with active shoulder elevation limited to below chest level have poor results from this procedure and should not be considered candidates. Postoperatively they lack pain control, active elevation, and active external rotation. Muscular atrophy in the latissimus dorsi does not occur, and glenohumeral arthritic changes frequently develop postoperatively. Gerber C, Maquieira G, Espinosa N: Latissimus dorsi transfer for the treatment of irreparable rotator cuff tears: Factors affecting outcome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:113-120.

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Question 59

A 47-year-old woman underwent a distal chevron bunionectomy 2 months ago. Her postoperative recovery had been uneventful until 1 week ago. She now has new onset pain and dorsal swelling in the area of the third metatarsal. A radiograph is shown in Figure 27. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 1





Explanation

Based on findings of a sudden increase in pain with associated swelling, the most likely diagnosis is a stress fracture. The initial radiographic findings usually will be negative. Morton's neuroma and transfer metatarsalgia are not associated with swelling. Metatarsophalangeal synovitis usually involves the second metatarsophalangeal joint. Freiberg's infraction is seen clearly on a radiograph.

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Question 60

What is the single most important nutritional factor affecting athletic performance?





Explanation

Maintenance of adequate hydration is the single most important factor affecting athletic performance. While carbohydrate loading may be beneficial for some endurance athletes, the consumption of carbohydrates during exercise does not appear to be beneficial for athletes engaged in events that last less than 1 hour. In general, athletes consuming a balanced diet do not need electrolyte supplementation. Maughan RJ, Noakes TD: Fluid replacement and exercise stress: A brief review of studies on fluid replacement and some guidelines for the athlete. Sports Med 1991;12:16-31.

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Question 61

What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for a stage III symptomatic scapholunate advanced collapsed (SLAC) wrist?





Explanation

SLAC is the end result of chronic scapholunate instability. The arthritis follows a predictable pattern. Stage I disease involves cartilage loss between the waist of the scaphoid and the radial styloid. In stage II, the arthritis progresses to include the proximal pole of the scaphoid and the scaphoid fossa of the radius. Finally, stage III goes on to include arthritis of the capitolunate joint. The only treatment option that addresses all of the sites of arthritis is the scaphoid excision and four corner fusion. Ashmead DT IV, Watson HK, Damon C, et al: Scapholunate advanced collapse wrist salvage. J Hand Surg Am 1994;19:741-750.

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Question 62

Which of the following body positions is associated with the highest intradiskal pressure?





Explanation

Intradiskal pressure is lowest when the patient is in the supine position. Sitting is associated with higher intradiskal pressures than standing. Flexion also increases intradiskal pressure. The combination of flexion and sitting produces the highest intradiskal pressure. Nachemson and Morris found that intradiskal pressure increases as position changes from lying supine, lying prone, standing, leaning forward, sitting, and sitting leaning forward. Twisting or straining in positions of relatively high intradiskal pressure may predispose patients to herniation of the intervertebral disk. Patients with a herniated disk may also notice their pain worsens with activities that increase the disk pressure, including the positions mentioned, or activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (coughing, sneezing, straining). Nachemson A, Morris JM: In vivo measurements of intradiscal pressure. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1964;46:1077-1092.

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Question 63

A 58-year-old woman has a fracture through a metacarpal lesion after a motor vehicle accident. She denies any preinjury symptoms and the fracture heals uneventfully. Based on the radiograph and MRI scans shown in Figures 22a through 22c obtained following fracture healing, follow-up management should consist of





Explanation

Enchondromas are the most common benign skeletal lesions identified in the bones of the hand. Most are incidentally found or initially become clinically evident after a pathologic fracture. If the patient has a fracture, the hand is immobilized until union. If the lesion is large and further pathologic fractures are expected, then an intralesional curettage and grafting procedure may be warranted. In this patient, the lesion has not significantly altered the size, shape, or morphology of the involved metacarpal head and recurrent fracture is unlikely. Observation with follow-up radiographs is considered appropriate management. Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 213-228.

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Question 64

A college football player performs bicep curls as part of his weight lifting routine. During the flexion phase of the curl, what term defines the type of muscle contraction?





Explanation

Muscle contractions can be classified by tension, length, and velocity. Isometric contractions involve changing tension in the muscle while the muscle stays at a constant length. An example would be pushing against a wall. Isokinetic contractions occur when the muscle maximally contracts at a constant velocity. Isotonic contractions involve constant tension throughout the range of motion. Eccentric contraction is when the muscle lengthens during contraction. Eccentric contractions have the highest risk of injury. Plyometrics are eccentric contractions at a rapid rate. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 89-125.

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Question 65

Figures 29a and 29b show the radiograph and CT scan of a 48-year-old man who has diffuse spinal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The studies show marginal syndesmophyte formation characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis. These patients typically have diffuse ossification of the disk space without large osteophyte formation. DISH typically presents with large osteophytes, referred to as nonmarginal syndesmophytes. In this patient, the zygoapophyseal joints are fused rather than degenerative as would be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, and the costovertebral joints are also fused. Osteopetrosis does not normally ankylose the disk space. McCullough JA, Transfeldt EE: Macnab's Backache, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1997, pp 190-194.

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Question 66

A 54-year-old woman reports worsening pain in her buttock, especially when sitting for long periods of time. She has occasional pain and paresthesias radiating down her posterior leg. She has no significant medical history. MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a and 15b and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 15c. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The biopsy specimen shows a wavy collagenous matrix with elongated cells; this is most consistent with neurofibroma. The patient has a mass in the region of the sciatic nerve. Imaging characteristics, homogeneous and very low signal on T1-weighted and very high signal on the T2-weighted sequences, are consistent with a myxoid-type lesion. These include myxoma, myxoid sarcomas, and nerve sheath tumors. Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 1135-1136

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Question 67

A 38-year-old man has an enlarging left paraspinal soft-tissue mass. Based on the MRI scans and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 32a through 32e, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Fibromatosis is a benign but aggressive fibrous lesion that principally arises from the connective tissue of muscle and the overlying fascia. The peak incidence is between the ages of 25 and 35 years. Most patients have a deep-seated, firm, poorly circumscribed mass that has grown insidiously and causes little or no pain. MRI is helpful in diagnosing the lesion and in assessing the extent of disease prior to surgical intervention. Histologically, the lesion is poorly circumscribed and infiltrates the surrounding tissue. The lesion appears bland with uniform spindle cells separated by abundant collagen, with little or no cell-to-cell contact. Despite its bland microscopic appearance, the tumor frequently behaves in an aggressive manner. These lesions do not metastasize but have a high incidence of recurrence. Treatment options consist of surgical resection, radiation therapy, chemotherapeutic protocols, hormone modulation, and/or anti-inflammatory medications. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss's Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 309-337.

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Question 68

Outcome measures should have established psychometric properties of reliability, validity, and responsiveness. Reliability refers to which of the following?





Explanation

The recent JBJS article by Kocher and associates defines the different psychometric properties that are used in outcome measures. Reliability is a measure of how reproducible a test is. This can be interobserver reliability (ie, reliability between people), or intraobserver reliability (ie, reliability for the same person doing the outcome measure at different occasions).

Scientific References

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Question 69

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has a rupture of the extensor digitorum communis to 4 and 5. You are planning to perform an extensor indicis proprius (EIP) tendon transfer. What effect will this have on index finger extension?





Explanation

EIP transfer results in no functional deficit. If the tendon is cut proximal to the sagittal band, there will be no extensor deficit. Browne EX, Teague MA, Snyder CC: Prevention of extensor lag after indicis proprius transfer. J Hand Surg Am 1979;4:168-172.

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Question 70

A 10-year-old girl has a right elbow deformity that is the result of trauma 5 years ago. She has no pain despite the arm deformity. The radiographs in Figures 42a and 42b show complete healing. This radiographic appearance demonstrates what complication?





Explanation

Cubitus varus is a common complication of displaced supracondylar humeral fractures that are treated with closed reduction and cast immobilization. Treatment with closed reduction and percutaneous pinning decreases the incidence of this complication. Cubitus varus also can occur in minimally displaced fractures when unrecognized collapse of the medial column of the distal humerus is not corrected with manipulation. This can be detected on physical examination of the carrying angle or on radiographs measuring Baumann's angle, both in comparison to the opposite side. Cubitus varus may result in unacceptable cosmesis and may predispose the patient to fractures of the lateral condyle. The lateral radiograph demonstrates the crescent sign from overlap of the distal humerus with the olecranon seen in patients with cubitus varus. Patients with growth arrest to the medial trochlear physis would have atrophy of the trochlea on radiographs. Flynn JM, Sarwark JF, Waters PM, et al: The surgical management of pediatric fractures of the upper extremity. Instr Course Lect 2003;52:635-45. Papandrea R, Waters PM: Posttraumatic reconstruction of the elbow in the pediatric patient. Clin Orthop 2000;370:115-126.

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Question 71

Figure 26 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy Caucasian 5-year-old boy who has a painless limp. What is the best treatment option?

Pediatrics 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 8





Explanation

The prognosis of Legg-Perthes disease in children younger than age 6 years is good. There is no indication that surgical treatment will improve the outcome. Range-of-motion exercises to prevent contracture may be helpful. Herring JA, Kim HT, Browne R: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease: Prospective multicenter study of the effect of treatment on outcome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:2121-2134.

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Question 72

Locked plating techniques have been shown to have biomechanical advantages over standard plating in which of the following scenarios?





Explanation

Locked plating is becoming more common. Some biomechanical data comparing locked plating to standard plating have been reported for osteoporotic distal femoral fractures and humeral shaft fractures. Significant differences were seen mainly for osteoporotic fractures without cortical contact. Not all osteoporotic fractures and all comminuted fractures have been shown to demonstrate significant mechanical improvement with locked plating compared to standard plating. Spiral fractures often can be repaired with a lag screw, obtaining adequate cortical contact. Osteoporotic fractures with a torsion mode of failure failed earlier with locked plating systems than with standard plating systems. Zlowodzki M, Williamson S, Cole PA, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of the less invasive stabilization system, angled blade plate, and retrograde intramedullary nail for the internal fixation of distal femur fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2004;18:494-502.

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Question 73

A 10-month-old boy has multiple skeletal lesions and a skin rash that he has had since he was a newborn. Based on the radiographs and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 79a through 79d, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Langerhans cell histiocytosis or eosinophilic granuloma is a nonneoplastic lesion that is part of a spectrum of clinical diseases featuring histiocytes. Most occur during the first two decades of life within any bone. Radiographs show a radiolucent lesion, frequently diaphyseal in location. A periosteal response is occasionally seen and can resemble more aggressive lesions such as osteomyelitis or Ewing's sarcoma. Histology demonstrates CD1a positive histiocytes with large oval-shaped nuclei with indentation, and a variable presence of eosinophils. Plasschaert F, Craig C, Bell R, et al: Eosinophilic granuloma: A different behaviour in children than in adults. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2002;84:870-872.

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Question 74

What is the most important consideration in the preoperative evaluation of a child with polyarticular or systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)?

Pediatrics 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 25





Explanation

The cervical spine may be involved in a child with polyarticular or systemic JRA; fusion or instability can occur. Radiographic assessment of the cervical spine should include lateral flexion-extension views. The potential exists for spinal cord injury during intubation or positioning in the presence of an unstable cervical spine. Limitations of the TMJ and micrognathia may affect ease of intubation and administration of anesthesia via a mask. If the TMJ and jaw are involved, some patients may have dental findings such as dental caries and even abscesses which can affect surgery. Some children, particularly those with systemic arthritis, may be taking corticosteroids long-term and may need stress dosing with complex surgeries. Although it is important to routinely check for uveitis and iritis in children with JRA, this usually is not needed preoperatively. Uveitis and iritis are less likely in a child with systemic JRA. Cassity JT, Petty RE (eds): Textbook of Pediatric Rheumatology, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2005. Ilowite N: Current treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Pediatrics 2002;109:109-115. Ruddy S, Harris ED, Sledge CB (eds): Kelley's Textbook of Rheumatology, ed 6. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001.

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Question 75

Figures 38a and 38b show the CT scans of a 64-year-old woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The CT scans show large cystic lesions in the talus and calcaneus with complete subluxation of the subtalar joint, allowing the calcaneus to slide laterally until it becomes blocked by the fibula. The cause of this subluxation is severe posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. Although no fibular fracture has yet appeared, it can occur with continued stress from the calcaneus. There is, however, a pathologic fracture in the medial calcaneus through a medial degenerative cyst. The joint space is irregular and not symmetrical as would be seen in an inflammatory arthropathy. Cystic lesions are not present in the tibia. No stress fracture is seen in the talus. Coughlin MJ: Sesamoids and accessory bones of the foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 437-499.

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Question 76

Which of the following describes the correct proximal to distal progression of the annular and cruciform pulleys of the digits?





Explanation

The correct progression of the annular and cruciform pulley in the digits is A1, A2, C1, A3, C2, A4, C3. The two cruciform pulleys are collapsible elements adjacent to the more rigid annular pulleys of the flexor tendon sheath. This arrangement enables unrestricted flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 176-186.

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Question 77

Which of the following best describes carbohydrate loading?





Explanation

Carbohydrate loading is the practice of maximizing glycogen stores by decreasing training and increasing carbohydrate intake the week before an endurance event. Nonendurance athletes do not benefit from this because glycogen depletion is not the limiting factor during a normal competition. Potential side effects of carbohydrate loading are water retention, muscle stiffness, and weight gain. Coyle EF, Hagberg JM, Hurley BF, et al: Carbohydrate feeding during prolonged strenuous exercise can delay fatigue. J Appl Physiol 1983;55:230-235. Costill DL, Sherman WM, Fink WJ, et al: The role of dietary carbohydrates in muscle glycogen resynthesis after strenuous running. Am J Clin Nutr 1981;34:1831-1836.

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Question 78

Which of the following patient factors is associated with recurrent radicular pain following lumbar diskectomy for sciatica?





Explanation

A large annular defect at the site of a lumbar disk herniation is associated with persistent radicular pain postoperatively. Large sequestered herniations and a positive SLR preoperatively correlate with good outcomes after diskectomy. Neither symptoms of more than 3 months' duration nor preoperative epidural steroid injections correlate with postoperative results after diskectomy. Carragee EJ, Han MY, Suen PW, et al: Clinical outcomes after lumbar discectomy for sciatica: The effects of fragment type and anular competence. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:102-108.

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Question 79

A 16-year-old high school football player who sustained an acute forceful dorsiflexion ankle injury reported that he felt a pop and then noted immediate swelling over the lateral malleolus. Examination 24 hours later reveals moderate swelling and tenderness along the lateral malleolus. The external rotation, squeeze, anterior drawer, and talar tilt tests are negative. Subluxation of the peroneal tendons is palpable over the peroneal groove of the fibula. Radiographs reveal a small cortical avulsion off the distal rim of the fibula. The stress views show no instability. Initial management for this injury should include





Explanation

The patient has an acute peroneal tendon dislocation. The evaluation for syndesmotic injury and lateral ankle instability is negative. The cortical avulsion off the distal tip of the lateral malleolus, a rim fracture, is characteristic of peroneal tendon dislocations. The sensation of apprehension or frank subluxation of the peroneal tendons with active dorsiflexion of the foot while the foot is held in plantar flexion confirms the diagnosis. Based on these findings, initial management should consist of cast immobilization and protected weight bearing. If a recurrent or chronic condition develops, surgery is the most reliable treatment option. Arrowsmith SR, Fleming LL, Allman FL: Traumatic dislocations of the peroneal tendons. Am J Sports Med 1983;11:142-146.

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Question 80

A 34-year-old woman reports constant midlateral arm pain after sustaining minimal trauma to the shoulder. Radiographs and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Eighty percent of giant cell tumors occur in patients older than age 20 years, with the peak incidence in the third decade of life. Most of these tumors are eccentrically located and epiphyseal in location. They are lytic in nature as in this patient. Although named for the hallmarked multinucleated giant cells seen in the lesion, the basic cell type is the spindle-shaped stromal cell. Chondroblastoma is highly cellular and contains large multinucleated giant cells with intercellular chondroid material, some of which is calcified. Chondromyxoid fibroma has chondroid tissue separated by strands of more cellular tissue with occasional multinucleated giant cells. Desmoplastic fibroma is characterized by poorly cellular fibrous tissue, and lymphoma is highly cellular with characteristic round cells. Campanacci M, Baldini N, Boriani S, et al: Giant cell tumor of bone. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:106-114.

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Question 81

A 28-year-old professional dancer reports a 3-month history of progressive pain in the posterior aspect of the left ankle. Her symptoms are worse when she assumes the en pointe position. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation at the posterolateral aspect of the ankle posterior to the peroneal tendons which is made worse with passive plantar flexion. There is no nodularity, fluctuance, or tenderness of the Achilles tendon. The neurovascular examination is unremarkable. A lateral radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, respectively. Management should consist of





Explanation

The imaging studies reveal findings typical of the os trigonum syndrome. This condition results from inflammation between the os trigonum and the adjacent talus. The symptoms of posterior ankle pain are exacerbated by plantar flexion, which stresses the fibrous union between these two bones. Definitive management of the high-level athlete involves excision of the os trigonum from a medial approach, although arthroscopic excision has also been described. The os trigonum is not an intra-articular structure; therefore, ankle arthroscopy is neither diagnostic nor therapeutic. Abramowitz Y, Wollstein R, Barzilay Y, et al: Outcome of resection of a symptomatic os trigonum. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1051-1057. Mouhsine E, Crevoisier X, Leyvraz P, et al: Post-traumatic overload or acute syndrome of the os trigonum: A possible cause of posterior ankle impingement. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 2004;12:250-253.

References:

Question 82

Figures 43a and 43b show the T1- and T2-weighted MRI scans of a 78-year-old woman who reports the sudden atraumatic onset of well-localized medial knee pain. Pain is worse at night and also occurs with weight-bearing activity. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Osteonecrosis of the tibial plateau occurs infrequently. The symptoms are similar to those of idiopathic osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle and include pain and tenderness of the medial aspect of the knee and a slight synovitis. The range of motion of the knee remains within normal limits, and no gross deformity is present. Osteonecrosis of the tibial plateau is easily misdiagnosed as degenerative meniscus or osteoarthritis of the compartment of the knee. Review of lateral radiographs may reveal an osteopenic area in the subchondral bone of the medial tibial plateau. The diagnosis is more easily established with a bone scan where increased uptake of radionucleides is shown over the medial tibial plateau. In osteoarthritic involvement of the medial compartment, uptake is over both the medial femoral condyle and the medial tibial plateau, whereas if osteoarthritis involves the entire knee, uptake is diffuse over the entire joint. Radiographic findings in complex regional pain syndrome are normal as opposed to the findings for osteonecrosis or osteoarthritis. Osteosarcoma has a characteristic radiographic appearance of a bone-forming tumor. Loose bodies can derive from osteochondral fractures; a history of trauma is usually elicited. Osteoarthritis usually presents with joint space narrowing accompanying the weight-bearing pain. Soucacos PN, Berris AE, Xenakis TH, et al: Knee osteonecrosis: Distinguishing features in differential diagnosis, in Urbanik JR, Jones JD (eds): Osteonecrosis. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 413-424.

References:

Question 83

Which of following side effects is most commonly seen in a pediatric patient undergoing ketamine anesthesia?

Trauma 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 13





Explanation

The most common deleterious side effect of ketamine is increased salivation and tracheobronchial secretions. For this reason, an antisialagogue agent should be given. While lack of sufficient respiratory depression is one of the major advantages of using ketamine, apnea can occur if the drug is given too rapidly intravenously. Emergence phenomena is common in adults but relatively rare in children. Furman JR: Sedation and analgesia in the child with a fracture, in Rockwood CA Jr, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 62-63. White PF, Way WL, Trevor AJ: Ketamine: Its pharmacology and therapeutic uses. Anesthesiology 1982;56:119-136.

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Question 84

Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of an active 52-year-old man who has increasing knee pain and progressive varus deformity after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 7 years ago. Examination reveals a small effusion, but he has good motion and stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

The radiographs show narrowing of the medial joint space, which indicates polyethylene wear and progressive varus alignment. Wear particles incite osteolytic lesions like the one seen on the lateral radiograph. O'Rourke MR, Callaghan JJ, Goetz DG, et al: Osteolysis associated with a cemented modular posterior-cruciate-substituting total knee design. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1362-1371.

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Question 85

What is the most common complication following total disk arthroplasty in the lumbar spine?





Explanation

In a midterm (7 to 11 years) follow-up study of lumbar total disk arthroplasty, 5 of 55 patients had transient radicular leg pain without evidence of nerve root compression. Implant migration is rare. Deep venous thrombosis, incisional hernia, and retrograde ejaculation are less common complications of disk arthroplasty.

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Question 86

An 11-year-old boy has had a fever and pain and swelling over the lateral aspect of his right ankle for the past 3 days. Examination reveals warmth, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral malleolus, and he has a temperature of 103.2 degrees F (39.5 degrees C). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,200/mm3 with 61% neutrophils, an erythocyte sedimentation rate of 112 mm/h, and a C-reactive protein of 15.7. Radiographs and a T2-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. Aspiration yields 1 mL of purulent fluid. Management should now consist of





Explanation

The initial signs and symptoms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis vary widely but usually include fever, bone pain, and impaired use of the involved extremity. In lower extremity infections, the child may limp or refuse to walk. Examination often reveals bone tenderness. In more advanced cases, erythema, warmth, and swelling may be present. The WBC and neutrophil counts are not always elevated, but the erythocyte sedimentation rate will be abnormal in more than 90% of patients. When the infection is diagnosed early, before a subperiosteal abscess has formed, antibiotics alone may be adequate to treat the infection. This patient has a more advanced infection, however, with the MRI scan revealing a subperiosteal abscess that was confirmed by aspiration. When an abscess is present, surgical drainage is generally indicated to remove devitalized tissue and to enhance the efficacy of the antibiotics. Further studies, such as bone or indium scans, are not necessary and will delay definitive treatment. Scott RJ, Christofersen MR, Robertson WW Jr, et al: Acute osteomyelitis in children: A review of 116 cases. J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:649-652.

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Question 87

A 24-year-old woman who has hypotension, a head injury, and who experienced a poor response to resuscitation has been taken to the operating room for a splenectomy. Following abdominal surgery she remains unstable with increasing pulmonary respiratory pressures and decreasing oxygen saturation. She has a transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture of the tibia with a 4-cm laceration and soil-contaminated muscle in the wound. Based on these findings, management should consist of





Explanation

Because the patient is critically ill and requires expeditious care, stabilization of the long bone fracture is required, but definitive care of the fracture should be postponed. The treatment of choice at this time is irrigation with 12 L of saline solution, followed by debridement and nondefinitive stabilization with a simple four-pin external frame to regain axial and rotational alignment. When the patient's condition is more stable, more definitive care can be performed. Bosse MJ, Kellam JF: Orthopaedic management decisions in the multiple trauma patient, in Browner BD, Jupiter JP, Levine AM, Trafton P (eds): Skeletal Trauma, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 151-164. Weresh MJ, Stover MD, Bosse MJ, Jeray K, Kellam JF: Pulmonary gas exchange during intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures. J Trauma 1999;46:863-868.

References:

Question 88

Figures 28a and 28b show the radiographs of a 79-year-old man who has constant knee pain. Prior to performing elective knee replacement surgery, management should include





Explanation

The radiographs show established Paget's disease. Bony expansion is evident, with thickened trabeculae consistent with the disordered bone remodeling process. A reduction of the serum alkaline phosphatase level to 50% of the pretreatment level may reduce pain from Paget's disease, and it is recommended prior to consideration of joint replacement. In elective cases, treatment of Paget's disease should begin at least 6 weeks prior to surgery. The other modalities are not related to the treatment of Paget's disease. Kaplan FS, Singer FS: Paget's disease of bone: Pathophysiology, diagnosis, and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:336-344. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 129-184.

References:

Question 89

Which of the following is most frequently associated with heterotopic ossification about the shoulder?

Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19





Explanation

Multiple attempts at closed reduction, delayed surgery for proximal humeral fractures, and associated closed head injury all have been associated with a higher incidence of heterotopic ossification. Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, vol 1, p 291.

References:

Question 90

Figure 45 shows the radiograph of a 2-year-old patient who has progressive lumbar scoliosis as the result of hemivertebra. Examination reveals no associated cutaneous lesions, and an MRI scan shows no associated intraspinal anomalies. Treatment should consist of

Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 28





Explanation

In a retrospective review of 10 patients treated with hemivertebra excision for hemivertebra in the levels of T12 to L3, the procedure was found to be safe and effective. The procedure provided an average curve correction of 67 degrees and was greatest in patients who were younger than age 4 years at the time of surgery. Long anterior and posterior fusion with instrumentation is not the treatment of choice at this age. Either anterior hemiepiphyseodesis or posterior hemiarthrodesis in this isolated hemivertebra setting would be inadequate. Brace treatment is ineffective in management of the primary curvature.

References:

Question 91

What is the primary mechanism of injury for the fracture shown in Figures 33a and 33b?





Explanation

The radiographs show a triplane fracture of the ankle. In adolescence, closure of the distal tibial physis starts peripherally at the anteromedial aspect of the medial malleolus and extends posteriorly and laterally. The anterolateral quadrant of the physis is the last to close, making this region the most susceptible to separation. When the foot is twisted into external rotation, the anterolateral portion of the epiphysis is avulsed by the pull of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. When this fragment alone is avulsed, the result is a juvenile Tillaux fracture. When the fracture extends to involve the remainder of the physis and posterior metaphysis, as in this patient, the result is a triplane fracture. Richards BS (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Pediatrics. Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 267-272. Dias LS, Giegerich CR: Fractures of the distal tibial epiphysis in adolescence. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:438-444.

References:

Question 92

Which of the following diagnostic studies best distinguishes Ewing's sarcoma from small cell osteosarcoma?

Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 34





Explanation

Cytogenetics best demonstrates the 11;22 translocation characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma. The translocation also can be detected with polymerase chain reaction and fluorescent in situ hybridization. The Ewing antibody is used for immunostaining to check for cell membrane (surface) staining of a marker unrelated to the translocation; this could also help distinguish Ewing's sarcoma from small cell osteosarcoma. A bone scan will show increased uptake with both types of tumors. Although most Ewing's sarcoma tumors are diploid, some are polyploid as are most osteosarcomas. Flow cytometry is used to sort cells, sometimes based on antibody binding. LDH can be elevated in both Ewing's sarcoma and osteosarcoma and is a poor prognostic indicator when elevated. Lymph node metastases are uncommon in both of these tumors. Perotti D, Corletto V, Giardini R, Parafioriti A, Fossati-Bellani F, Luksch R: Retrospective analysis of ploidy in primary osseous and extraosseous Ewing family tumors in children. Tumori 1998;84:493-498. Riley RD, Burchill SA, Abrams KR, Heney D, Sutton AJ, Jones DR, et al: A systematic review of molecular and biological markers in tumours of the Ewing's sarcoma family. Eur J Cancer 2003;39:19-30.

References:

Question 93

A 68-year-old woman underwent a successful total right hip arthroplasty with a metal-on-metal articulation and cementless porous-coated components. Three months later, she underwent identical surgery on the left hip. Three months after surgery on the left hip, she reports groin pain on ambulation. Examination reveals significant groin discomfort with passive hip motion, particularly at the extremes of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 21a and 21b. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 35 mm/h and a C-reactive protein of 0.9. Aspiration yields scant growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the broth only, with no evidence of loosening on arthrography. A second aspiration yields scant growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the broth only. What is the most likely cause of the patient's pain?





Explanation

The difference in the clinical results combined with the laboratory findings points to infection. While there is a significant risk of false-positive findings with aspiration, the fact that two successive aspirations grew the same organism strongly suggests infection. The radiograph shows that there is more radiolucency around the left acetabular component than the right component. White RE: Evaluation of the painful total hip arthroplasty, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, vol 2, pp 1377-1385.

References:

Question 94

Figure 33 shows the CT scan of a 40-year-old man who injured his left shoulder while skiing. What structure is attached to the bony fragment?

Anatomy 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 11





Explanation

The scan reveals a bony Bankart lesion. The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament is the major restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head and is usually injured with anterior shoulder dislocations. It inserts onto the glenoid labrum at the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid rim. The labrum most frequently avulses from the glenoid (Bankart lesion), but occasionally the bony attachment is avulsed. O'Brien SJ, Neves MC, Arnoczky SP, et al: The anatomy and histology of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex of the shoulder. Am J Sports Med 1990;18:449-456.

References:

Question 95

It has been shown that bisphosphonate-based supportive therapy (pamidronate or zoledronate) reduces skeletal events (onset or progression of osteolytic lesions) both in patients with multiple myeloma and in cancer patients with bone metastasis. The use of biphosphonate therapy has been associated with

Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 61





Explanation

The use of bisphosphonates has been recently associated with the development of osteonecrosis of the jaw. Length of exposure seems to be the most important risk factor for this complication. The type of bisphosphonate may play a role and previous dental procedures may be a precipitating factor. Bisphosphonates are a class of therapeutic agents originally designed to treat loss of bone density (ie, alendronate). The primary mechanism of action of these drugs is inhibition of osteoclastic activity, and it has been shown that these drugs are useful in diseases with propensities toward osseous metastases. In particular, they are effective in diseases in which there is clear upregulation of osteoclastic or osteolytic activity, such as breast cancer and multiple myeloma, and have developed into a mainstay of treatment for individuals with these diseases. Although shown to reduce skeletal events, there has been no improvement in patient survival. Bamias A, Kastritis E, Bamia C, et al: Osteonecrosis of the jaw in cancer after treatment with bisphosphonates: Incidence and risk factors. J Clin Oncol 2005;23:8580-8587. Thakkar SG, Isada C, Smith J, et al: Jaw complications associated with bisphosphonate use in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias. Med Oncol 2006;23:51-56.

References:

Question 96

What are the most common portals for arthroscopic surgery of the ankle?

Anatomy 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 2





Explanation

The most commonly used portals are the anterolateral, anteromedial, and posterolateral portals. They have been shown to be the safest areas for portal placement, allowing no penetration of neurovascular structures. All the other portals involve placing another structure at risk. The anterocentral portal is close to the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibular artery. The trans-Achilles portal is not recommended because of its limited utility and potential to injure the Achilles tendon. The posteromedial portal is too close to the posterotibial artery and nerve, the flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus tendons, and the branches of the calcaneal nerve. Stetson WB, Ferkel RD: Ankle arthroscopy: I. Technique and complications. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:17-23.

References:

Question 97

What structure is located at the tip of the arrow in Figure 18?

Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9





Explanation

The structure shown is the exiting nerve root at the L3-4 disk, which is the right L3 root.

References:

Question 98

An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man has a 3-cm subcutaneous mass on his anterior thigh that is presumed to be a lipoma. Removal of the mass is performed in the office of his primary care physician. Pathologic evaluation shows a high-grade malignant fibrous histiocytoma. Staging reveals no evidence of metastatic disease. Management at this time should consist of





Explanation

Resection of a previously excised soft-tissue sarcoma is recommended. Reoperation is recommended after removal of malignant tumors previously believed to be benign, as approximately one half of the patients will have residual tumor in the re-excised specimen. Observation is not indicated in most patients because local recurrence is likely. Radiation therapy alone may result in long-term local control but is felt to be less effective than reoperation. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy alone are not recommended. Wide excision is the most important factor for local disease control. Radiation therapy after surgical re-excision may also decrease the risk of local recurrence. Peabody TD, Monson D, Montag A, Schell MJ, Finn H, Simon MA: A comparison of the prognoses for deep and subcutaneous sarcomas of the extremities. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1167-1173. Giuliano AE, Eilber FR: The rationale for planned reoperation after unplanned total excision of soft-tissue sarcomas. J Clin Oncol 1985;3:1344-1348. Lewis JJ, Leung D, Espat J, Woodruff JM, Brennan MF: Effect of resection in extremity soft tissue sarcoma. Ann Surg 2000;231:655-663.

References:

Question 99

The load versus deformation curve of the functional spinal unit (FSU) is made up of the neutral zone, the elastic zone, and the plastic zone. What is the plastic zone of the curve believed to represent?





Explanation

Plastic deformation of viscoelastic tissues represents deformation of the soft tissues to the point of failure. The lining up of collagen fibers would be in the "toe region" of the curve, which, in the case of the FSU, would be mainly in the neutral zone. Elastin is a minor contributor to the composition of the ligaments and would be protected by the stiffer collagen fibers. The transition between flexion and extension occurs in the neutral zone, and reversible elongation occurs in the elastic zone. Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 15-23.

References:

Question 100

What is the most common malignant bone tumor seen in patients with multiple hereditary exostosis?





Explanation

Secondary chondrosarcomas are most common in patients with multiple hereditary exostosis. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma is less common and refers to bone lesions in which a high-grade spindle cell sarcoma component is located immediately adjacent to a low-grade cartilage neoplasm. Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, clear cell chondrosarcoma, and periosteal osteosarcoma are no more common in patients with multiple hereditary exostosis than in the general population. Mirra JM: Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic Correlations. Philadelphia, PA, Lea and Febiger, 1989, pp 1660-1669.

References:

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