Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 39

A pediatrician refers a child to your clinic with an upper respiratory infection and neck pain associated with limitation of motion of the neck in all directions. A cervical CT scan, with reconstruction is shown in the diagram below. Your most likely diagnosis would be:

A 7 year old boy presents to your clinic having lordosis, with a short trunk and Hamstring tightness. Your most likely diagnosis at first site, would be:

The most common site for a unicameral bone cyst (solitary bone cyst) to occur, would be in:

A primary malignant lesion of bone that is often confused with an aneurysmal bone cyst, would be:

A malignant primary tumor of bone that is frequently the result of a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22, would be:

The most common location for a simple ganglion to occur, would be:

The main composition of the liquid within a ganglion, is:

A 26-year-old man falls off a motorcycle and injures his left wrist. There are no open wounds and the neurovascular examination is normal. Radiographs are shown in Figure below. Definitive management should consist of:

A 32-year-old man has an open comminuted humeral shaft fracture. Examination reveals absence of sensation in the first web space and he is unable to fully extend the thumb, fingers, and wrist. What is the recommended treatment following irrigation and debridement of the fracture?

A 7-year-old boy is seen in the emergency department with an isolated and displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus with absent radial and ulnar pulses. Despite a moderately painful attempt of reduction in the ER, examination reveals that his hand remains pulseless. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

The ossification center of the capitellum first appears at:

The ossification center of the radial head first appears at:

The ossification center of the medial epicondyle first appears at:

The ossification center of the trochlea first appears at:

The ossification center of the olecranon first appears at:

The number of compartments present in the foot is controversial. The most acceptable number of compartments would be:

On operating on a olecranon fracture, while using pinning and wiring to reduce the fragment, the k wire passed through the anterior and proximal cortex of the ulnar bone for a distance of 1 cm. Which of the following nerves would most likely be injured:

Which type of malunion is most common to occur, following a distal fracture of the shaft of the humerus, when treated conservatively:

Following anterior cervical spinal surgery, a patient is noted to have poor wound healing with suggestive signs of infection. In addition he was noted to have an anterior neck mass and significant dysphagia. Your most likely diagnosis would be:

The highest incidence of cervical degeneration would be at which of the following levels listed below:

All the following are predisposing factors to cervical disc degeneration, except:

Which of the following is not included in the cervical disc degeneration cycle:

Central cervical stenosis is when the canal diameter is equal or less than:

MRI axial imaging is the modality of choice and gives needed information on the status of the soft tissues. It may show all of the following statements with the exception of:

A significant risk arising, following a discography in the cervical spine, would be:

Forward subluxation (intersegmental instability) of vertebral body in the lumbar spine is allowed by all except:

A degenerative slip at L4/5 will affect which of the following nerve roots as it is compressed in the foramen:

Weakness to quadriceps best seen with sit to stand exam maneuver, weakness to ankle dorsiflexion, best seen with heel-walk exam maneuver, decreased patellar reflex are all the result of which of the following nerves when compressed:

Weakness to ankle dorsiflexion, best seen with heel-walk exam maneuver, weakness to EHL (great toe extension), weakness to gluteus medius function is best seen secondary to compression of which of the following nerves:

Neurologic complications resulting from surgery on the lumbar spine while in the prone position, would be:

Which of the following arteries located in the cervical region, when compressed causes a cervical myelopathy:

Which of the following does not apply to the Nurrich classification on cervical myelopathy:

On comparing patellar tendon (bone-tendon-bone [BTB]) autograft, quadrupled hamstring tendon autograft, and double-bundle reconstruction using hamstring autograft revealed: a. There was no significant difference in patient-reported quality-of-life (Anterior Cruciate Ligament-Quality of Life [ACL-QOL]) score at 5 years between any of the reconstruction groups b. There was a significant difference in patient-reported quality-of-life (Anterior Cruciate Ligament-Quality of Life [ACL-QOL]) score at 5 years between any of the reconstruction groups c. Revealed a significant difference in patient-reported quality-of-life (Anterior Cruciate Ligament-Quality of Life [ACL-QOL]) score at 5 years between BTBG autograft and Double Hamsting bundle autograft any of the reconstruction groups d. Revealed a significant improvement of quadrupled 4 bundle autograft over all other techniques e. All depended on the technique and experience of the surgeon

The rupture rate (reinjuries) on comparing the BTBG (autograft) to both the hamstring tendon group was: a. The same b. Higher c. Less d. No difference e. The same with quadruple bundle autograft but less than the double bundled autograft group

Which of the following ACL substituting techniques is associated with more knee pain:- a. Quadruple strand Hamstring autograft b. Double strand Hamstring autograft c. BTBG (autograft) d. No difference between either

A meta-analysis of previously performed RCTs (randomized control study) was performed to assess whether early ACL reconstruction leads to more complications in early surgery compared with delayed surgery revealed:- a. More Motion loss in Early surgery b. Arthrofibrosis is significantly higher in early surgery c. Risk of retear in early surgery d. Instrumented laxity in early surgery e. No significant difference

Spinal TB affects which region of the vertebra most: a. Vertebral body b. Laminae c. Spinous process d. Pedicle e. Facet joints

The incidence of skip lesions in Mycobacterium Tuberculosis of the spine would be: a. 2% b. 7% c. 15% d. 20% e. 35%

In which condition does this cell shown in the figure below exist in a microscopic field: a. Candida Albicans b. Blastomycosis c. Actinomycosis d. Tuberculosis e. All of the above

Which of the following tests would provide the best and earliest diagnosis of tuberculosis of the spine: a. Blood culture b. Mantoux test c. Acid fast stain d. Molecular test e. None of the above

Which of the following tests can differentiate between living and dead organisms and can be a predictor of the activity of the disease:- a. Blood culture b. Mantoux test c. Acid fast stain d. Molecular test e. None of the above

Which of the following tests are based on the nucleic acid amplification of the M. tuberculosis bacilli using polymerase chain reaction (PCR) followed by its detection using certain markers in its genetic material- a. The cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT) b. Blood culture c. Mantoux test d. Acid fast stain e. None of the above

Which of the following tests is based on reverse hybridization of DNA to identify members of M. tuberculosis and simultaneously to identify strains with resistance to both rifampicin and isoniazid by detecting the most common single nucleotide polymorphism after DNA extraction and PCR amplification a. The cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT) b. Blood culture c. LPA d. Mantoux test e. Acid fast stain

A test that detects first-line drug resistance, especially in smear-positive specimens in Tuberculosis, would be: a. The cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test (CBNAAT) b. Blood culture c. LPA d. Mantoux test e. Acid fast stain

Which of the following Disc disease in a forty year old male is resorbed first: a. Protruded disc b. Central disc protrusion c. Sequestrated disc d. Foraminal disc e. Extraforaminal disc

The most likely cause of back pain following a extruded disc would be from: a. Pressure on the nerve b. Irritation of the nociceptive sinuvertebral nerve fibers c. Narrowing of the spinal canal d. Inflammatory response in response to the rupture disc e. None of the above

What is the minimal acceptable shortening of a tibial fracture in a toddler: a. 1cm b. 1.5cms c. 2cms d. 2.5cms e. 3cms

A fracture in a child involving both the tibia and fibula would most likely result in what type of deformity: a. Varus b. Valgus c. Anterior angulation d. Posterior angulation e. Rotation

Which muscles are most likely to be the cause of the deformity in question 17 ie following a fracture of the midshaft of the tibia and fibula: a. The anterior and lateral compartments of the lower leg b. The upper lateral compartment muscles c. The posterior compartment muscles d. The deep compartment muscles of the leg e. The pull of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum and halluces longus muscles

In younger children, diaphyseal tibia fractures typically occur as a result of: a. Torsional forces b. Abduction directed forces c. Adduction directed forces d. Forced extension forces e. Forced flexion forces