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Master Diagnosis: Shoulder & Elbow Cases (Reproduced with Permission)

How to Answer a Shoulder Oral Examination Question

20 Jun 2026 75 min read 127 Views
Shoulder and elbow structured oral examination question2

Key Takeaway

This article provides essential research regarding How to Answer a Shoulder Oral Examination Question. Answering an oral examination question shoulder scenario involving a 76-year-old patient with prior anterior dislocation and ongoing overhead difficulties suggests rotator cuff pathology. Given internal rotation weakness, a subscapularis tear is suspected. When MRI is contraindicated due to claustrophobia, an ultrasound examination can effectively diagnose the subscapularis tear, with findings like proximal tendon migration, guiding appropriate surgical or non-surgical management.

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FRCS Masterclass: Clinical Viva

Interactive Examiner Scenario • Test your knowledge before revealing the answers.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

A 65-year-old patient presents with chronic, progressive shoulder pain and weakness, particularly with overhead tasks. On examination, they have an active forward elevation of 80 degrees, but their passive range is preserved. You suspect a massive rotator cuff tear. Below is their baseline AP radiograph.

Clinical Image
AP Radiograph of the Shoulder

Candidate: "I note superior migration of the humeral head, indicating a massive rotator cuff tear. I would assess for cuff tear arthropathy, look for the 'Hamada' grade, and discuss the options of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty given the patient's age and loss of active elevation."

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Failing to mention the acromio-humeral interval (AHI) distance specifically, ignoring the presence of subchondral changes or 'acetabularization' of the acromion, or suggesting a standard anatomic total shoulder replacement (TSA), which is contraindicated in the presence of a non-functional rotator cuff.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate systematically identifies: 1. Pathology: Superior migration of the humeral head (AHI < 7mm) consistent with cuff tear arthropathy. 2. Classification: Utilizing the Hamada classification (Grade 3 or 4). 3. Assessment: Confirming pseudoparalysis on physical exam. 4. Management: Proposing Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) as the Gold Standard, explaining it medializes the center of rotation and exploits the deltoid muscle as the primary elevator, bypassing the irreparable cuff.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

Following up on the previous case, the patient is concerned about the specific risks of the proposed Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty. How do you counsel them regarding the complication profile compared to a standard TSA?

Candidate: "RTSA carries specific risks including scapular notching, higher rates of dislocation compared to standard arthroplasty, and potential for nerve injury. I would explain that these are traded for the benefit of restored active elevation."

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Providing an exhaustive list of every surgical complication (infection, DVT) while failing to highlight the unique complications of the reverse design (notching, baseplate loosening, and instability).

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate focuses on the "Big Three" unique to RTSA: 1. Scapular Notching: Due to impingement of the polyethylene cup on the inferior scapular neck; reduced by distalizing/inferiorizing the baseplate. 2. Instability: Often related to soft tissue tensioning (the most common cause for early revision). 3. Glenoid Baseplate Failure: Increased shear forces at the glenoid-implant interface. The candidate balances this with the high patient-reported outcome success rate regarding functional restoration.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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