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Master ABOS Orthopedic Board Review: Skeletal Dysplasias, Bone Tumors, & Arthropathy | Part 13

17 Apr 2026 54 min read 15 Views
Master ABOS Orthopedic Board Review: Skeletal Dysplasias, Bone Tumors, & Arthropathy | Part 13

Key Takeaway

Prepare for your ABOS Board Exam with this orthopedic review. It covers critical topics like skeletal dysplasias (achondroplasia, metaphyseal chondrodysplasia), osteoid osteoma, lipomas, stress fractures, hemophilic arthropathy, and CRPS. Master diagnosis and management for board success.

Master ABOS Orthopedic Board Review: Skeletal Dysplasias, Bone Tumors, & Arthropathy | Part 13

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 15-year-old boy presents with right thigh pain that is worse at night and dramatically improves with ibuprofen. Radiographs and CT show a cortically based lesion with a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by reactive sclerosis.

What is the primary molecular mediator responsible for this patient's characteristic pain?





Explanation

Osteoid osteomas secrete high levels of PGE2 due to increased COX-2 expression, causing intense night pain that is characteristically relieved by NSAIDs.

Question 2

A 55-year-old woman is 8 weeks post-ORIF for a distal radius fracture. She presents with severe, burning pain, allodynia, and skin color changes in her hand. Radiographs reveal periarticular osteopenia.

Which of the following is the most established prophylactic measure to prevent this condition?





Explanation

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) or Sudeck's atrophy can be prophylactically managed in high-risk groups (like distal radius fractures) with 500mg of daily Vitamin C for 50 days.

Question 3

A 5-year-old child presents with short-limbed dwarfism, frontal bossing, and a trident hand. Radiographs show a narrowing of the interpedicular distances in the lumbar spine. What is the genetic basis of this skeletal dysplasia?





Explanation

Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene, which inhibits chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis.

Question 4

A newborn is diagnosed with Osteogenesis Imperfecta type II. This condition is typically lethal in the perinatal period. What is the fundamental molecular defect associated with this disease?





Explanation

Osteogenesis imperfecta is most commonly caused by mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2, often involving a substitution of glycine with a bulkier amino acid, severely disrupting the type I collagen triple helix.

Question 5

A 10-year-old boy presents with a waddling gait, joint pain, and stiffness. Radiographs show delayed and irregular ossification of the capital femoral epiphyses, but normal spine radiographs. A 'double-layer' patella is noted on lateral knee X-rays. Which gene is most commonly mutated?





Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) most commonly results from a mutation in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. A double-layer patella is a classic radiographic sign.

Question 6

A patient with Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia Congenita (SEDC) requires preoperative clearance for lower extremity osteotomies. Which of the following preoperative imaging studies is most critical for this patient?





Explanation

SEDC is associated with odontoid hypoplasia and atlantoaxial instability. Cervical spine clearance is mandatory before any procedure requiring anesthesia or intubation.

Question 7

A neonate is evaluated for short-limbed dwarfism, a 'hitchhiker' thumb, clubfeet, and swelling of the external ear (cauliflower ear). This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. What is the underlying pathophysiologic defect?





Explanation

Diastrophic dysplasia is caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 gene, leading to a defect in the sulfate transport system and resulting in undersulfated proteoglycans in cartilage.

Question 8

A 12-year-old girl is noted to have excessive shoulder mobility, allowing her to touch her shoulders together anteriorly. She also has delayed eruption of secondary teeth. A mutation in which of the following transcription factors is responsible?





Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is caused by a mutation in RUNX2 (CBFA1), a master transcription factor for osteoblast differentiation. It is characterized by absent or hypoplastic clavicles and delayed cranial suture closure.

Question 9

A 22-year-old male has an osteoid osteoma of the proximal femur treated with radiofrequency ablation.

What is the most critical anatomical structure to protect during ablation if the lesion is located in the posterior aspect of the femoral neck?





Explanation

Radiofrequency ablation of posterior femoral neck lesions carries the risk of thermal injury to the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA), which could lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 10

A 35-year-old woman presents with a large, lytic, epiphyseal lesion of the distal femur that extends to the subchondral bone. Biopsy confirms a Giant Cell Tumor of bone. Medical management with denosumab is planned. Denosumab targets which of the following?





Explanation

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating the RANK receptor on osteoclast precursors. This inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone destruction in giant cell tumors.

Question 11

A 14-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and a diaphysial lesion of the femur with a 'periosteal onion-skin' reaction. Biopsy shows small round blue cells. The t(11;22) translocation associated with this tumor results in which fusion protein?





Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation, which results in the EWSR1-FLI1 fusion protein in about 85% of cases.

Question 12

A 60-year-old man presents with dull, aching pain in his right pelvis. Radiographs reveal a large lytic lesion in the ilium with intralesional calcifications demonstrating a 'ring and arc' pattern. Biopsy confirms conventional high-grade chondrosarcoma. What is the mainstay of treatment?





Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas are generally resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation. Wide surgical excision with negative margins is the definitive treatment.

Question 13

A 30-year-old female complains of chronic knee swelling and locking. MRI demonstrates a large, nodular, intra-articular soft tissue mass with low signal intensity on both T1 and T2 weighted images (blooming artifact on gradient echo). Which medical therapy is FDA-approved for severe, unresectable cases of this condition?





Explanation

Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), or Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor, is driven by an overexpression of CSF1. Pexidartinib, a CSF1 receptor inhibitor, is approved for severe cases not amenable to surgery.

Question 14

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive right thigh pain that is significantly worse at night and reliably relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs reveal a cortical lesion with a central radiolucent nidus and surrounding reactive sclerosis.

What is the primary biochemical mediator responsible for this classic pain pattern?





Explanation

Osteoid osteomas characteristically secrete high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) from the nidus. This local PGE2 production causes intense vasodilation and nerve fiber sensitization, leading to night pain that is uniquely responsive to NSAIDs.

Question 15

A 16-year-old male presents with painful, progressive scoliosis. Imaging confirms the presence of an osteoid osteoma in the lumbar spine.

Where is this lesion most typically located relative to the scoliotic deformity?





Explanation

In cases of scoliosis secondary to an osteoid osteoma, the lesion is almost exclusively found at the apex of the concavity. The intense inflammatory response causes asymmetric muscle spasm, pulling the spine toward the side of the lesion.

Question 16

A 50-year-old female presents 8 weeks after a distal radius fracture with severe, burning pain in her hand, hyperhidrosis, and trophic skin changes. Radiographs show patchy periarticular osteopenia.

According to the Budapest criteria for this condition, which clinical presentation is required for diagnosis?





Explanation

The clinical diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS/Algodystrophy) relies on the Budapest criteria. It requires the patient to report at least one symptom in three of four categories: sensory, vasomotor, sudomotor/edema, and motor/trophic, without another diagnosis better explaining the signs.

Question 17

Which of the following prophylactic regimens is supported by prospective randomized controlled trials to reduce the risk of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (Algodystrophy) following a distal radius fracture?





Explanation

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) at a dose of 500 mg daily for 50 days has been shown in randomized studies (e.g., Zollinger et al.) to significantly reduce the incidence of CRPS following distal radius fractures.

Question 18

A 19-year-old male is undergoing definitive, minimally invasive treatment for a functionally limiting osteoid osteoma in the proximal femur.

During CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (RFA), what is the optimal target temperature and duration to ensure destruction of the nidus?





Explanation

Radiofrequency ablation uses a high-frequency alternating current to generate thermal coagulation. The standard successful protocol for an osteoid osteoma nidus targets a probe tip temperature of 90°C for approximately 5 to 6 minutes.

Question 19

A 32-year-old female presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an eccentric, lytic lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis reaching the subchondral bone. Biopsy confirms Giant Cell Tumor of Bone. When utilizing Denosumab for unresectable disease, what is the specific molecular target?





Explanation

In a Giant Cell Tumor, the neoplastic cells are the mononuclear stromal cells, which express RANK Ligand (RANKL). Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to this RANKL, inhibiting the recruitment and activation of the reactive osteoclast-like giant cells.

Question 20

A neonate is born with extremely short limbs, severe clubfeet, a 'hitchhiker' thumb, and cystic swelling of the ear pinnae (cauliflower ears). Radiographs show short, thick tubular bones. What is the underlying genetic defect?





Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for Diastrophic Dysplasia. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the SLC26A2 gene, which encodes a sulfate transporter, leading to undersulfated proteoglycans in cartilage.

Question 21

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, enlarging mass in the mid-diaphysis of his femur. Radiographs show a permeative, 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals uniform, small round blue cells that are CD99 positive. Cytogenetic analysis most commonly demonstrates which chromosomal translocation?





Explanation

Ewing Sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, creating the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This acts as an aberrant transcription factor driving the oncogenesis of these small round blue cells.

Question 22

A 6-year-old boy presents with a waddling gait and bilateral knee pain. Radiographs reveal delayed and irregular ossification of multiple epiphyses and a characteristic 'double-layered' patella. A mutation in the gene encoding which protein is most commonly responsible?





Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) commonly presents with joint pain, waddling gait, and a double-layered patella on lateral radiographs. The most common genetic mutation is in the COMP gene (Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein).

Question 23

A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a unilaterally swollen, erythematous, and warm foot without an open ulcer. Pedal pulses are strong. Radiographs reveal early fragmentation and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The patient is presenting with acute Charcot neuropathic arthropathy (Eichenholtz stage I). The standard initial treatment to halt progression and prevent severe deformity is immediate immobilization, ideally with a total contact cast (TCC), and offloading.

Question 24

A 10-year-old boy with severe Hemophilia A complains of progressive right knee pain and swelling following recurrent hemarthroses. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism driving irreversible cartilage destruction in hemophilic arthropathy?





Explanation

In hemophilic arthropathy, recurrent bleeding deposits iron (hemosiderin) into the synovium. This induces marked villous synovial hypertrophy, leading to the release of destructive enzymes (MMPs, IL-1) that degrade articular cartilage.

Question 25

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with a Grade 2 conventional chondrosarcoma of the proximal humerus following an incisional biopsy. Staging reveals no metastatic disease. What is the standard definitive treatment?





Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas are notoriously resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to poor vascularity and slow division rates. The primary, definitive treatment for intermediate to high-grade chondrosarcoma is wide surgical resection.

Question 26

A 65-year-old female with an 18-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated prior to a total knee arthroplasty. Flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs reveal a 9 mm anterior atlanto-dens interval (ADI). What pathomechanical process is primarily responsible for this finding?





Explanation

Atlantoaxial subluxation is the most common cervical spine manifestation of Rheumatoid Arthritis. It is caused by synovial pannus formation in the retro-odontoid bursa, which subsequently destroys the transverse ligament of the atlas.

Question 27

A 15-year-old girl is diagnosed with a conventional high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur. She completes a standard course of neoadjuvant chemotherapy before undergoing surgical resection. Which histological finding in the resected specimen is the most powerful predictor of long-term survival?





Explanation

The most significant prognostic factor in conventional osteosarcoma is the tumor's histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy. A good response is defined as ≥90% tumor necrosis (Huvos grading), which correlates with significantly improved survival.

Question 28

A 18-year-old male presents with chronic right thigh pain that is classically worse at night and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show dense cortical thickening in the proximal femoral diaphysis. Advanced imaging confirms the diagnosis.

What is the gold standard minimally invasive treatment for this condition if medical management fails?





Explanation

The clinical presentation and imaging are classic for an osteoid osteoma. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the gold standard minimally invasive treatment, boasting a success rate of over 90%.

Question 29

A 45-year-old female presents 6 weeks after non-operative management of a distal radius fracture. She describes severe burning pain out of proportion to the injury, alongside stiffness and shiny skin changes.

Which of the following prophylactic medications, if given at the time of injury, has been shown to reduce the incidence of this condition?





Explanation

The patient has Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS/Algodystrophy). Vitamin C 500 mg daily for 50 days following a distal radius fracture has been shown in some studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing CRPS.

Question 30

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful left-sided thoracic scoliosis. The pain is severe at night and awakes him from sleep. A spinal osteoid osteoma is suspected. Where is the lesion most likely located in relation to his scoliotic curve?





Explanation

Spinal osteoid osteomas typically arise in the posterior elements. The muscle spasms they incite cause an asymmetric contraction, pulling the spine toward the lesion, thereby locating the tumor on the concave side of the resulting scoliotic curve.

Question 31

A 4-year-old boy presents with disproportionate short stature, frontal bossing, and rhizomelic shortening of the limbs. Radiographs reveal narrowing of the interpedicular distances in the lumbar spine. What is the underlying genetic mechanism for this condition?





Explanation

Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function (activating) mutation in the FGFR3 gene. This overactivity inhibits chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis, leading to diminished endochondral ossification.

Question 32

A 7-year-old boy presents with a waddling gait, bilateral knee pain, and mild short stature. Lateral knee radiographs demonstrate a classic "double-layer" patella. A diagnosis of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) is suspected. A mutation in which gene is most commonly implicated?





Explanation

Mutations in COMP (Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein) are the most common cause of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia. A double-layer patella on a lateral knee radiograph is highly characteristic of MED.

Question 33

A 2-year-old girl is evaluated for multiple low-energy long bone fractures. Physical examination reveals blue sclerae and mild joint hyperlaxity. Which of the following describes the most likely underlying pathophysiological defect?





Explanation

The patient has Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI), characterized by blue sclerae and recurrent fractures. OI is primarily caused by mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2, resulting in quantitative or qualitative defects in Type I collagen.

Question 34

A newborn presents with severe short-trunk dwarfism, a cleft palate, and bilateral rigid clubfeet. Radiographs reveal delayed ossification of the epiphyses and platyspondyly. A diagnosis of Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia Congenita (SEDC) is established. This condition is caused by a defect in which type of collagen?





Explanation

SEDC is a Type II collagenopathy caused by mutations in the COL2A1 gene. It commonly presents at birth with a short trunk, cleft palate, myopia, and clubfeet.

Question 35

A 55-year-old man presents with worsening deep pelvic pain. Radiographs demonstrate a large lytic lesion in the ilium with distinct "ring and arc" calcifications. Core needle biopsy confirms a low-to-intermediate grade primary malignant bone tumor. What is the standard of care for definitive management?





Explanation

The presentation and imaging are classic for chondrosarcoma. Chondrosarcomas are notoriously resistant to traditional chemotherapy and radiotherapy; therefore, wide surgical resection with negative margins remains the standard of care.

Question 36

A 12-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of severe right thigh pain, low-grade fever, and diaphoresis. Radiographs reveal a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an "onion skin" periosteal reaction. Which chromosomal translocation is most strongly associated with this diagnosis?





Explanation

The clinical scenario strongly suggests Ewing Sarcoma. The hallmark t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which forms the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein, is present in about 85% of cases.

Question 37

A 30-year-old female presents with progressive aching pain in her left knee. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, expansile, lytic lesion in the distal femur that extends directly to the subchondral bone without a sclerotic rim. If surgical curettage is chosen, what is the best recommended local adjuvant to reduce the recurrence rate?





Explanation

Giant Cell Tumors (GCT) of bone have a high local recurrence rate (20-50%) if treated with simple curettage alone. Extended curettage utilizing a high-speed burr and local adjuvants (like phenol, argon beam, or PMMA) significantly reduces the risk of recurrence.

Question 38

A 10-year-old boy with severe Hemophilia A presents with a chronically swollen, boggy right knee and significantly restricted range of motion. Radiographs show advanced joint space narrowing and epiphyseal overgrowth. What is the primary cellular mechanism driving joint destruction in this condition?





Explanation

Hemophilic arthropathy is driven by recurrent hemarthroses. Intra-articular iron deposition from red blood cell breakdown induces massive synovial hypertrophy, cytokine release, and direct chondrocyte apoptosis.

Question 39

A newborn is evaluated for multiple skeletal deformities including severe short stature, "hitchhiker" thumbs, cauliflower ear deformities, and severe rigid clubfeet. Which gene mutation is responsible for this patient's condition?





Explanation

The clinical presentation describes diastrophic dysplasia. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutations in the SLC26A2 gene, which codes for a diastrophic dysplasia sulfate transporter (DTDST).

Question 40

A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a massively swollen, warm, and erythematous right foot. He denies pain and lacks protective sensation. Radiographs reveal midfoot bony fragmentation, joint subluxation, and extensive debris. There are no skin ulcerations. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The patient is in the acute (Eichenholtz stage I) phase of Charcot neuroarthropathy. The gold standard for initial management of acute, non-ulcerated Charcot arthropathy is offloading and immobilization using a total contact cast (TCC).

Question 41

A 15-year-old male presents with severe pain and swelling of the distal femur. Radiographs reveal a mixed lytic and blastic metaphyseal lesion breaching the cortex, with a classic "sunburst" periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. Where is the most common site of metastasis for this tumor?





Explanation

Osteosarcoma is the most common primary pediatric malignant bone tumor. It most frequently metastasizes hematogenously to the lungs, making high-resolution chest CT essential for staging.

Question 42

An 8-year-old girl is referred for evaluation of unusually delayed tooth eruption. On examination, she is noted to have a large head, delayed closure of cranial sutures, and she is able to easily bring her shoulders together anteriorly. Which genetic mutation is highly characteristic of this condition?





Explanation

The patient has Cleidocranial Dysplasia, typified by hypoplastic or absent clavicles, delayed suture closure, and retained deciduous teeth. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in RUNX2 (also known as CBFA1), a crucial transcription factor for osteoblast differentiation.

Question 43

A 65-year-old female presents with acute, intense pain, swelling, and warmth in her left knee. Aspiration yields cloudy synovial fluid. Microscopic analysis of the fluid reveals rhomboid-shaped crystals that exhibit weak positive birefringence under polarized light. What is the primary constituent of these crystals?





Explanation

Rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals are pathognomonic for pseudogout. The crystals are composed of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD).

Question 44

A 14-year-old female presents with an enlarging, painful bump on her proximal humerus. Radiographs show an eccentric, expansile, lytic lesion. MRI demonstrates prominent multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. Which specific genetic rearrangement is most strongly linked to the primary form of this lesion?





Explanation

Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts (ABCs) often contain fluid-fluid levels on MRI and are frequently driven by a genetic translocation involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13.

Question 45

A 22-year-old male with chronic hip pain and stiffness shows poor response to NSAIDs. Radiographs reveal a small radiolucency in the intracapsular femoral neck with very minimal surrounding sclerosis.

Why do intra-articular osteoid osteomas typically lack the extensive, dense reactive bone sclerosis seen in extra-articular diaphyseal lesions?





Explanation

Intra-articular osteoid osteomas often lack surrounding reactive sclerosis because the intra-articular portions of bone lack the cambium layer of the periosteum, which is responsible for robust reactive bone formation.

Question 46

An 18-year-old male presents with persistent right anterior thigh pain that worsens at night. He reports significant relief of symptoms within 30 minutes of taking ibuprofen. Radiographs and a subsequent CT scan demonstrate a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the femoral diaphysis.

If the patient cannot tolerate long-term NSAID therapy, what is the most appropriate first-line definitive intervention?





Explanation

CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the standard minimally invasive treatment for an osteoid osteoma when medical management fails or is poorly tolerated. It offers a high success rate with minimal morbidity compared to open surgical excision.

Question 47

A 9-month-old infant with diagnosed achondroplasia presents with central sleep apnea, progressive lower extremity weakness, and hyperreflexia. What is the most likely anatomic etiology of these neurological symptoms?





Explanation

Foramen magnum stenosis is a critical and potentially life-threatening complication in infants and toddlers with achondroplasia. It can compress the cervicomedullary junction, leading to central sleep apnea, myelopathy, and sudden death.

Question 48

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain and a palpable mass over the distal femur. Radiographs reveal a mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion with a sunburst periosteal reaction and a Codman's triangle. Core needle biopsy confirms a high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma. Following neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide surgical resection, which of the following is the single most important prognostic factor for long-term survival?





Explanation

The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the most reliable predictor of disease-free survival in high-grade osteosarcoma. Greater than 90% necrosis indicates a favorable response to chemotherapy.

Question 49

A 55-year-old male with long-standing, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous, and painless right foot. The erythema resolves significantly when the leg is elevated. Radiographs reveal soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, and early fragmentation at the tarsometatarsal joint. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The clinical picture describes acute Charcot arthropathy (Eichenholtz stage 0 or 1). The gold standard for initial management is immobilization and offloading, typically achieved with a Total Contact Cast (TCC) to prevent further joint destruction.

Question 50

A 7-year-old girl is evaluated for multiple recurrent long bone fractures following minimal trauma. Clinical examination reveals bluish discoloration of the sclerae, joint hypermobility, and opalescent, discolored teeth. This patient's condition is most commonly caused by a mutation affecting which of the following?





Explanation

Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is primarily caused by autosomal dominant mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes. This leads to defective synthesis of Type I collagen, resulting in bone fragility, blue sclerae, and dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Question 51

An 11-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and severe thigh pain. Radiographs show a large destructive diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a multi-layered "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. Cytogenetic analysis of the biopsy specimen reveals a t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation. This translocation results in the formation of which of the following fusion genes?





Explanation

The t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation is the hallmark of Ewing sarcoma, present in approximately 85% of cases. It fuses the EWS gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, acting as an oncogenic transcription factor.

Question 52

A 48-year-old female with a 15-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive neck pain and intermittent "electric shock" sensations radiating down her arms when she flexes her neck. Flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs reveal an Anterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (AADI) of 11 mm and a Posterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (PADI) of 12 mm. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

The patient exhibits Lhermitte's sign and significant atlantoaxial subluxation. Indications for surgery in RA cervical spine include an AADI > 9-10 mm, PADI < 14 mm, or neurological deficit; a posterior C1-C2 fusion is indicated here without superior migration of the odontoid.

Question 53

A 32-year-old female presents with knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an eccentric, lytic, epiphyseal-metaphyseal lesion in the proximal tibia extending to the subchondral bone. Histopathology reveals abundant multinucleated giant cells distributed uniformly among mononuclear stromal cells. The neoplastic mononuclear cells in this tumor typically express high levels of which molecule to drive local bone destruction?





Explanation

In a Giant Cell Tumor of bone, the neoplastic cells are the mononuclear stromal cells, which express high levels of RANKL. This recruits and stimulates normal host osteoclast precursors to form the characteristic multinucleated giant cells, leading to aggressive bone resorption.

Question 54

An 8-year-old child presents with a waddling gait, short stature, and bilateral knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate delayed, irregular, and fragmented ossification centers of the capital femoral epiphyses and distal femoral epiphyses, but the spine and skull appear completely normal. Mutations in which gene are most commonly associated with the autosomal dominant form of this dysplasia?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED), which typically spares the spine. The most common genetic cause of the autosomal dominant form is a mutation in the COMP gene on chromosome 19.

Question 55

A 16-year-old male with severe Hemophilia A presents with chronic swelling, reduced range of motion, and joint destruction of the right knee. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism that leads to progressive cartilage destruction in hemophilic arthropathy?





Explanation

In hemophilic arthropathy, recurrent hemarthroses lead to the accumulation of hemosiderin (iron) within the synovium. This causes marked synovial hypertrophy, chronic inflammation, and direct toxicity/apoptosis of articular chondrocytes.

Question 56

A 62-year-old male complains of a dull, deep ache in his right pelvis for the past 6 months. Radiographs reveal a large, ill-defined destructive lytic lesion in the right ilium with internal "ring and arc" calcifications. Core biopsy confirms a Grade 2 conventional chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate management strategy?





Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas (especially Grades 2 and 3) are notoriously resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation. The mainstay of treatment is wide surgical resection with negative margins to prevent local recurrence.

Question 57

A 6-year-old child presents with short-limb dwarfism, a normal head circumference, and normal facial features. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification, flared metaphyses, and platyspondyly with central anterior beaking of the vertebrae. Which of the following best differentiates this condition from classic achondroplasia?





Explanation

The patient has Pseudoachondroplasia (caused by a COMP mutation). Unlike achondroplasia, children with pseudoachondroplasia have normal craniofacial features, appear normal at birth, and dwarfism becomes apparent only after 1-2 years of age as growth slows.

Question 58

An 18-year-old male with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE) reports a rapid increase in the size of a palpable mass on his proximal femur accompanied by new, resting pain. MRI shows an osteochondroma with a cartilage cap thickness of 3 cm. Malignant transformation in this syndrome most frequently results in which of the following histological entities?





Explanation

Osteochondromas (especially in patients with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses) have a risk of malignant transformation. When they do transform, they nearly always develop into secondary chondrosarcomas, suspected when the cartilage cap exceeds 1.5 - 2 cm in adults.

Question 59

A 22-year-old male undergoes surgical excision of a cortically based bone lesion in his tibia. He had a long history of night pain dramatically relieved by salicylates.

Histologic examination of the central nidus of this lesion is most likely to demonstrate which of the following?





Explanation

The clinical history and imaging are classic for an osteoid osteoma. Histologically, the nidus consists of a highly vascularized stroma containing interlacing trabeculae of irregular woven bone lined by prominent but benign osteoblasts.

Question 60

A 45-year-old female sustained a minor crush injury to her hand three months ago. She now presents with severe, burning pain that is disproportionate to the inciting event, significant allodynia, altered skin color, and asymmetric sweating.

She is diagnosed with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following clinical features explicitly differentiates CRPS Type II from CRPS Type I?





Explanation

CRPS is divided into Type I (formerly Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy) and Type II (formerly Causalgia). The distinguishing factor is that CRPS Type II is associated with a distinct, documented major peripheral nerve injury, whereas Type I occurs without one.

Question 61

A newborn is noted to have severe short-limb dwarfism, rigid bilateral clubfeet, "hitchhiker" thumbs, and cystic swelling of the pinnae of the ears (cauliflower ear). Radiographs show short, thick tubular bones. This autosomal recessive skeletal dysplasia is caused by a mutation in which of the following genes?





Explanation

The clinical triad of hitchhiker thumbs, severe clubfeet, and cystic ear swelling in a short-limbed dwarf is characteristic of Diastrophic Dysplasia. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) sulfate transporter gene.

Question 62

A 35-year-old asymptomatic female is found to have an incidental well-circumscribed, purely radiolucent lesion with internal stippled calcification in the proximal phalanx of her ring finger following a radiograph taken for a minor sprain. There is no cortical breakthrough or soft tissue extension. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

The lesion described is an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. In an asymptomatic patient without signs of an impending pathologic fracture, observation with periodic radiographs is the appropriate management.

Question 63

A 12-year-old boy presents with an unusual ability to appose his shoulders anteriorly across his chest. Examination reveals an open anterior fontanelle, delayed eruption of his secondary dentition, and a somewhat prominent forehead. Radiographs show hypoplasia of the clavicles. Which essential transcription factor for osteoblast differentiation is mutated in this condition?





Explanation

The patient has Cleidocranial Dysplasia, characterized by hypoplastic/absent clavicles, delayed suture closure, and dental anomalies. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in RUNX2 (CBFA1), a master transcription factor essential for osteoblast differentiation.

Question 64

A 50-year-old male presents with severe, progressive back stiffness and large joint pain. Physical examination reveals dark, bluish-black pigmentation of the sclerae and ear cartilage. Radiographs of the spine exhibit profound, widespread calcification of the intervertebral discs. This specific arthropathy is secondary to a deficiency in which of the following enzymes?





Explanation

The patient presents with Ochronosis (Alkaptonuria), a rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid in connective tissues, causing cartilage pigmentation and rapid degeneration.

Question 65

A 15-year-old boy complains of diaphyseal tibial pain that is significantly worse at night and reliably relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging demonstrates a radiolucent nidus with dense surrounding sclerosis.

What is the primary chemical mediator responsible for the severe pain associated with this lesion?





Explanation

Osteoid osteomas secrete remarkably high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) compared to normal bone. This high concentration directly causes intense, night-time bone pain that characteristically resolves with NSAID administration.

Question 66

A 55-year-old woman presents 6 weeks post-distal radius fracture with severe, disproportionate hand pain, diffuse swelling, and shiny, hypersensitive skin.

Which of the following is an evidence-based pharmacologic prophylactic measure that has been shown to reduce the incidence of this specific syndrome following distal radius fractures?





Explanation

Vitamin C (500mg daily for 50 days) has been demonstrated in several studies to significantly decrease the risk of developing Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a distal radius fracture.

Question 67

The parents of a child recently diagnosed with achondroplasia ask for genetic counseling. You explain that the condition is caused by a specific mutation in the FGFR3 gene. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiologic consequence of this mutation?





Explanation

Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant skeletal dysplasia caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. This mutation leads to constitutive, abnormal inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation at the physis.

Question 68

A 10-year-old boy with severe Hemophilia A presents to the emergency department with an acute, warm, and severely swollen right knee. What is the absolute most appropriate initial step in management for this acute hemarthrosis?





Explanation

The priority in treating an acute hemarthrosis in a hemophilic patient is immediate clotting factor replacement (Factor VIII for Hemophilia A). Arthrocentesis is rarely indicated and must never be performed before adequate factor replacement.

Question 69

A 30-year-old female presents with mechanical knee pain. Imaging reveals an eccentric, purely lytic epiphyseal lesion of the distal femur extending to the subchondral bone. Biopsy confirms numerous multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following targeted systemic therapies is indicated for unresectable forms of this disease?





Explanation

Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone is driven by RANKL-secreting stromal cells that recruit osteoclast-like giant cells. Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, is highly effective for unresectable or recurrent GCTs.

Question 70

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful diaphyseal femur mass, low-grade fever, and an elevated ESR. Radiographs demonstrate an ill-defined permeative lesion with a prominent "onion skin" periosteal reaction. Cytogenetic analysis of the biopsy is most likely to identify which of the following?





Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor frequently associated with the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation. This creates the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein, which acts as an aberrant transcription factor.

Question 71

A 6-year-old child with blue sclerae, hearing loss, and a history of multiple low-energy fractures is diagnosed with Sillence Type I Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Which of the following best describes the underlying collagen defect?





Explanation

Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type I (the mildest and most common form) is characterized by a quantitative defect, meaning there is decreased production of structurally normal Type I collagen. More severe types (II, III, IV) involve qualitative defects.

Question 72

A 16-year-old male presents with severe, painful, and rigid scoliosis. Advanced imaging reveals a small radiolucent nidus with dense surrounding sclerosis in the posterior elements of the T8 vertebra.

In relation to the scoliotic curve, where is this lesion almost universally located?





Explanation

Spinal osteoid osteomas most commonly present as painful scoliosis. The lesion classically resides on the concave side of the curve due to localized, asymmetric paraspinal muscle spasm triggered by the tumor's inflammation.

Question 73

A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents with a red, hot, swollen foot. Radiographs demonstrate acute bony fragmentation, joint subluxation, and periarticular debris. Inflammatory markers are mildly elevated, but there is no ulceration. This presentation corresponds to Eichenholtz Stage 1. What is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The patient has Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Developmental/Fragmentation) Charcot arthropathy. The standard of care is immediate immobilization and offloading, typically using a total contact cast, until the active inflammatory phase subsides.

Question 74

A 55-year-old male presents with a progressive, dull ache in his left pelvis. Radiographs show a large lytic lesion in the ilium with internal "popcorn-like" stippled calcifications. Biopsy confirms a grade II (intermediate) chondrosarcoma. What is the primary modality of treatment?





Explanation

Chondrosarcomas (especially intermediate and high-grade) are generally resistant to both traditional chemotherapy and radiation therapy. The definitive standard of care is wide surgical excision with negative margins.

Question 75

A 40-year-old male develops suspected Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a crush injury to the foot.

If a triple-phase technetium-99m bone scan is performed to aid diagnosis, what is the classic imaging finding?





Explanation

A classic triple-phase bone scan in CRPS (Algodystrophy) shows diffusely increased periarticular uptake on the delayed images (Phase 3). This finding has high sensitivity and specificity for the condition.

Question 76

A 9-year-old child presents with a waddling gait, bilateral knee pain, and short stature. Radiographs demonstrate small, irregular, fragmented epiphyses and a characteristic "double-layered" patella. A mutation in which of the following genes is most highly associated with this specific classic presentation?





Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) commonly presents with delayed, irregular ossification of the epiphyses. The finding of a 'double-layered' patella on a lateral radiograph is virtually pathognomonic and is classically associated with mutations in the COMP gene.

Question 77

A 50-year-old patient presents with rapidly progressive, severe hip and knee osteoarthritis out of proportion to their age. During total knee arthroplasty, the articular cartilage is noted to be distinctly black and brittle. The underlying systemic disease is caused by an inherited deficiency in which enzyme?





Explanation

Ochronosis (alkaptonuria) results from a deficiency of homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase. This causes homogentisic acid to accumulate and polymerize into a black pigment that deposits in articular cartilage, leading to early, severe degeneration.

Question 78

A 16-year-old male presents with severe nocturnal thigh pain that resolves with ibuprofen. Radiographs and CT reveal a cortically based lesion in the proximal femur with a central radiolucency.

If this lesion were excised, what classic histologic feature would confirm the diagnosis?





Explanation

Osteoid osteoma is characterized histologically by a well-demarcated central nidus of highly vascularized, interlacing trabeculae of woven bone lined by plump osteoblasts. This nidus is surrounded by a dense zone of reactive sclerotic cortical bone.

Question 79

A 52-year-old female presents with severe, burning hand pain, swelling, and shiny skin 10 weeks after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture.

According to the Budapest Criteria, which of the following is an absolute requirement for the clinical diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?





Explanation

The Budapest Criteria require the presence of continuing pain disproportionate to the inciting event for a clinical diagnosis of CRPS. Patients must also report at least one symptom in three of four categories (sensory, vasomotor, sudomotor/edema, motor/trophic) and display at least one sign in two of the same categories.

Question 80

A 4-year-old boy presents with short-limbed dwarfism, a waddling gait, and normal craniofacial features. Radiographs reveal delayed epiphyseal ossification and platyspondyly, but a normal interpedicular distance in the lumbar spine. Which gene mutation is most likely responsible for this condition?





Explanation

Pseudoachondroplasia is caused by a mutation in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. It is distinguished from achondroplasia by the presence of normal craniofacial features at birth and a normal lumbar interpedicular distance.

Question 81

A 35-year-old woman presents with a lytic lesion in the distal femur. Biopsy reveals a benign, locally aggressive tumor characterized by mononuclear stromal cells and numerous multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following describes the cellular target of denosumab in the medical management of this tumor?





Explanation

In Giant Cell Tumor of bone, the mononuclear stromal cells are the true neoplastic cells and heavily express RANKL. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating RANK on the osteoclast-like giant cells, thereby reducing bone resorption.

Question 82

A 65-year-old man undergoes resection of a large pelvic mass showing popcorn calcifications on radiographs. Histology confirms a low-grade malignant cartilage-forming tumor. Which of the following genetic mutations is most frequently associated with the conventional form of this tumor?





Explanation

Mutations in Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1/IDH2) are found in approximately 50% of conventional chondrosarcomas and enchondromas. EXT mutations are associated with osteochondromas, while H3F3A mutations are seen in giant cell tumors and chondroblastomas.

Question 83

A 12-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and mid-shaft femur pain. Radiographs reveal a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an onion-skin periosteal reaction. A t(11;22) chromosomal translocation is identified. What is the most specific immunohistochemical marker for this neoplasm?





Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor characterized by the t(11;22) translocation resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. It strongly expresses the cell surface glycoprotein CD99 (MIC2) in a membranous pattern.

Question 84

A 2-year-old girl with blue sclerae and a history of multiple low-energy fractures is diagnosed with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Which of the following describes the most common underlying biochemical defect in the mildest and most common form of this disease (Type I)?





Explanation

OI Type I is a quantitative defect resulting in a decreased amount of structurally normal type I collagen. In contrast, Types II, III, and IV are qualitative defects where structurally abnormal collagen is produced, leading to more severe phenotypes.

Question 85

A 6-year-old child presents with a short trunk, severe coxa vara, a cleft palate, and high myopia. Radiographs show delayed ossification of the capital femoral epiphyses and platyspondyly. Which of the following mutations is responsible for this skeletal dysplasia?





Explanation

Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita (SEDC) is caused by mutations in the COL2A1 gene, which encodes type II collagen. Clinical features include short-trunk dwarfism, coxa vara, cleft palate, myopia, and a high risk of atlantoaxial instability.

Question 86

A newborn is noted to have a large anterior fontanelle, midface hypoplasia, and excessive mobility of the shoulders, allowing them to be opposed anteriorly. A mutation in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) gene is suspected. What is the primary role of the protein encoded by this gene?





Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is caused by a mutation in RUNX2 (also known as CBFA1). RUNX2 is a crucial transcription factor required for the commitment and differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into the osteoblast lineage.

Question 87

A 14-year-old male with severe Hemophilia A presents with chronic knee swelling and restricted range of motion. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism driving joint destruction in hemophilic arthropathy?





Explanation

Recurrent hemarthrosis in hemophilia leads to the accumulation of iron (hemosiderin) in the joint. This triggers severe synovial hypertrophy, inflammation, and direct toxic effects on chondrocytes, culminating in cartilage apoptosis and joint destruction.

Question 88

During a total hip arthroplasty on a 55-year-old man with severe degenerative joint disease and a history of dark urine, the surgeon notes that the articular cartilage is stark black. This condition is caused by a deficiency in which of the following enzymes?





Explanation

Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency in homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase. This leads to the accumulation of homogentisic acid, which binds to collagen, causing black pigmentation (ochronosis) and early-onset severe osteoarthritis.

Question 89

A 16-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal tibia. MRI reveals an expansile, multiloculated lesion with prominent fluid-fluid levels. Genetic analysis confirms a translocation involving t(16;17). Which gene is upregulated as a result of this translocation?





Explanation

Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are benign, blood-filled, multiloculated lesions characterized by fluid-fluid levels on MRI. The primary variant is a true neoplasm driven by translocations causing the upregulation of the USP6 oncogene.

Question 90

A neonate is evaluated for short-limbed dwarfism, bilateral clubfeet, "hitchhiker" thumbs, and cystic swelling of the external ears (cauliflower ears). Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms best explains this patient's condition?





Explanation

Diastrophic dysplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 gene, which encodes a sulfate transporter. This leads to undersulfated proteoglycans in the cartilage matrix, causing classic features like hitchhiker thumbs and cauliflower ears.

Question 91

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful scoliosis that is worse at night.

Imaging reveals an osteoid osteoma in the posterior elements of the thoracic spine. Which of the following is the most classic presentation of spinal deformity in this setting?





Explanation

Osteoid osteomas in the spine frequently cause a painful scoliosis. The intense inflammatory response and localized muscle spasm characteristically cause the spine to curve away from the lesion, placing the tumor on the concavity of the curve.

Question 92

A 10-year-old boy with multiple painless bony bumps around his knees and shoulders is diagnosed with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE). What is the underlying molecular pathogenesis resulting from the most common genetic mutations in this disorder?





Explanation

MHE is caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes, which function as glycosyltransferases. Mutations lead to decreased synthesis of heparan sulfate, disrupting the regulation of chondrocyte proliferation and leading to the formation of osteochondromas.

Question 93

A 7-year-old girl presents with precocious puberty, a large café-au-lait spot with irregular "coast of Maine" borders on her torso, and a limp. Radiographs show a "ground-glass" expansile lesion in her proximal femur. The somatic mutation responsible for this syndrome occurs in which of the following genes?





Explanation

This patient has McCune-Albright Syndrome, characterized by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, and "coast of Maine" café-au-lait spots. It is caused by a post-zygotic activating somatic mutation in the GNAS1 gene, leading to increased cAMP.

Question 94

A 5-year-old child with normal intelligence presents with short-trunk dwarfism, corneal clouding, and knock-knees. Radiographs demonstrate severe platyspondyly with anterior beaking of the vertebral bodies and odontoid hypoplasia. Which of the following substances is excessively accumulating in this patient's tissues?





Explanation

Morquio Syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV) is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease resulting from a defect in galactosamine-6-sulfatase (Type A) or beta-galactosidase (Type B). This causes the specific accumulation of keratan sulfate. Odontoid hypoplasia makes them highly susceptible to atlantoaxial instability.

Question 95

A 15-year-old boy completes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection for a high-grade conventional osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Pathological evaluation of the resected specimen is performed. Which of the following findings is the most significant predictor of long-term survival?





Explanation

The most important prognostic factor for localized high-grade conventional osteosarcoma is the histological response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy. A "good response" is defined as >90% tumor necrosis and strongly correlates with improved long-term survival.

Question 96

A 45-year-old woman is evaluated for a stiff, painful, and swollen ankle 8 weeks after a cast was removed for a non-operative distal fibula fracture.

What is the most characteristic early radiographic finding in a patient developing Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?





Explanation

The hallmark early radiographic sign of CRPS (Sudeck's atrophy) is periarticular patchy or mottled osteopenia. This is believed to result from localized bone resorption mediated by altered sympathetic nervous system activity and regional inflammation.

Question 97

A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a swollen, warm, and erythematous foot without ulceration. Radiographs reveal fragmentation and destruction of the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the neurovascular theory of Charcot arthropathy, which of the following directly drives the increased osteoclastic bone resorption?





Explanation

The neurovascular theory of Charcot arthropathy postulates that autonomic neuropathy leads to a loss of sympathetic tone. This causes vasodilation, bounding pulses, and increased local bone blood flow, which washes out bone mineral and enhances osteoclastic activity.

Question 98

A 14-year-old male presents with a painful spinal deformity that is worse at night. Imaging reveals an osteoid osteoma in the right T10 lamina. Which of the following best describes the typical curve pattern and natural history of his scoliosis following definitive radiofrequency ablation of the nidus?





Explanation

Osteoid osteoma in the spine causes painful scoliosis with the concavity directed toward the side of the lesion due to asymmetric muscle spasm. Ablation usually leads to complete curve resolution if the symptoms have been present for less than 15 months.

Question 99

A 45-year-old woman presents 3 months after a conservatively managed distal radius fracture with severe hand pain, hyperalgesia, swelling, and shiny skin.

A triple-phase bone scan is ordered to aid in the diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Which of the following bone scan findings is most characteristic of this condition?





Explanation

A triple-phase bone scan in CRPS classically demonstrates increased diffuse uptake in the flow and blood pool phases due to autonomic dysregulation. The delayed phase typically shows intensely increased periarticular uptake, distinguishing it from simple disuse osteopenia.

Question 100

A 6-year-old boy presents with short stature, a waddling gait, and bilateral hip pain. Radiographs reveal flattened, irregular, and fragmented capital femoral epiphyses. His spine radiographs are completely normal with no vertebral body abnormalities. A mutation in the gene encoding which of the following proteins is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?





Explanation

The patient's presentation of epiphyseal irregularity with normal spine radiographs is classic for Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED). MED is most frequently caused by mutations in the COMP gene, unlike Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED) which involves COL2A1 mutations and structural spine defects.

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Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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