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Orthopedic Ob Basic Review | Dr Hutaif Basic Science Re -...

Orthopedic Anatomy Imag Review | Dr Hutaif Basic Scienc -...

23 Apr 2026 36 min read 125 Views
Master Orthopedic Imaging: Select the Preferred Response Figure

Key Takeaway

This article provides essential research regarding ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE 014 ANATOMY IMAGING. In orthopedic self-assessment modules, the preferred response figure identifies the correct diagnosis for imaging studies. For instance, '1' may indicate a normal foot, '2' a calcaneonavicular coalition, and '3' a talocalcaneal middle facet coalition. This figure guides learners through accurate identification of conditions presented in the medical imagery questions.

Orthopedic Anatomy Imag Review | Dr Hutaif Basic Scienc -...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

You are reviewing an axial cross-section of the shoulder during a pre-operative imaging review for a posterior approach.

What structure forms the superior boundary of the quadrangular space, and what is its primary innervation?





Explanation

The quadrangular space is a critical anatomic space in the posterior shoulder. Its boundaries are: superiorly the teres minor (innervated by the axillary nerve), inferiorly the teres major, medially the long head of the triceps, and laterally the surgical neck of the humerus. It contains the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

Question 2

A trauma patient undergoes a pelvic series after a high-speed motor vehicle collision.

On an obturator oblique radiograph (Judet view) of the pelvis, which two osseous acetabular structures are best profiled?





Explanation

The Judet views are orthogonal X-rays used to evaluate acetabular fractures. The obturator oblique view (pelvis rotated 45 degrees away from the affected side) best profiles the anterior column and the posterior wall of the acetabulum. Conversely, the iliac oblique view profiles the posterior column and the anterior wall.

Question 3

A surgeon plans a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius for open reduction internal fixation of a diaphyseal fracture.

What are the innervations of the muscles defining the proximal internervous plane in this approach?





Explanation

The proximal internervous plane of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm utilizes the interval between the brachioradialis (innervated by the radial nerve) and the pronator teres (innervated by the median nerve). Distally, the plane is between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis (median nerve).

Question 4

A sagittal MRI of the knee is obtained to evaluate a suspected multi-ligamentous injury.

Which of the following best describes the femoral origin and tibial insertion of the anteromedial (AM) bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)?





Explanation

The ACL has two distinct functional bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles. The AM bundle originates more proximal and posterior on the medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts anteromedially on the tibial footprint. The AM bundle is tightest in flexion, whereas the PL bundle is tightest in extension.

Question 5

An axial MRI of the ankle reveals pathology in the posteromedial compartment.

Immediately posterior/lateral to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon at the level of the medial malleolus, which anatomic structure is located?





Explanation

The structures in the posteromedial ankle behind the medial malleolus follow the mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry': Tibialis posterior tendon, flexor Digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve, and flexor Hallucis longus tendon. Therefore, the posterior tibial artery lies immediately posterior to the FDL tendon.

Question 6

During a posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach to the hip, protecting the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is paramount. In this region, where is the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) consistently found?





Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus. To protect it during a posterior approach, the surgeon must avoid releasing the obturator externus and should not divide the quadratus femoris too medially.

Question 7

A 45-year-old competitive cyclist presents with isolated weakness of the dorsal interossei, but normal sensation in the little finger and normal hypothenar muscle strength. Compression of the ulnar nerve is suspected in Guyon's canal (Zone III). Which of the following structures forms the floor of Guyon's canal?





Explanation

Guyon's canal is bounded by the volar carpal ligament (roof), the transverse carpal ligament and pisohamate ligament (floor), the pisiform (ulnar border), and the hook of the hamate (radial border). Zone III contains only the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve, compression of which causes isolated motor deficits sparing the hypothenar muscles.

Question 8

Which of the following is the most common site of ulnar nerve compression leading to cubital tunnel syndrome?





Explanation

The most common site of ulnar nerve compression around the elbow is beneath the aponeurotic attachment of the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris, known as Osborne's ligament or the cubital tunnel retinaculum. Other potential compression sites include the arcade of Struthers, the medial intermuscular septum, and the deep flexor-pronator aponeurosis.

Question 9

A patient presents with weakness in wrist extension and altered sensation over the dorsal web space between the thumb and index finger, consistent with a C6 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, the C6 nerve root exits through which neural foramen?





Explanation

In the cervical spine, there are 8 cervical nerve roots but only 7 cervical vertebrae. Nerves C1 through C7 exit ABOVE their correspondingly numbered vertebrae (e.g., the C6 nerve root exits through the foramen between C5 and C6). The C8 nerve root exits between C7 and T1, and all subsequent spinal nerves exit BELOW their correspondingly numbered vertebrae.

Question 10

A 24-year-old marathon runner develops severe lateral and posterior leg pain, concerning for exertional compartment syndrome. Which of the following structures is exclusively located within the deep posterior compartment of the leg?





Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and the posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve. The soleus and plantaris are in the superficial posterior compartment. The peroneus brevis is in the lateral compartment.

Question 11

During a complicated resection of a palmar tumor, the vascular supply of the hand is meticulously dissected. The deep palmar arch is primarily formed by the terminal continuation of which artery?





Explanation

The deep palmar arch is primarily formed by the terminal continuation of the radial artery, which anastomoses with the deep palmar branch of the ulnar artery. Conversely, the superficial palmar arch is primarily formed by the continuation of the ulnar artery, anastomosing with the superficial palmar branch of the radial artery.

Question 12

During a midfoot surgical approach, the surgeon identifies the 'Master Knot of Henry' on the plantar aspect of the foot. At this location, what is the specific anatomical relationship between the traversing long flexor tendons?





Explanation

The Master Knot of Henry is an important anatomic landmark located on the plantar aspect of the midfoot at the level of the navicular. Here, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon. It is a critical site of potential tendon tethering or tenosynovitis.

Question 13

A saphenous nerve block is planned within the adductor (Hunter's) canal for post-operative analgesia following knee surgery. Besides the superficial femoral artery and vein, what other structures travel through the adductor canal?





Explanation

The adductor canal (Hunter's canal) begins at the apex of the femoral triangle and ends at the adductor hiatus. Its contents include the superficial femoral artery, superficial femoral vein, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to the vastus medialis. The main femoral nerve has already arborized proximally in the femoral triangle.

Question 14

To anatomically reconstruct the posterolateral corner of the knee, understanding the spatial relationship on the lateral femoral epicondyle is critical. What is the relative position of the origin of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) compared to the popliteus tendon insertion?





Explanation

On the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle, the origin of the fibular collateral ligament (LCL) is located proximal (superior) and posterior to the insertion footprint of the popliteus tendon. An easy way to remember this is that the popliteus is anterior and distal to the FCL origin.

Question 15

A 65-year-old woman sustains a displaced, non-operatively managed distal radius fracture. Eight weeks later, she presents with inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint, secondary to tendon rupture around Lister's tubercle. In which extensor compartment does this ruptured tendon normally travel?





Explanation

The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon travels in the third extensor compartment of the wrist. It courses around Lister's tubercle, which acts as a fulcrum. The EPL is particularly prone to attritional rupture following distal radius fractures, both operatively and non-operatively managed, due to vascular compromise or mechanical friction.

Question 16

The stability of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is dependent on several ligamentous structures. Which of the following ligaments provides the greatest contribution to the strength of the syndesmotic complex?





Explanation

Biomechanical studies (e.g., Ogilvie-Harris) demonstrate that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) provides the greatest strength to the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis, contributing approximately 42% of the overall stability. The AITFL contributes ~35%, and the interosseous ligament provides ~22%.

Question 17

Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a well-known complication of proximal pole scaphoid fractures. The primary intraosseous blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid enters the bone at which anatomical location?





Explanation

The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from branches of the radial artery that enter along the dorsal ridge (distal to the waist) and travel in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole. Because of this retrograde flow, fractures at the waist or proximal pole highly compromise the blood supply to the proximal segment, predisposing it to nonunion and AVN.

Question 18

A 35-year-old carpenter suffers a deep laceration at the level of the proximal carpal tunnel, completely transecting the median nerve. Which of the following intrinsic muscles of the hand would lose its innervation as a direct result?





Explanation

The median nerve provides motor innervation to the 'LOAF' muscles of the hand: the radial two Lumbricals, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and the superficial head of the Flexor pollicis brevis. The adductor pollicis, interossei, and the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Question 19

Meniscal tears are a common knee pathology. In basic science review of meniscal anatomy, which of the following statements is true regarding the medial meniscus compared to the lateral meniscus?





Explanation

The medial meniscus is larger, more 'C'-shaped (semilunar), less mobile, and covers less of the medial tibial plateau surface area compared to the lateral meniscus (which is more 'O'-shaped and covers more of the lateral plateau). The medial meniscus is firmly anchored to the joint capsule and the deep medial collateral ligament, restricting its mobility and making it more prone to injury.

Question 20

The coracoacromial arch is an important anatomical restraint that prevents superior translation of the humeral head and is often implicated in subacromial impingement syndrome. The coracoacromial ligament attaches to which two osseous structures?





Explanation

The coracoacromial ligament forms the roof of the subacromial space. It attaches medially to the lateral border of the coracoid process and laterally to the anterior undersurface of the acromion. Thickening of this ligament or acromial osteophytes can lead to impingement of the underlying rotator cuff.

Question 21

An orthopedic surgeon is performing a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau. To adequately expose the joint, the fibular collateral ligament may need to be visualized. What nerve is most at risk during the distal extent of this exposure, and where does it typically cross the fibula?





Explanation

The common peroneal nerve travels posterior to the biceps femoris and wraps around the fibular neck, placing it at high risk during posterolateral knee approaches.

Question 22

During a standard ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, the surgeon is working in the middle window. Which of the following neurovascular structures is primarily found in this window?





Explanation

The ilioinguinal approach has three windows. The middle window, located between the iliopectineal fascia and the conjoint tendon, contains the external iliac artery and vein.

Question 23

A 35-year-old male sustains a midshaft humerus fracture and develops a secondary radial nerve palsy after closed reduction. If the surgeon decides to explore the nerve via a posterior approach, between which two muscle bellies does the radial nerve most reliably emerge from the spiral groove?





Explanation

In the posterior approach to the humerus, the radial nerve is found in the spiral groove between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps. The long head is medial to the nerve.

Question 24

When reviewing an MRI for a patient with suprascapular neuropathy, a cyst is identified at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely associated with compression at this specific anatomical location?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. A cyst exclusively at the spinoglenoid notch causes isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 25

While performing an extended volar approach to the radiocarpal joint (Henry approach), the surgeon retracts the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon. To minimize the risk of injury to the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve (PCBMN), in which direction should the FCR tendon be retracted and where does the PCBMN typically lie?





Explanation

The PCBMN typically arises 5 cm proximal to the wrist crease and travels on the ulnar side of the FCR. Retracting the FCR ulnarly protects the nerve during the volar approach.

Question 26

During a lateral approach to the fibula for a distal third fracture, a surgeon must be careful to avoid the superficial peroneal nerve. Where does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the deep fascia of the lateral compartment approximately 10-12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus to become subcutaneous.

Question 27

You are reviewing axial CT imaging of the upper extremity. In the proximal forearm, the median nerve passes between the two heads of the pronator teres. Which of the following structures passes between the ulnar and humeral heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)?





Explanation

The ulnar nerve enters the forearm by passing between the humeral and ulnar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris, forming the roof of the cubital tunnel known as Osborne's fascia.

Question 28

When examining an axial T1-weighted MRI of the lumbar spine at the L4-L5 disc level, which nerve root is typically located within the lateral recess and is most susceptible to compression from a paracentral disc herniation at this level?





Explanation

At the L4-L5 level, a paracentral disc herniation typically compresses the traversing L5 nerve root in the lateral recess. A far lateral herniation at the same level would compress the exiting L4 root.

Question 29

A surgeon is utilizing the Smith-Petersen approach to the hip. This approach exploits an internervous plane between which of the following muscles superficially?





Explanation

The superficial internervous plane in the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip lies between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 30

You are evaluating an axial cervical spine MRI of a 45-year-old male with neck pain.

Which structure is located immediately anterior to the normal exiting C6 nerve root as it passes through the intervertebral foramen?





Explanation

In the cervical spine, the vertebral artery runs through the transverse foramina anterior to the exiting nerve roots. The superior articular process and ligamentum flavum form the posterior border of the foramen.

Question 31

A 24-year-old overhead athlete presents with painless weakness of external shoulder rotation. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst causing compression at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following represents the expected clinical and anatomical findings?





Explanation

The suprascapular nerve gives off its motor branch to the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch therefore causes isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy, without sensory deficits.

Question 32

A surgeon is planning a lateral collateral ligament (LCL) reconstruction for a patient with severe posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow.

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL), the primary restraint to PLRI, originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?





Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary isometric stabilizer against PLRI. It originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.

Question 33

During open reduction and internal fixation of a scaphoid nonunion via a dorsal approach, the surgeon must carefully preserve the blood supply to the proximal pole. What is the primary arterial supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, originating from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery which enters the dorsal ridge. This retrograde flow makes the proximal pole highly susceptible to avascular necrosis after fractures.

Question 34

A 32-year-old carpenter suffers a deep penetrating injury to the mid-palm, resulting in pulsatile bleeding. Surgical exploration reveals a lacerated deep palmar arch. This vascular structure is primarily formed by the terminal continuation of which of the following?





Explanation

The deep palmar arch is primarily formed by the terminal continuation of the radial artery, which anastomoses with the deep palmar branch of the ulnar artery. In contrast, the superficial palmar arch is primarily formed by the ulnar artery.

Question 35

An axial MRI of the proximal forearm is reviewed to plan for a volar approach. The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) and artery are identified. Which two muscle bellies directly border the AIN as it courses distally through the mid-forearm?





Explanation

The AIN courses distally in the anterior forearm running on the interosseous membrane. It is bordered by the flexor pollicis longus (radially) and the flexor digitorum profundus (ulnarly) before terminating deep to the pronator quadratus.

Question 36

Reviewing an axial T1 MRI of the mid-thigh, you identify the neurovascular structures within the adductor (Hunter's) canal. What muscle forms the anterolateral boundary of this space?





Explanation

The adductor canal is bounded anterolaterally by the vastus medialis, posteriorly by the adductor longus and magnus, and anteromedially (the roof) by the sartorius. It contains the superficial femoral artery, femoral vein, saphenous nerve, and the nerve to the vastus medialis.

Question 37

A cervical spine CT angiogram is ordered for a patient with a facet dislocation. The radiologist traces the vertebral artery. In a normal anatomic variant, the vertebral artery typically first enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?





Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at the level of C6 in about 90% of individuals. It rarely enters at C7, which instead typically transmits the accessory vertebral vein.

Question 38

An MRI of the shoulder demonstrates a paralabral cyst at the suprascapular notch, causing nerve compression. What is the normal anatomic relationship of the suprascapular nerve and artery to the superior transverse scapular ligament?





Explanation

At the suprascapular notch, the suprascapular artery passes superior to (over) the superior transverse scapular ligament, while the suprascapular nerve passes inferior to (under) the ligament. The mnemonic 'Army goes over the bridge, Navy goes under' is classically used.

Question 39

A trauma patient is evaluated with a pelvic radiograph series after a fall from a height. On an iliac oblique radiograph (Judet view), which two osseous structures of the acetabulum are best profiled?





Explanation

The iliac oblique view is obtained with the patient rotated 45 degrees toward the uninjured side. This view best profiles the posterior column and the anterior wall of the acetabulum.

Question 40

A coronal MRI of the knee is reviewed prior to posterolateral corner reconstruction.

What is the precise femoral attachment site of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) relative to the popliteus tendon insertion?





Explanation

On the lateral femoral epicondyle, the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) attaches proximal and posterior to the insertion of the popliteus tendon. This relationship is critical for anatomical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner.

Question 41

An axial MRI of the ankle at the level of the medial malleolus demonstrates the contents of the tarsal tunnel. From anterior to posterior, the posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve are located between which two tendons?





Explanation

The structures passing posterior to the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus (Tom, Dick, AND Very Nervous Harry). The neurovascular bundle lies between the FDL and FHL.

Question 42

During a pre-operative imaging review for a severe cubital tunnel syndrome extending into the wrist, an axial MRI highlights Guyon's canal. Which structure forms the floor of this anatomic tunnel?





Explanation

Guyon's canal contains the ulnar nerve and artery. Its roof is formed by the palmar carpal ligament, and its floor is formed by the transverse carpal ligament and the pisohamate ligament.

Question 43

While executing a deltopectoral approach for a total shoulder arthroplasty, the coracobrachialis is retracted.

To avoid iatrogenic injury, the surgeon must remember that the musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis at what average distance distal to the coracoid process?





Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle at an average distance of 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Aggressive distal retraction of the conjoined tendon can cause neuropraxia.

Question 44

An MRI of the hip reveals an intra-articular mass requiring a surgical dislocation via a posterior approach. To protect the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA), the tendon of which muscle must be preserved or carefully handled?





Explanation

The profound branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) runs posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the short external rotators. Preserving the obturator externus tendon helps protect the main blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 45

When planning an anterolateral approach to the distal humerus, an MRI shows the radial nerve piercing the lateral intermuscular septum. At what average distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does this anatomically occur?





Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment of the arm at approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle.

Question 46

An axial T2 MRI of the L4-L5 level shows a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation.

Which nerve root is most likely compressed, and what is the primary expected clinical motor deficit?





Explanation

A far lateral disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, unlike a paracentral herniation which affects the traversing L5 root. L4 compression leads to quadriceps weakness (weak knee extension) and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 47

An axial CT of a distal tibia pilon fracture demonstrates a classic 3-part articular fragment pattern. The anterolateral (Tillaux-Chaput) fragment is avulsed by its attachment to which critical ligament?





Explanation

The anterolateral fragment of the distal tibia (Tillaux-Chaput fragment) represents an avulsion of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). The posterolateral fragment (Volkmann) is associated with the PITFL.

Question 48

In a coronal MRI of the brachial plexus evaluating a traction injury, the posterior cord is visualized. Which of the following is a direct terminal branch of the posterior cord?





Explanation

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to the upper subscapular, thoracodorsal, and lower subscapular nerves, before bifurcating into its terminal branches: the axillary and radial nerves.

Question 49

A sagittal MRI of the knee highlights the meniscofemoral ligaments originating from the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus.

The ligament of Wrisberg passes in what anatomical relationship to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?





Explanation

The meniscofemoral ligaments attach the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey passes anterior to the PCL, whereas the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the PCL.

Question 50

During a modified Stoppa approach for an acetabular fracture, an aberrant vascular anastomosis termed the 'corona mortis' is encountered over the superior pubic ramus. This structure connects which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis ('crown of death') is an anastomosis between the obturator vessels (internal iliac system) and the inferior epigastric vessels (external iliac system). It is vulnerable to severe bleeding during intrapelvic approaches if not properly identified and ligated.

Question 51

A sagittal oblique MRI of the shoulder demonstrates the boundaries of the rotator interval.

Which of the following structures is NOT considered a standard component within the rotator interval?





Explanation

The rotator interval is bounded by the supraspinatus superiorly, subscapularis inferiorly, and the coracoid process medially. Its contents include the long head of the biceps tendon, coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, and the joint capsule. The IGHL is not a part of this interval.

Question 52

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach to the acetabulum does not utilize a true internervous plane. What is the primary innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle, which is split during the superficial dissection of this approach?





Explanation

The gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve. The Kocher-Langenbeck approach utilizes a muscle-splitting incision through the gluteus maximus rather than a true internervous plane.

Question 53

A surgeon is performing an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia. Which nerve is most at risk during the superficial dissection, and what compartment of the leg does it primarily motor innervate?





Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve lies in the operative field during the anterolateral approach to the ankle and distal tibia. It provides motor innervation to the peroneus longus and brevis in the lateral compartment.

Question 54



When performing a posterior approach to the humerus, the radial nerve must be identified and protected. Approximately how far proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum?





Explanation

The radial nerve passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This is a critical landmark during the posterior approach.

Question 55



In the anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), the superficial internervous plane lies between two muscles. What are the respective innervations of these two muscles?





Explanation

The superficial plane of the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). This provides a safe, true internervous plane.

Question 56

In a patient undergoing an MRI for quadrilateral space syndrome, which vascular structure is typically compressed alongside the axillary nerve?





Explanation

The quadrangular space contains the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery. Compression in this space leads to quadrilateral space syndrome, characterized by axillary neuropathy and vascular compromise.

Question 57

On an axial MRI of the mid-calf, a soft tissue sarcoma is identified strictly confined within the deep posterior compartment. Which nerve runs in this compartment, and what is its primary sensory distribution?





Explanation

The tibial nerve descends through the deep posterior compartment of the leg alongside the posterior tibial vessels. It provides sensory innervation to the plantar aspect of the foot via the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

Question 58

Reviewing an axial MRI of the shoulder, you identify a retracted full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. What is the dual motor innervation of this muscle?





Explanation

The subscapularis is uniquely innervated by both the upper and lower subscapular nerves, which originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. The lower subscapular nerve also innervates the teres major.

Question 59

When planning pedicle screw placement in the lumbar spine, standard anatomic landmarks are utilized. The optimal starting point for an L4 pedicle screw is located at the intersection of the pars interarticularis, the midpoint of the transverse process, and what other bony landmark?





Explanation

In the lumbar spine, the entry point for a pedicle screw is typically at the intersection of a vertical line through the lateral border of the superior articular facet and a horizontal line bisecting the transverse process.

Question 60

A patient presents with a suspected anterior column acetabular fracture. Which standard radiographic view best profiles the anterior column of the acetabulum and the posterior edge of the iliac wing?





Explanation

The Judet iliac oblique view profiles the anterior column and the posterior wall of the acetabulum. The obturator oblique view profiles the posterior column and the anterior wall.

Question 61

In evaluating an axial MRI of the wrist for ulnar tunnel syndrome, which anatomical structure serves as the floor of Guyon's canal?





Explanation

The floor of Guyon's canal is formed by the transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum) and the pisohamate ligament. The roof is formed by the volar carpal ligament (palmar carpal ligament).

Question 62



During harvest of a hamstring autograft, the pes anserinus is exposed via an anteromedial tibial incision. From anterior to posterior, what is the correct order of the tendinous insertions?





Explanation

The mnemonic 'Say Grace before Tea' dictates the anterior-to-posterior orientation of the pes anserinus: Sartorius, Gracilis, and Semitendinosus.

Question 63

In the anterior approach to the lower cervical spine (Smith-Robinson), why is a left-sided approach theoretically preferred by many surgeons regarding cranial nerve safety?





Explanation

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops beneath the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the subclavian artery and often crosses the surgical field obliquely, increasing its vulnerability.

Question 64

During an in situ decompression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, the surgeon must release a distinct fascial band that bridges the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon. What is the name of this structure?





Explanation

Osborne's ligament forms the roof of the cubital tunnel proper, spanning between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon. The Arcade of Struthers is a more proximal fascial structure.

Question 65

On an axial MRI of the distal third of the thigh, multiple hamstring muscles are visualized. Which of these muscles is uniquely innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve?





Explanation

The short head of the biceps femoris is the only muscle in the posterior compartment of the thigh innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve. The others are innervated by the tibial division.

Question 66



A deep laceration to the palm severs the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve. This injury will result in direct denervation of which of the following lumbrical muscles?





Explanation

The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are innervated by the median nerve, while the 3rd and 4th lumbricals are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. Loss of ulnar nerve motor function results in clawing of the ring and small fingers.

Question 67

Reviewing a sagittal MRI of the knee, the normal anatomy of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is best visualized. Which bundle of the PCL becomes tightest as the knee goes into deep flexion?





Explanation

The PCL consists of two primary bundles. The larger anterolateral bundle tightens in flexion, while the smaller posteromedial bundle tightens in extension.

Question 68

The deltopectoral approach utilizes a true internervous plane to access the anterior shoulder. What are the respective innervations of the two muscles that define this plane?





Explanation

The deltopectoral interval lies between the deltoid (axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (medial and lateral pectoral nerves). This creates a safe internervous surgical corridor.

Question 69



In an axial MRI evaluating tarsal tunnel syndrome, the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle is situated between the tendons of which two muscles at the level of the medial malleolus?





Explanation

From anterior to posterior behind the medial malleolus, the order is Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Artery, Vein, Nerve, Flexor hallucis longus (Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry). Thus, the bundle lies between the FDL and FHL.

None

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