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Self Assessment Examination Adult S Review | Dr Hutaif - ...

Self-Assessment Examination 2020 Adult Spine MCQS Question 1 of 100 Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of the spine of a 20-year-old college football player who…

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Updated: Jun 2026
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This topic focuses on Self-Assessment Examination 2020 Adult Spine MCQS, A football player with a herniated disk can return to play when answer b the patient is asymptomatic, demonstrates normal range of motion, and has a negative neurological examination. Initial nonoperative care is recommended, but full resolution of symptoms and neurological findings are crucial before resuming sports activities.

Illustration of answer b the patient - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

Self Assessment Examination Adult S Review | Dr Hutaif - ...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and improves when leaning over a shopping cart. Which of the following is the most likely finding on physical examination or diagnostic testing?
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. Patients typically have preserved pulses but may show diminished reflexes (e.g., Achilles). Pain improves with lumbar flexion (leaning over a shopping cart, stationary cycling) and worsens with extension.
Question 2
A 55-year-old female presents with progressive clumsiness in her hands and difficulty walking. Examination reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and inverted brachioradialis reflex. An MRI of the cervical spine shows severe stenosis at C5-C6 with cord signal change. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of the inverted brachioradialis reflex?
Explanation
The inverted brachioradialis (supinator) reflex involves a diminished brachioradialis reflex (LMN lesion at C6) and a hyperactive finger flexor response (UMN lesion below C6). It is a classic sign of cervical spondylotic myelopathy at the C5-C6 level.
Question 3
In adult spinal deformity surgery, achieving appropriate sagittal balance is critical for good clinical outcomes. According to the SRS-Schwab classification, which of the following spinopelvic parameter targets is most strongly correlated with improved health-related quality of life (HRQOL)?

Explanation
The SRS-Schwab targets for adult spinal deformity correction are: PI-LL < 10 degrees, PT < 20 degrees, and SVA < 5 cm. Normalizing PI-LL mismatch is paramount for surgical success.
Question 4
A 65-year-old female presents with a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely to be compressed, and what is the expected clinical motor deficit?
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level (e.g., L4 root at L4-L5). The L4 nerve root innervates the quadriceps (knee extension) and tibialis anterior (ankle dorsiflexion, shared with L5). Knee extension is more specific to L4. An L5 root compression affects EHL.
Question 5
A 42-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis sustains a minor fall and complains of new-onset neck pain. Neurological examination is normal. Radiographs of the cervical spine are difficult to interpret due to marked deformity and osteoporosis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly rigid, osteoporotic spines and are at high risk for highly unstable, often occult fractures even after low-energy trauma. A CT scan of the entire cervical spine is mandatory in evaluating neck pain after a fall in these patients, as standard radiographs often miss fractures.
Question 6
A 72-year-old female presents with 6 weeks of severe back pain following a mechanical fall. Radiographs show an L1 vertebral compression fracture with 30% height loss. Neurological exam is intact. She has been treated with bracing, NSAIDs, and physical therapy but reports no improvement in her pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Explanation
In patients with osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures who have failed conservative management (typically 4-6 weeks) and continue to have severe, localized pain without neurological deficits, cement augmentation (kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty) is indicated to stabilize the fracture and relieve pain.
Question 7
A 45-year-old diabetic male presents with severe mid-thoracic back pain, subjective fevers, and acute onset of lower extremity weakness and urinary retention. MRI reveals a large epidural fluid collection at T8-T10 with peripheral enhancement and cord compression. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Explanation
The clinical picture and MRI findings are classic for a spinal epidural abscess causing acute neurological compromise. The standard of care is emergent surgical decompression and debridement, followed by culture-directed intravenous antibiotics.
Question 8
Which of the following describes the correct formula defining the relationship between spinopelvic parameters in a standing individual?

Explanation
Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the sum of the pelvic tilt (PT) and the sacral slope (SS). PI = PT + SS. As a person changes position, the PT and SS change inversely, but PI remains constant.
Question 9
A 50-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug use presents with worsening axial back pain, fevers, and elevated inflammatory markers. MRI of the lumbar spine reveals discitis and osteomyelitis at L3-L4 with endplate destruction and a small epidural phlegmon. Neurological examination is fully intact. Blood cultures are positive for Methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). What is the most appropriate initial management?
Explanation
The patient has pyogenic spondylodiscitis with no neurological deficits and no gross instability. Pathogen is identified via blood cultures. The mainstay of treatment is long-term intravenous antibiotics. Surgery is indicated for neurological deficits, gross spinal instability, progressive deformity, or failure of medical management.
Question 10
A 38-year-old construction worker presents with acute onset of severe low back pain and left leg pain extending to the dorsum of the foot. Examination reveals 4/5 strength in ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the first dorsal web space. The patellar and Achilles reflexes are 2+ and symmetric. An MRI confirms a herniated nucleus pulposus. At which level and location is the most likely disc herniation?
Explanation
Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation in the first dorsal web space are classic signs of L5 nerve root compression. A paracentral disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the traversing L5 nerve root.
Question 11
A 62-year-old female presents with neck pain and right arm radiating pain. She has weakness in triceps extension and wrist flexion, with a diminished triceps reflex. Sensation is decreased over the middle finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely involved, and what is the corresponding intervertebral disc level?
Explanation
The patient exhibits signs of a C7 radiculopathy: weakness in triceps and wrist flexors, diminished triceps reflex, and sensory loss in the middle finger. The C7 nerve root exits the intervertebral foramen between C6 and C7, typical for a C6-C7 disc herniation.
Question 12
A 65-year-old male with a history of prior posterior spinal fusion from L2 to L5 presents with a new onset of severe proximal thigh pain and weakness in hip flexion. Radiographs demonstrate a solid fusion from L2 to L5 but reveal adjacent segment disease with severe spinal stenosis and spondylolisthesis at L1-L2. Which nerve root is most likely compromised, and what is the primary muscle affected?

Explanation
The traversing nerve root at L1-L2 is L2. The L2 nerve root provides primary innervation to the iliopsoas muscle, responsible for hip flexion. Symptoms of L2 radiculopathy include pain in the anterior proximal thigh and weakness in hip flexion.
Question 13
In the setting of adult degenerative scoliosis, which radiographic parameter is considered the most significant predictor of patient-reported clinical outcomes and disability (e.g., ODI scores)?
Explanation
Positive sagittal balance, most commonly measured by a Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) greater than 5 cm, has been consistently shown in the literature to be the most significant radiographic predictor of poor patient-reported outcomes, pain, and disability (ODI) in adult spinal deformity.
Question 14
A 40-year-old female presents with axial low back pain. Radiographs demonstrate an isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 with a 25% slip (Grade I). Flexion-extension views show 4 mm of dynamic translation. She has failed 6 months of comprehensive non-operative management including physical therapy and epidural steroid injections. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Explanation
For a symptomatic low-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis that has failed conservative care, the standard surgical treatment is an instrumented posterior (or posterolateral) fusion of L5-S1. Laminectomy alone is contraindicated as it destabilizes the spine further by removing the posterior tether.
Question 15
A 78-year-old male with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive quadriparesis and severe neck pain. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
The patient has severe atlantoaxial instability (ADI > 9-10 mm is highly predictive of neurologic injury) and clinical myelopathy secondary to rheumatoid arthritis. The definitive treatment for C1-C2 instability with an intact subaxial spine is a C1-C2 posterior fusion.
Question 16
A 55-year-old female undergoes a posterior L4-L5 laminectomy and fusion for degenerative spondylolisthesis. On postoperative day 2, she develops a sudden severe headache, photophobia, and nausea when standing, which resolves when lying completely flat. The surgical wound is dry and intact. What is the most likely etiology of her symptoms?

Explanation
Postural headaches that worsen upon standing and improve when supine are the hallmark of intracranial hypotension, most commonly due to a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from an incidental dural tear during spinal surgery.
Question 17
A patient with suspected diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) is evaluated in the clinic. Which of the following radiographic criteria is essential for the formal diagnosis of DISH (Resnick and Niwayama criteria)?
Explanation
The diagnostic criteria for DISH established by Resnick and Niwayama include: 1) flowing ossification of the anterolateral aspect of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies; 2) preservation of intervertebral disc height; 3) absence of apophyseal (facet) joint ankylosis and sacroiliac joint erosion/fusion.
Question 18
A 60-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presents with mid-back pain that is worse at night and not relieved by rest. Plain radiographs are unremarkable. An MRI of the thoracic spine reveals a T8 vertebral body lesion that is hypointense on T1-weighted images and hyperintense on T2-weighted images, with enhancement following gadolinium administration. There is no epidural extension or mechanical instability. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Explanation
In a patient with a history of cancer presenting with a solitary spinal lesion without spinal instability or neurological compromise, a biopsy is essential to confirm the diagnosis before initiating systemic or localized definitive treatment.
Question 19
Which physical examination test is most specific for evaluating the presence of cervical radiculopathy?
Explanation
The Spurling test (neck extension, lateral bending to the affected side, and axial compression) is highly specific for diagnosing cervical radiculopathy. It reproduces the radicular symptoms by narrowing the neural foramen.
Question 20
A 45-year-old female undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6. During the immediate postoperative period in the recovery room, she develops a rapidly expanding anterior neck mass, respiratory distress, and stridor. What is the most critical and immediate step in her management?
Explanation
The patient is experiencing a postoperative prevertebral hematoma causing airway compromise. The standard of care is immediate bedside opening of the surgical incision (including superficial and deep fascial layers) to evacuate the hematoma and relieve pressure, followed by securing the airway and returning to the OR.
Question 21
A 68-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of a solid instrumented lumbar fusion from L2 to the sacrum. How does this patient's prior spinal fusion alter the normal spinopelvic biomechanics during the transition from a standing to a sitting position, and what compensatory intraoperative adjustment in acetabular component positioning should the surgeon consider?
Explanation
Patients with a stiff or fused lumbar spine lack the normal ability to retrovert their pelvis when transitioning from standing to sitting. In a normal spine, sitting causes posterior pelvic tilt (retroversion), which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the anterior acetabulum to accommodate the flexed femur. A fused spine prevents this, leading to anterior bony impingement and a high risk of posterior dislocation when sitting. To compensate, the surgeon should consider placing the acetabular component in slightly more anteversion and inclination to provide stability.
Question 22
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon checks the gap balancing with spacer blocks. The extension gap is symmetric and rectangular, allowing appropriate tension. However, the flexion gap is tight and symmetric. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?
Explanation
A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap implies that the anteroposterior dimension of the femoral component is too large, or the posterior soft tissues are too tight. The appropriate surgical options include releasing the PCL (if it is a cruciate-retaining knee), down-sizing the femoral component (which removes more posterior condylar bone and opens the flexion gap), or translating the femoral component anteriorly. Resecting more distal femur would affect the extension gap. Increasing the posterior tibial slope affects both gaps but preferentially opens the flexion gap; however, changing the femoral component size or PCL release are the primary direct corrections.
Question 23
A 60-year-old female presents with lower back pain and neurogenic claudication. Radiographs reveal a grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. At which spinal level is this condition most commonly found, and what anatomical variation is most heavily implicated in its pathogenesis?
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis occurs most frequently at the L4-L5 level. The primary anatomic predisposing factor is an abnormally sagittal orientation of the facet joints at this level. Normally, coronally oriented facets resist anterior shear forces. When the facets are more sagittally aligned, they fail to resist these shear forces, leading to anterior subluxation as the disc degenerates.
Question 24
A 23-year-old overhead athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging is obtained.

The concept of the 'glenoid track' is utilized to evaluate his bipolar bone loss. Which of the following defines an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion?
Explanation
The glenoid track is the contact zone of the glenoid on the humeral head during shoulder abduction and external rotation. If the medial margin of a Hill-Sachs lesion extends further medially than the medial border of the glenoid track, it is considered 'off-track'. This means the lesion will slide over and 'engage' the anterior glenoid rim, causing a dislocation. Such lesions require specific treatment (like a remplissage or Latarjet) in addition to an anterior stabilization.
Question 25
A 35-year-old highly active man underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Two years later, he complains of a loud squeaking sound emanating from his hip when he walks or bends, though it is painless. Which of the following technical factors is most strongly associated with the development of this specific complication?
Explanation
Squeaking is a known complication of ceramic-on-ceramic bearings. The most common technical cause is malposition of the acetabular component, specifically extreme inclination or excessive anteversion. This malposition causes 'edge loading', where the femoral head articulates directly on the rim of the ceramic liner. This focal stress disrupts the fluid film lubrication, resulting in localized wear, stripe wear, and the characteristic squeaking sound.
Question 26
A 52-year-old man presents with acute onset, severe right leg pain radiating down the anterior thigh to the medial aspect of his lower leg. Physical exam reveals weakness in knee extension and a diminished right patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a paracentral disc herniation typically affects the traversing nerve root (e.g., L4-L5 paracentral herniation compresses the L5 root). However, a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation impinges the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, a far lateral L4-L5 disc herniation compresses the exiting L4 nerve root. Symptoms of an L4 radiculopathy include pain radiating to the anterior thigh and medial leg, weakness of the quadriceps (knee extension), and a decreased patellar reflex.
Question 27
A 28-year-old manual laborer sustains a high-energy fall onto the point of his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate a >100% superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion. Regarding the key stabilizing structures of this joint, which of the following best describes the anatomy and function of the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments?
Explanation
The coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments provide critical superior-inferior stability to the acromioclavicular joint. The conoid ligament is located more medially and posteriorly; it is the primary restraint to superior translation of the clavicle. The trapezoid ligament is located more laterally and anteriorly; it primarily resists axial compression to the shoulder.
Question 28
During a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon inadvertently positions the femoral component in internal rotation relative to the epicondylar axis. Which of the following complications is most likely to result from this malrotation?
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component in TKA medializes the trochlear groove, which effectively increases the dynamic Q-angle. This predisposes the knee to lateral patellar subluxation or dislocation. Additionally, internal rotation of the femoral component creates an asymmetric flexion gap, specifically making the medial flexion gap larger (looser) and the lateral flexion gap tighter.
Question 29
The diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) involves multiple diagnostic modalities. The synovial fluid alpha-defensin test is increasingly used for its high sensitivity and specificity. What is the fundamental biological origin of alpha-defensin in this setting?
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is a biomarker used in the diagnosis of PJI. It is a naturally occurring antimicrobial peptide that is released by activated host neutrophils in response to a bacterial challenge. Because it is highly specific to the presence of an active infection in the joint, its levels in synovial fluid are an excellent marker for PJI, outperforming general inflammatory markers in terms of specificity.
Question 30
A 62-year-old male presents with deteriorating fine motor skills in his hands and broad-based gait. Examination reveals hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and a positive Hoffmann's sign. Striking the brachioradialis tendon yields a diminished brachioradialis reflex but brisk, involuntary flexion of the ipsilateral fingers. What is this specific physical finding called, and what level of pathology does it indicate?
Explanation
The finding described is the 'inverted radial reflex'. Tapping the brachioradialis tendon (innervated by C5-C6) normally elicits elbow flexion. In an inverted reflex, elbow flexion is absent or diminished (due to a lower motor neuron lesion at C5-C6), but the stimulus produces brisk flexion of the fingers (due to hyperreflexia of the C8-T1 levels caused by upper motor neuron compression at the C5-C6 level). It is classic for cervical spondylotic myelopathy localizing to C5-C6.
Question 31
A patient requires revision of a failed total hip arthroplasty due to massive aseptic loosening.

Preoperative radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the acetabular component greater than 3 cm, complete destruction of the teardrop, and medial migration past Kohler's line with disruption of the ischium. According to the Paprosky classification, what grade is this defect, and what is the most appropriate reconstructive strategy?
Explanation
The description perfectly matches a Paprosky Type IIIB acetabular defect. Type IIIB defects are characterized by severe bone loss, superior migration >3 cm, destruction of the teardrop, and disruption of Kohler's line (indicating medial migration and pelvic dissociation or severe ischial bone loss). Standard hemispherical cups cannot achieve stability. The recommended reconstructive strategies involve bridging the defect with a cup-cage construct, custom triflange acetabular component, or massive structural allografts with cages.
Question 32
The Grammont design principles for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) revolutionized the treatment of cuff tear arthropathy. Which of the following statements best describes the primary biomechanical changes achieved by this design compared to normal shoulder anatomy?
Explanation
The Grammont reverse shoulder arthroplasty design is based on two key biomechanical principles: 1) Medializing the center of rotation, which recruits more deltoid fibers and significantly increases the deltoid moment arm (making it more efficient as an elevator). 2) Distalizing (lowering) the humerus, which increases tension on the deltoid muscle, optimizing its length-tension curve to compensate for the absent superior rotator cuff.
Question 33
A 55-year-old patient presents with symptomatic isolated medial compartment knee osteoarthritis. You are considering a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Which of the following is generally considered an absolute contraindication to performing a UKA?
Explanation
Inflammatory arthropathy (such as Rheumatoid Arthritis) is generally considered an absolute contraindication to unicompartmental knee arthroplasty. Because RA is a systemic disease affecting the entire synovium, progression of arthritis in the unresurfaced compartments is virtually inevitable and rapid. Age and weight constraints have largely been loosened, asymptomatic patellofemoral changes are acceptable, and a mild flexion contracture (<15 degrees) is acceptable.
Question 34
A 70-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall from a standing height. He reports severe, new-onset lower neck pain. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear heavily ossified but no obvious fracture is visualized. Neurologic examination is completely normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigid, osteopenic spines that act like long bones. They are exquisitely susceptible to highly unstable fractures even from trivial trauma. Fractures are frequently missed on plain radiographs due to altered anatomy, ossification, and the lower cervical/cervicothoracic junction being obscured by the shoulders. Any patient with AS presenting with new neck or back pain after a fall MUST undergo a CT scan of the spine to rule out a fracture.
Question 35
Three years following a primary total knee arthroplasty, a 68-year-old woman sustains a sudden 'pop' and inability to actively extend her knee after stumbling on a stair. Examination and imaging confirm a complete rupture of the mid-substance of the patellar tendon. The primary implants are well-fixed. What is the most appropriate and reliable surgical intervention?
Explanation
Chronic or post-TKA extensor mechanism ruptures (especially patellar tendon ruptures) have a notoriously high failure rate with direct primary repair, even when augmented. The tissue quality is poor and the blood supply is compromised. The gold standard reliable treatment is a full extensor mechanism reconstruction, which is typically performed using either a complete extensor mechanism allograft (tibial tubercle, patellar tendon, patella, quad tendon) or, increasingly, synthetic mesh (e.g., Marlex mesh) which has shown excellent outcomes with immediate mobilization.
Question 36
A 64-year-old male who underwent a primary metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago with a modular femoral head presents with new-onset persistent anterior groin pain and swelling. Radiographs show well-fixed implants. Aspiration yields sterile, straw-colored fluid. Blood tests reveal significantly elevated serum cobalt and chromium levels. MRI with MARS technique reveals a large cystic mass surrounding the hip joint. What is the most likely etiology of this pathology?
Explanation
The clinical scenario describes an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) / aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL) in a patient with a metal-on-polyethylene THA. This is classic for 'trunnionosis', which is mechanically assisted crevice corrosion and fretting wear that occurs at the modular head-neck junction (the trunnion). It leads to the release of metal ions (Cobalt and Chromium), resulting in pseudotumor formation and tissue necrosis despite the absence of a metal-on-metal bearing surface.
Question 37
A 72-year-old male complains of severe right shoulder pain and an inability to lift his arm above his waist. Examination reveals pseudoparalysis of the shoulder with active forward flexion to 45 degrees, but intact active internal rotation. MRI reveals a massive, fully retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear with grade 4 Goutallier fatty infiltration. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact. Glenohumeral arthritis is absent. What is the most reliable definitive surgical treatment for this patient?
Explanation
The patient has an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear (Grade 4 fatty infiltration) presenting with pseudoparalysis (inability to actively elevate above 90 degrees). In an elderly patient with an intact deltoid and pseudoparalysis, Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice. It reliably restores active elevation by utilizing the deltoid muscle. SCR and tendon transfers are less reliable for restoring overhead motion in the setting of true pseudoparalysis in an older individual.
Question 38
Two years after an uncomplicated primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, a patient complains of recurrent knee effusions and a sensation of the knee 'giving way' specifically when descending stairs or getting out of a low chair. On examination, the knee has 0-125 degrees of motion, is stable to varus/valgus stress at 0 degrees, but has notable anteroposterior translation and laxity at 90 degrees of flexion. Which intraoperative technical error most likely caused this complication?
Explanation
This patient has isolated flexion instability. Flexion instability is characterized by symptoms of giving way during deep flexion activities (stairs, rising from a chair) and laxity tested at 90 degrees of flexion, while extension stability is maintained. It is caused by a flexion gap that is larger/looser than the extension gap. Common technical errors leading to this include excessive resection of the posterior femoral condyles, downsizing the femoral component without shifting it anteriorly, or creating an excessive posterior slope on the tibial cut.
Question 39
A 74-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock and calf pain that worsens with walking and is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart.

He undergoes a stationary bicycle test, during which he pedals continuously for 20 minutes while leaning forward without experiencing leg pain. What anatomical mechanism explains the relief of his symptoms during lumbar flexion?
Explanation
The clinical picture describes neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. The hallmark of neurogenic claudication is that symptoms are exacerbated by lumbar extension and relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., shopping cart sign, riding a bicycle). Anatomically, lumbar flexion unfolds and stretches the ligamentum flavum (which buckles into the canal during extension) and opens the neural foramina. This acutely increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and foramina, relieving compression on the cauda equina and nerve roots.
Question 40
During a total hip arthroplasty using the direct anterior approach (DAA), the surgeon exploits the internervous plane between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae (TFL). Which nerve provides the motor innervation to the muscle located immediately lateral to this interval?
Explanation
The direct anterior approach to the hip utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (medial) and the tensor fasciae latae (lateral). The sartorius is innervated by the femoral nerve. The tensor fasciae latae (TFL), located lateral to the interval, is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve. Understanding this plane prevents denervation of the key abductor musculature.
Question 41
A 62-year-old male undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On post-operative day 1, he demonstrates a new, isolated weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but sensation is fully intact. Which of the following is the most widely accepted etiology for this complication?
Explanation
C5 palsy is a well-documented complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior approaches. It is most commonly attributed to the posterior drift of the spinal cord after decompression, which stretches and tethers the short C5 nerve root.
Question 42
A 70-year-old man undergoes an L4-L5 posterior decompression and fusion for severe spinal stenosis. Postoperatively, he develops a new foot drop and numbness over the dorsal web space between the first and second toes. Which nerve root is most likely injured, and what is the primary muscle affected?
Explanation
The L5 nerve root supplies the extensor hallucis longus, which is critical for great toe extension, and provides sensation to the first dorsal web space. Iatrogenic injury to the L5 root during L4-L5 surgery can present as a foot drop and these specific sensory deficits.
Question 43
A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, but no new sensory changes or long-tract signs. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
Explanation
Postoperative C5 palsy is a known complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior laminectomy, due to posterior cord drift causing tethering of the C5 nerve root. It typically presents as deltoid and biceps weakness without sensory loss or myelopathy.
Question 44
When calculating the pelvic incidence (PI) in a patient with adult spinal deformity, which two anatomical landmarks are utilized to form the angle?
Explanation
Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the angle between a line perpendicular to the sacral plate at its midpoint and a line connecting this point to the axis of the femoral heads. It is crucial for planning sagittal balance correction.
Question 45
A 54-year-old diabetic male presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals an anterior epidural abscess at L2-L3 with extensive vertebral body destruction and kyphosis. He is unable to move his legs against gravity. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Explanation
In the setting of an anterior epidural abscess with significant bony destruction and progressive neurologic deficit, an anterior corpectomy provides direct decompression and allows for strut grafting to restore anterior column stability. Posterior laminectomy alone is contraindicated as it further destabilizes the spine.
Question 46
A 60-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer presents with severe, mechanical back pain. Which of the following parameters is evaluated in the Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) to determine her need for surgical stabilization?
Explanation
The SINS score assesses spinal instability in neoplastic disease based on six criteria: location, pain, bone lesion type, radiographic spinal alignment, vertebral body collapse, and posterolateral spinal element involvement. Tumor histology and life expectancy are used in other scores like Tokuhashi or Tomita, not SINS.
Question 47
A 45-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis falls from a standing height. He complains of severe neck pain but his neurological examination is normal. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine appear unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly brittle, rigid spines that are extremely susceptible to fractures even from low-energy trauma. Normal plain radiographs are insufficient to rule out a fracture; advanced imaging (CT or MRI) is mandatory.
Question 48
A 65-year-old female presents with neurogenic claudication and an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. According to the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT), which of the following is true regarding her treatment options?
Explanation
The SPORT trial demonstrated that for degenerative spondylolisthesis, surgical treatment (decompression and fusion) maintains a significant advantage over non-operative treatment in pain relief and functional improvement at the 4-year follow-up.
Question 49
A 42-year-old man presents with acute onset of saddle anesthesia, bilateral sciatica, and urinary retention with a post-void residual volume >500 mL. An MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 herniated nucleus pulposus. Current literature suggests optimal clinical and functional outcomes are achieved if surgical decompression is performed within what maximum timeframe?
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Literature generally supports that decompression performed within 48 hours of symptom onset yields significantly better outcomes for bladder and motor function recovery.
Question 50
A 55-year-old woman underwent an L4-S1 posterior spinal fusion 5 years ago. She now presents with new-onset L3 radiculopathy. Radiographs demonstrate a new grade 1 spondylolisthesis at L3-L4. Which of the following is considered the strongest modifiable intraoperative risk factor for the development of adjacent segment disease (ASD)?
Explanation
Fusing the lumbar spine in a hypolordotic (flatback) position significantly increases stress on the adjacent segments, making sagittal malalignment the most critical biomechanical risk factor for adjacent segment disease.
Question 51
A 48-year-old man presents with severe acute right anterior thigh pain and weakness in knee extension. An MRI reveals a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this specific herniation?
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an extraforaminal disc herniation at L3-L4 will compress the L3 nerve root.
Question 52
In a high-risk patient undergoing posterolateral lumbar fusion, recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) is utilized off-label. Which of the following is a recognized complication specifically associated with the use of rhBMP-2 in the spine?
Explanation
The use of rhBMP-2 in spine surgery is associated with several specific complications, including postoperative radiculitis, ectopic bone formation within the canal, and massive osteolysis/subsidence.
Question 53
A 38-year-old male is scheduled for an anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) at L5-S1 for severe degenerative disc disease. He is counseled regarding the risk of retrograde ejaculation. Injury to which of the following structures is primarily responsible for this complication?
Explanation
The superior hypogastric plexus, which lies anterior to the lower lumbar vertebrae and aortic bifurcation, provides sympathetic innervation to the internal urethral sphincter. Injury during an ALIF approach can lead to sphincter incompetence and retrograde ejaculation.
Question 54
A 65-year-old man presents with mild back stiffness. Radiographs show flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of four contiguous thoracic vertebral bodies with preservation of disc height and absence of sacroiliac joint sclerosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The classic radiographic criteria for DISH (Resnick and Niwayama) include flowing ossification over at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, preservation of disc height, and absence of sacroiliac or apophyseal joint ankylosis.
Question 55


A 55-year-old male presents with progressive upper extremity clumsiness and lower extremity spasticity. CT imaging reveals ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6. If an anterior cervical corpectomy is planned, what is the most significant intraoperative risk specifically associated with OPLL excision?
Explanation
OPLL frequently adheres to or ossifies through the ventral dura. Consequently, surgical resection via an anterior approach carries a very high risk of dural tears and subsequent CSF leaks.
Question 56
A 45-year-old female presents with right-sided neck pain radiating to her thumb and index finger. Physical examination reveals weakness in wrist extension and a diminished brachioradialis reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected, and between which vertebrae does it exit?
Explanation
The C6 nerve root provides sensation to the thumb and index finger, motor function for wrist extension, and mediates the brachioradialis reflex. In the cervical spine, nerve roots exit above their correspondingly named pedicle; thus, C6 exits at the C5-C6 foramen.
Question 57
A 28-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains an L1 burst fracture with 40% loss of anterior vertebral body height and 30% canal compromise. He is neurologically intact, and MRI confirms the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is the appropriate management?
Explanation
The TLICS score for this patient is 2 (Morphology: burst = 2; Neurologic status: intact = 0; PLC: intact = 0). A TLICS score of 3 or less is an indication for non-operative management, typically with a rigid orthosis.
Question 58
An 82-year-old man sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact but has multiple medical comorbidities. Which of the following treatments is associated with an unacceptably high rate of mortality in this specific demographic and is generally avoided?
Explanation
Halo vest immobilization in the elderly population (over 65-70 years) is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates (up to 40%) primarily due to respiratory complications and falls. It is generally contraindicated in this age group.
Question 59
A 45-year-old male presents with severe acute right leg pain radiating to the anterior thigh. Physical examination reveals weakness in right knee extension and a diminished patellar tendon reflex. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Explanation
A far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that specific level. At the L4-L5 level, the L4 nerve root exits the neural foramen and is affected by a far-lateral herniation, causing anterior thigh pain, quadriceps weakness, and a diminished patellar reflex.
Question 60
A 62-year-old female presents with neurogenic claudication. Radiographs demonstrate a grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5. Which of the following anatomical variations is most strongly associated with the development of degenerative spondylolisthesis at this level?
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis is strongly associated with facet joint morphology. A more sagittal orientation of the facet joints provides less resistance to anterior shear forces, predisposing the segment to degenerative forward slip, most commonly at L4-L5.
Question 61
A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe lower back pain, new-onset urinary retention, and perianal numbness following a heavy lifting injury. Post-void residual is 400 mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
This patient presents with classic cauda equina syndrome, characterized by urinary retention and saddle anesthesia. It is an absolute orthopedic emergency requiring urgent MRI and prompt surgical decompression to maximize the chance of neurological recovery.
Question 62
A 48-year-old mechanic complains of right arm pain, numbness in his long (middle) finger, and weakness when extending his elbow and flexing his wrist. Examination reveals an absent triceps reflex on the right. An MRI of the cervical spine is most likely to show nerve root compression at which level?
Explanation
The patient exhibits classic signs of C7 radiculopathy: triceps weakness, wrist flexion weakness, numbness in the middle finger, and a diminished triceps reflex. This is most commonly caused by a disc herniation at the C6-C7 level.
Question 63
A 35-year-old intravenous drug user presents with progressive back pain, subjective fevers, and bilateral lower extremity weakness. MRI with gadolinium reveals a ventral epidural fluid collection with rim enhancement spanning L2-L4. Which organism is most likely responsible for this condition?
Explanation
Spinal epidural abscesses in both the general population and intravenous drug users are most frequently caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Urgent surgical decompression and prolonged culture-directed antibiotics are the mainstays of treatment for patients with neurological deficits.
Question 64
A 55-year-old male with a 20-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the trauma bay after a low-speed motor vehicle collision. He complains of severe lower cervical pain. CT of the cervical spine reveals a transverse fracture through the C6 vertebral body extending into the posterior elements. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Explanation
Fractures in the ankylosed spine are highly unstable and behave like long bone fractures, often going through the disc or vertebral body. They carry a high risk of displacement and epidural hematoma, requiring long-segment posterior instrumentation for adequate stabilization.
Question 65
A 60-year-old male with a known history of renal cell carcinoma presents with intractable mechanical back pain. Imaging shows an isolated lytic metastatic lesion at L2 with posterior cortical wall destruction and early cord compression. The Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) is 14. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?
Explanation
Renal cell carcinoma metastases are highly hypervascular. Pre-operative angiography and embolization are crucial to minimize catastrophic intraoperative blood loss before proceeding with definitive surgical decompression and stabilization.
Question 66
A 72-year-old female with known severe cervical spondylosis falls forward and strikes her chin. She presents with significant weakness in her hands and upper extremities but is able to ambulate with only mild lower extremity weakness. Which of the following spinal cord syndromes does she exhibit?
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in an elderly patient with preexisting cervical canal stenosis. It is characterized by disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.
Question 67
A 65-year-old male is 3 years status post an L3-L5 posterior lumbar interbody fusion. He now presents with new-onset L2 radiculopathy and imaging shows severe stenosis at the L2-L3 level. Which of the following intraoperative factors during his index surgery places him at the highest risk for developing this adjacent segment disease?
Explanation
Postoperative sagittal malalignment, particularly lumbar hypolordosis (flatback), significantly increases abnormal biomechanical stresses on adjacent levels. This is a major independent risk factor for the accelerated development of adjacent segment disease.
Question 68
A 55-year-old Asian male presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a wide-based gait. CT of the cervical spine reveals a continuous ossified mass posterior to the vertebral bodies from C3 to C6. If an anterior decompression (corpectomy) is planned, what is the most significant intraoperative complication directly associated with the pathology?
Explanation
Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) often adheres to or ossifies the underlying dura mater. Attempting to resect the OPLL mass via an anterior approach carries a uniquely high risk of dural tears and subsequent CSF leaks.
Question 69
A 30-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates that the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
Explanation
This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Burst fracture = 2, Intact neurology = 0, Intact PLC = 0). A TLICS score of less than 4 implies the injury is mechanically stable enough for non-operative management with a TLSO brace.
Question 70
A 16-year-old gymnast presents with chronic lower back pain that radiates into her buttocks and posterior thighs. Radiographs demonstrate an isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. If this patient were to develop radiculopathy due to foraminal stenosis from the pars defect fibrocartilage, which nerve root is most commonly affected?
Explanation
In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the exiting L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed. This occurs in the neural foramen due to the hypertrophic fibrocartilaginous tissue attempting to heal the pars interarticularis defect (Gill nodule).
Question 71
In the evaluation of adult spinal deformity, assessing spinopelvic parameters is essential. Which of the following statements best describes pelvic incidence (PI)?
Explanation
Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed anatomical parameter specific to each individual and does not change with position. It is the sum of pelvic tilt (PT) and sacral slope (SS) (PI = PT + SS) and dictates the necessary lumbar lordosis for optimal sagittal balance.
Question 72
A 78-year-old female with osteoporosis suffers a sudden onset of mid-back pain while lifting groceries. Radiographs show an acute wedge compression fracture at T12 with 20% loss of height. She is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Explanation
The initial treatment for osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures without neurologic deficit is conservative, focusing on pain control, a short period of rest, and progressive mobilization. Cement augmentation (kyphoplasty) is typically reserved for those who fail conservative care after 4-6 weeks.
Question 73
A 65-year-old male presents with severe multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy from C3 to C6. Lateral radiographs demonstrate preservation of normal cervical lordosis (20 degrees). Which of the following surgical approaches is most appropriate and minimizes the risk of adjacent segment disease?
Explanation
In a patient with multilevel cervical myelopathy and maintained cervical lordosis, posterior cervical laminoplasty provides excellent decompression while avoiding the morbidity of multilevel anterior fusions. It also preserves some motion, theoretically reducing adjacent segment disease compared to fusion.
Question 74
A 45-year-old female presents with progressive spastic paraparesis. MRI reveals a large, calcified central disc herniation at T8-T9 causing severe cord compression. Which of the following surgical approaches is absolutely contraindicated?
Explanation
A standard posterior laminectomy is contraindicated for a central, calcified thoracic disc herniation. Attempting to retract the thoracic spinal cord from a posterior approach to access a ventral lesion carries an unacceptably high risk of catastrophic cord injury and paralysis.
Question 75
Recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) is utilized off-label in anterior cervical spine surgery to promote fusion. Its use in this anatomical region is most strongly associated with an increased risk of which of the following complications?
Explanation
The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is highly associated with massive prevertebral soft tissue swelling. This can lead to severe dysphagia and potentially life-threatening airway compromise.
Question 76
A 70-year-old male is evaluated for mild dysphagia and neck stiffness. Radiographs of the cervical spine reveal flowing ossification along the anterior aspect of 5 contiguous vertebral bodies. The intervertebral disc spaces are well-preserved, and the sacroiliac joints are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
DISH is characterized by flowing ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament across at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, with preservation of disc height and absence of sacroiliac joint erosions. Large anterior osteophytes in the cervical spine can mechanically cause dysphagia.
Question 77
A 55-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an elective total knee arthroplasty. Pre-operative flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs reveal an anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most appropriate management regarding her cervical spine?
Explanation
In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 9-10 mm or a posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) less than 14 mm indicates severe, unstable atlantoaxial subluxation with a high risk of impending neurologic injury. This requires prophylactic posterior C1-C2 stabilization before elective general anesthesia.
Question 78
A 58-year-old diabetic male presents with 4 weeks of severe, localized back pain and an elevated CRP. MRI shows fluid in the L3-L4 disc space with corresponding endplate edema. A CT-guided needle biopsy is performed but returns negative for organisms. The patient is hemodynamically stable without neurological deficit. What is the next best step in management?
Explanation
In cases of suspected pyogenic spondylodiscitis where the initial biopsy is negative and the patient is neurologically and hemodynamically stable, antibiotics should be withheld. A repeat image-guided biopsy or open biopsy should be performed to isolate the specific organism for targeted therapy.

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Dive deeper into specialized chapters regarding self-assessment-examination-2020-adult-spine-mcqs

15 Chapters
01
Chapter 1 50 min

Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

Master general orthopedics with the Orthopedics Hyperguide Review by Dr. Hutaif. Take interactive MCQs, track your scor…

02
Chapter 2 47 min

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Master your exams with Dr. Hutaif's Orthopedics Hyperguide Review. Practice interactive General Ortho MCQs with live ti…

03
Chapter 3 43 min

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04
Chapter 4 49 min

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05
Chapter 5 36 min

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06
Chapter 6 52 min

Orthopedic On Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Re -...

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07
Chapter 7 61 min

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FREE Orthopedics 2022 MCQ 1-50 1. (208) Q1-315: Slide 1 What is the most likely mechanism of failure for the patellar c…

08
Chapter 8 49 min

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09
Chapter 9 48 min

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10
Chapter 10 50 min

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FREE Orthopedics MCQS 2022 1751-1850.. 1801. (686) Q5-945: Which of the following statements is true regarding the grow…

11
Chapter 11 143 min

Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...

FREE Orthopedics MCQS 2022 1851-1900. 1851. (813) Q5-1074: What percentage of the human genome represents the actual ge…

12
Chapter 12 48 min

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13
Chapter 13 57 min

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14
Chapter 14 156 min

Orthopedic MCQs: Bone Tumors, Pathology & Lesions Review

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15
Chapter 15 27 min

Orthopedic Board Review MCQs (2026 Edition) - Part 1

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