Full Question & Answer Text (for Search Engines)
Question 1:
A 6-year-old boy presents with a Gartland type III supracondylar humerus fracture. On initial presentation, his hand is 'pink and pulseless', with brisk capillary refill but an absent radial pulse. He is taken immediately to the operating room for closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. Post-operatively in the recovery room, his hand remains pink with brisk capillary refill, but the radial pulse remains absent. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Options:
- Immediate removal of the pins and open reduction
- Perform a CT angiogram of the upper extremity
- Vascular exploration of the brachial artery
- Admission, elevation, and close clinical observation
- Prophylactic fasciotomies of the forearm
Correct Answer: Admission, elevation, and close clinical observation
Explanation:
The management of a 'pink, pulseless' hand following a well-reduced and pinned pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture is admission and close clinical observation. Studies show that perfusion is adequate due to collateral circulation, and the radial pulse often returns within a few days as vasospasm resolves. Vascular exploration is strictly indicated if the hand becomes 'white and pulseless' (ischemic) after reduction.
Question 2:
A 45-year-old active man who underwent a total hip arthroplasty (THA) with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing 2 years ago presents complaining of an audible, high-pitched squeak from his hip when he bends to tie his shoes. Radiographs reveal an acetabular cup inclination angle of 60 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism responsible for this squeaking?
Options:
- Third-body wear from retained cement debris
- Cold flow of the articular bearing surface
- Stripe wear from edge loading of the ceramic liner
- Trunnionosis at the head-neck junction
- Impingement of the anterior capsule against the femoral neck
Correct Answer: Stripe wear from edge loading of the ceramic liner
Explanation:
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular inclination or anteversion. This steep positioning leads to 'edge loading,' where the femoral head articulates with the rim of the ceramic liner. This concentrates stress, disrupts fluid-film lubrication, and causes 'stripe wear' on the ceramic head, generating the characteristic audible squeak.
Question 3:
A 14-year-old girl is undergoing a posterior spinal fusion for a Lenke type 1A adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. During the rod rotation maneuver, motor evoked potentials (MEPs) drop by 80% bilaterally in the lower extremities, while somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain at baseline. The anesthesiologist confirms that the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is currently 90 mmHg and no paralytics have been administered. What is the most appropriate immediate surgical step?
Options:
- Administer high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
- Release all corrective forces and remove the rods
- Perform an immediate Stagnara wake-up test
- Wait 15 minutes to allow for neurological accommodation
- Perform a rapid multi-level laminectomy for decompression
Correct Answer: Release all corrective forces and remove the rods
Explanation:
An isolated drop in MEPs indicates anterior spinal cord (motor tract) compromise. The standard protocol for intraoperative neuromonitoring changes is to first rule out anesthetic causes and optimize hemodynamics (maintaining MAP > 85 mmHg). Since the MAP is already optimized and no paralytics were given, the most appropriate immediate surgical step is to undo the mechanical maneuver that caused the deficit, which involves releasing corrective forces and removing the rods.
Question 4:
A 25-year-old man presents with a symptomatic proximal pole scaphoid non-union and is scheduled for structural bone grafting. The high rate of osteonecrosis in the proximal pole is due to its precarious blood supply. The primary vascular supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid is derived from which of the following?
Options:
- Palmar carpal branch of the radial artery
- Superficial palmar arch
- Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
- Anterior interosseous artery
- Ulnar artery via the deep palmar arch
Correct Answer: Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation:
The scaphoid is supplied primarily by the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This vessel enters the scaphoid at the non-articular dorsal ridge and supplies the proximal 80% of the bone via retrograde flow. Fractures through the waist or proximal pole easily disrupt this retrograde supply, leading to a high rate of avascular necrosis and non-union.
Question 5:
A 22-year-old collegiate football player presents with midfoot pain after another player fell on his heel while his foot was plantarflexed. Physical examination reveals plantar ecchymosis. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate 2 mm of widening between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal bases. Anatomically, the native Lisfranc ligament connects which of the following two structures?
Options:
- Medial cuneiform to the base of the 1st metatarsal
- Medial cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal
- Middle cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal
- Lateral cuneiform to the base of the 3rd metatarsal
- Cuboid to the base of the 4th metatarsal
Correct Answer: Medial cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal
Explanation:
The Lisfranc ligament is a critical, stout interosseous ligament that runs from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. It provides primary stability to the tarsometatarsal joint complex. There is notably no direct ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals, making this interval vulnerable to disruption.
Question 6:
During the process of endochondral ossification, growth plate chondrocytes undergo a period of hypertrophy before programmed cell death and subsequent vascular invasion. Which of the following collagen types is predominantly and specifically synthesized by these hypertrophic chondrocytes to facilitate matrix mineralization?
Options:
- Type I
- Type II
- Type IX
- Type X
- Type XI
Correct Answer: Type X
Explanation:
Type X collagen is the specific biochemical marker for hypertrophic chondrocytes in the growth plate during endochondral ossification. It is essential for tissue calcification and matrix degradation, preparing the scaffold for vascular invasion and subsequent replacement by primary woven bone (which is predominantly Type I collagen).
Question 7:
A 30-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He is discussing graft options with his surgeon, specifically comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft and hamstring autograft. Which of the following is an established long-term functional advantage of BPTB autograft over hamstring autograft?
Options:
- Lower incidence of post-operative kneeling pain
- Better preservation of deep knee flexion strength
- Decreased risk of developing osteoarthritis
- Lower incidence of contralateral ACL rupture
- Lower incidence of postoperative arthrofibrosis
Correct Answer: Better preservation of deep knee flexion strength
Explanation:
Hamstring autografts for ACL reconstruction are associated with a persistent deficit in deep knee flexion strength and internal rotation torque compared to the uninjured leg. BPTB autografts preserve deep knee flexion strength better, although they are associated with a higher incidence of anterior knee pain and donor-site morbidity (e.g., kneeling pain). Neither graft prevents osteoarthritis.
Question 8:
A 3-month-old infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). At the two-week follow-up, the mother reports the infant has stopped kicking her left leg. Examination reveals absent active hip and knee flexion on the left, but ankle and toe movements remain completely intact. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this presentation?
Options:
- Ischemic necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis
- Superior gluteal nerve palsy due to hyperabduction
- Femoral nerve palsy due to hyperflexion of the hip in the harness
- Sciatic nerve stretch injury
- Development of a septic hip joint
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve palsy due to hyperflexion of the hip in the harness
Explanation:
Femoral nerve palsy is a known, reversible complication of Pavlik harness treatment. It is caused by extreme hyperflexion of the hip, compressing the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament or the rim of the pelvis. The child will present with absent active knee extension and hip flexion, but preserved distal function. Treatment consists of adjusting the harness to decrease flexion or temporarily discontinuing it until function returns.
Question 9:
A 45-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay in hemorrhagic shock after a high-speed motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs demonstrate an Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC III) injury. Which of the following ligamentous complexes are completely disrupted in this specific injury pattern?
Options:
- Anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments only
- Anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
- Posterior sacroiliac and iliolumbar ligaments only
- Sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments only
- Anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments only
Correct Answer: Anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
Explanation:
An APC III injury (Young-Burgess classification) involves complete symphyseal disruption (diastasis) accompanied by complete rupture of the anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. This results in a hemipelvis that is both rotationally and vertically unstable, and it carries the highest risk of massive retroperitoneal hemorrhage among APC patterns.
Question 10:
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), after making the standard bony cuts and placing the trial components, the surgeon assesses the gaps. The knee is perfectly balanced in full extension, but the joint is overly tight and fails to reach full flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to balance this knee?
Options:
- Release the posterior capsule
- Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene insert
- Downsize the AP dimension of the femoral component
- Recut the distal femur to resect more bone
- Decrease the posterior slope of the tibial cut
Correct Answer: Downsize the AP dimension of the femoral component
Explanation:
A knee that is balanced in extension but tight in flexion requires a selective increase in the flexion gap. Downsizing the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the femoral component (when utilizing an anterior referencing system) resects more posterior condylar bone, opening the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Increasing the posterior tibial slope is another option. Releasing the posterior capsule or recutting the distal femur would improperly affect the extension gap.
Question 11:
A 24-year-old woman presents with worsening knee pain. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, lytic epiphyseal lesion extending to the subchondral bone of the distal femur. Biopsy reveals neoplastic mononuclear cells interspersed with numerous reactive multinucleated giant cells. If the tumor is deemed surgically unresectable, medical management with Denosumab is indicated. What is the precise molecular target of this medication?
Options:
- Osteoclast proton pumps
- RANK Ligand (RANKL)
- CD20 surface antigen
- Tyrosine kinase c-KIT
- Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
Correct Answer: RANK Ligand (RANKL)
Explanation:
Denosumab is an FDA-approved monoclonal antibody used to treat Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone. Its specific target is RANK Ligand (RANKL). In GCTs, the neoplastic mononuclear cells overexpress RANKL, which aggressively recruits and activates the reactive multinucleated giant cells (which are osteoclast-like) that cause the massive bone destruction seen in the disease. Blocking RANKL halts this destructive osteolytic process.
Question 12:
A 55-year-old woman requires open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced volar Barton fracture. The surgeon elects to use the standard volar Henry approach to the distal radius. Which of the following anatomical intervals is utilized during the superficial dissection of this approach?
Options:
- Between the brachioradialis and the extensor carpi radialis longus
- Between the flexor carpi radialis and the palmaris longus
- Between the flexor carpi radialis and the radial artery
- Between the flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar artery
- Between the pronator teres and the brachioradialis
Correct Answer: Between the flexor carpi radialis and the radial artery
Explanation:
The standard volar Henry approach to the distal radius and volar forearm exploits the internervous plane between the flexor carpi radialis (FCR, supplied by the median nerve) and the brachioradialis (BR, supplied by the radial nerve). Clinically, the true surgical interval developed is between the FCR tendon (retracted ulnarly) and the radial artery (retracted radially with the BR).
Question 13:
A 45-year-old man feels an acute pop in the back of his knee while performing a deep squat. MRI demonstrates a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus, with 4 mm of medial meniscal extrusion seen on the coronal sequence. Biomechanically, this specific injury is most functionally equivalent to which of the following?
Options:
- A 50% partial meniscectomy
- A peripheral longitudinal tear (red-red zone)
- A complete total meniscectomy
- An anterior horn radial tear
- A stable flap tear
Correct Answer: A complete total meniscectomy
Explanation:
A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus completely disrupts the circumferential continuity of the meniscus, nullifying its ability to generate hoop stresses under axial loading. As a result, the meniscus extrudes, and the joint loses the load-sharing capacity of the meniscus. Biomechanical studies have proven that a root tear alters contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, leading to rapid onset of osteoarthritis.
Question 14:
During fracture fixation, achieving adequate screw purchase is paramount. Which of the following structural parameters has the greatest mathematical influence on the direct pull-out strength of a cortical bone screw?
Options:
- Outer (major) diameter of the screw threads
- Inner (core) diameter of the screw
- Pitch of the screw threads
- Length of the screw head
- Thread profile angle
Correct Answer: Outer (major) diameter of the screw threads
Explanation:
The pull-out strength of a screw is mathematically defined as: F = S × L × π × D, where S is the shear strength of the bone, L is the length of thread engagement, and D is the outer (major) diameter of the screw. Therefore, increasing the outer major diameter directly and significantly increases pull-out strength. The inner (core) diameter dictates the screw's torsional strength and resistance to fatigue failure, not pull-out strength.
Question 15:
A 9-year-old girl presents with left groin pain and a limp. Examination reveals obligate external rotation of the left hip during passive flexion. Radiographs confirm a severe left slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following patient factors represents the strongest recognized indication for prophylactic in-situ pinning of her contralateral, asymptomatic right hip?
Options:
- Body Mass Index >95th percentile
- Female gender
- Underlying endocrine disorder (e.g., hypothyroidism)
- Age older than 12 years
- Presence of a positive Drehmann sign
Correct Answer: Underlying endocrine disorder (e.g., hypothyroidism)
Explanation:
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is highly indicated in patients with underlying endocrine or systemic disorders (e.g., hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, renal osteodystrophy) because they have an exceedingly high risk (up to 100%) of developing bilateral disease. Other strong indications include prior therapeutic pelvic radiation and distinctly young age at presentation (males < 10, females < 8).
Question 16:
A 28-year-old male construction worker falls from a ladder and sustains a displaced fracture of the talar neck. Radiographs demonstrate dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints. According to the Hawkins classification, what is the approximate expected rate of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the talar body for this specific injury?
Options:
- 0-10%
- 20-40%
- 40-50%
- 80-100%
- It depends solely on the time to reduction
Correct Answer: 80-100%
Explanation:
This injury is a Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture, defined by displacement of the talar neck with dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints. Because the three main sources of retrograde blood supply to the talar body (artery of the tarsal canal, deltoid branches, and artery of the sinus tarsi) are sequentially disrupted, the risk of AVN is exceptionally high, approaching 80-100%.
Question 17:
A 65-year-old man presents with deteriorating handwriting, dropping objects, and gait instability. On physical examination, tapping the brachioradialis tendon at the distal radius elicits paradoxical flexion of the fingers without the normal elbow flexion or forearm supination. This specific localizing sign is known as:
Options:
- Hoffmann's sign
- Inverted brachioradialis reflex
- Wartenberg's sign
- Finger escape sign
- Tromner's sign
Correct Answer: Inverted brachioradialis reflex
Explanation:
The inverted brachioradialis (or supinator) reflex is a highly specific sign of cervical myelopathy. It indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at the C5-C6 level (absent brachioradialis reflex) combined with an upper motor neuron lesion below that level (hyperactive finger flexors, mediated by C8-T1). It is pathognomonic for spinal cord compression at the C5-C6 level.
Question 18:
A 42-year-old weekend warrior sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture 4 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion. This area is notoriously hypovascular and often referred to as the 'watershed area' of the Achilles tendon. Which artery provides the predominant vascular supply to this specific watershed region?
Options:
- Anterior tibial artery
- Peroneal artery
- Posterior tibial artery
- Sural artery
- Lateral plantar artery
Correct Answer: Peroneal artery
Explanation:
The vascular supply to the Achilles tendon is derived from the posterior tibial and peroneal arteries. However, the classical 'watershed' hypovascular zone, located 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion, is supplied primarily by small, relatively sparse branches of the peroneal artery. This precarious blood supply makes this zone highly susceptible to degenerative changes and subsequent mechanical rupture.
Question 19:
Romosozumab is a recently FDA-approved, highly effective anabolic agent for the treatment of severe osteoporosis. It promotes massive increases in bone mineral density by binding to and inhibiting which of the following molecular targets, thereby upregulating the Wnt/β-catenin signaling pathway in osteoblasts?
Options:
- Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand (RANKL)
- Sclerostin
- Cathepsin K
- Osteoprotegerin (OPG)
- Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)
Correct Answer: Sclerostin
Explanation:
Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets and inhibits sclerostin. Sclerostin, naturally produced by osteocytes, acts as a brake on bone formation by inhibiting the Wnt/β-catenin signaling pathway in osteoblasts. By blocking sclerostin, romosozumab removes this inhibition, resulting in a potent anabolic effect with rapid bone formation, alongside a mild anti-resorptive effect.
Question 20:
A 35-year-old new mother presents with severe pain over the radial styloid. Finkelstein's test is markedly positive. After failing conservative management, she is scheduled for surgical release of the first dorsal compartment (De Quervain's tenosynovitis). Which of the following nerve branches is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury during the superficial surgical dissection of this procedure?
Options:
- Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
- Superficial branch of the radial nerve
- Dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve
- Posterior interosseous nerve
- Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Superficial branch of the radial nerve
Explanation:
The superficial branch of the radial nerve (SBRN) runs in extremely close proximity to the first dorsal compartment. It typically crosses over the extensor retinaculum just superficial to the compartment. Iatrogenic injury to this nerve during De Quervain's release is a well-known complication that can lead to a highly debilitating and painful neuroma.
Question 21:
A 55-year-old male presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a broad-based gait. Imaging reveals Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL) in the cervical spine. Which of the following radiographic findings is a relative contraindication to performing a cervical laminoplasty alone in this patient?
Options:
- K-line positive alignment
- Lordotic cervical alignment
- OPLL occupying 30% of the spinal canal
- K-line negative alignment
- Concomitant mild cervical radiculopathy
Correct Answer: K-line negative alignment
Explanation:
The K-line connects the mid-anterior posterior canal at C2 to C7. If the OPLL mass exceeds this line (K-line negative, usually implying kyphosis or a massive anterior lesion), the spinal cord will not shift posteriorly sufficient enough to decompress after laminoplasty. In K-line negative patients, an anterior decompression or a posterior instrumented fusion with deformity correction is preferred.
Question 22:
A 68-year-old female experiences recurrent posterior dislocations after a primary right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. CT imaging demonstrates the acetabular cup is placed in 45 degrees of abduction and 5 degrees of retroversion. The femoral stem is in 10 degrees of anteversion. What is the primary cause of her instability?
Options:
- Excessive cup abduction
- Excessive femoral anteversion
- Acetabular cup retroversion
- Insufficient soft tissue tension
- Impingement of the greater trochanter
Correct Answer: Acetabular cup retroversion
Explanation:
The safe zone for acetabular cup placement is historically 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 +/- 10 degrees of abduction. A retroverted cup (5 degrees retroversion) heavily predisposes the patient to posterior dislocation, particularly when combined with a posterior surgical approach.
Question 23:
Nine months after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a supracondylar femur fracture with a lateral locking plate, a 45-year-old male presents with persistent thigh pain. Radiographs reveal an intact construct with a 5 mm fracture gap and absent callus formation. What is the most likely mechanical cause of this atrophic nonunion?
Options:
- Plate placed too far anteriorly
- Construct is too flexible, promoting excessive strain
- Construct is too stiff, causing stress shielding and inadequate micromotion
- Use of a titanium rather than stainless steel plate
- Failure to use an orthogonal dual-plate construct
Correct Answer: Construct is too stiff, causing stress shielding and inadequate micromotion
Explanation:
Locking plates create a highly rigid, fixed-angle construct. If placed with an inadequate working length (screws too close to the fracture site) and a fracture gap, the construct becomes too stiff. This suppresses the micromotion necessary for secondary bone healing (callus formation), leading to an atrophic nonunion.
Question 24:
During a Zone II flexor tendon repair, preserving the biomechanical advantage of the flexor sheath is critical to maintain functional excursion and limit bowstringing. Which two pulleys are most critical to preserve or reconstruct?
Options:
- A1 and A3 pulleys
- A2 and A4 pulleys
- A1 and A5 pulleys
- A3 and C1 pulleys
- A2 and A3 pulleys
Correct Answer: A2 and A4 pulleys
Explanation:
The A2 and A4 pulleys arise from the periosteum of the proximal and middle phalanges, respectively. They are the most crucial biomechanical pulleys for preventing bowstringing of the flexor tendons and preserving the moment arm necessary for full finger flexion.
Question 25:
A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain. MRI shows an expansile, multi-cystic lesion in the distal femur metaphysis with multiple fluid-fluid levels. Core needle biopsy reveals blood-filled spaces. Which histologic feature most reliably differentiates telangiectatic osteosarcoma from an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC) in this setting?
Options:
- Presence of fluid-fluid levels on MRI
- Cellular atypia and pleomorphism in the septal stromal cells
- Presence of multinucleated giant cells
- Location of the lesion in the metaphysis
- A high presence of reactive woven bone
Correct Answer: Cellular atypia and pleomorphism in the septal stromal cells
Explanation:
Both ABCs and telangiectatic osteosarcomas can present as expansile lytic lesions with fluid-fluid levels on MRI. The key distinguishing feature is histology: telangiectatic osteosarcoma exhibits malignant, highly pleomorphic stromal cells with atypical mitoses and malignant osteoid in the septa, whereas the septa in an ABC contain benign cells.
Question 26:
In a 7-year-old boy diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, radiographs demonstrate that the lateral pillar of the femoral head maintains 65% of its original height. According to the Herring Lateral Pillar Classification, which group does this represent?
Options:
- Group A
- Group B
- Group B/C
- Group C
- Group D
Correct Answer: Group B
Explanation:
According to the Herring Lateral Pillar Classification: Group A has no loss of lateral pillar height. Group B maintains >50% lateral pillar height. Group B/C is a border group at exactly or near 50%. Group C maintains <50% lateral pillar height. 65% falls squarely into Group B.
Question 27:
The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) provides primary restraint to posterior tibial translation. During a physical examination or biomechanical testing, at which degree of knee flexion is the anterolateral (AL) bundle of the PCL most taut?
Options:
- Full extension
- 30 degrees of flexion
- 60 degrees of flexion
- 90 to 120 degrees of flexion
- 10 degrees of hyperextension
Correct Answer: 90 to 120 degrees of flexion
Explanation:
The PCL has two main bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is most taut in deep flexion (90 to 120 degrees), whereas the PM bundle is tightest in extension and deep flexion.
Question 28:
Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) initiate osteogenesis by binding to serine-threonine kinase receptors. Which intracellular signaling molecules are directly phosphorylated by the BMP receptor complex and subsequently translocate to the nucleus to regulate gene expression?
Options:
- Smad 1, 5, and 8
- Smad 2 and 3
- Smad 4
- Smad 6 and 7
- Beta-catenin
Correct Answer: Smad 1, 5, and 8
Explanation:
BMP signaling is mediated by receptor-regulated Smads 1, 5, and 8. TGF-beta and Activin signal through Smads 2 and 3. Smad 4 is a common co-Smad that binds to these activated R-Smads for nuclear translocation. Smads 6 and 7 are inhibitory.
Question 29:
A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a deformed, non-tender midfoot. Radiographs reveal coalescing bone fragments, absorption of fine bone debris, and early fusion of large fragments. According to the Eichenholtz classification of Charcot arthropathy, what stage is currently demonstrated?
Options:
- Stage 0 (High risk/Inflammation)
- Stage 1 (Developmental/Fragmentation)
- Stage 2 (Coalescence)
- Stage 3 (Reconstruction/Consolidation)
- Stage 4 (Remodeling)
Correct Answer: Stage 2 (Coalescence)
Explanation:
Eichenholtz Stage 1 involves active fragmentation, joint dislocation, and fine debris. Stage 2 (Coalescence) is marked by the absorption of fine debris, early fusion, and sclerosis of large fragments. Stage 3 (Consolidation) shows remodeling and rounding of bone ends.
Question 30:
Which of the following scenarios represents an absolute indication for operative fixation of a 'floating shoulder' (ipsilateral fractures of the clavicle and scapular neck)?
Options:
- Medial clavicle displacement of 1 cm
- Scapular neck angulation of 10 degrees
- Disruption of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC) with >1 cm glenoid medialization and 40 degrees of angular deformity
- Presence of a concomitant non-displaced ipsilateral rib fracture
- Intact coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments on MRI
Correct Answer: Disruption of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC) with >1 cm glenoid medialization and 40 degrees of angular deformity
Explanation:
A floating shoulder does not mandate surgery by default. Operative fixation is indicated when there is severe displacement threatening the Superior Shoulder Suspensory Complex (SSSC). Glenoid medialization > 1-2 cm and severe angular deformity (>40 degrees) alter glenohumeral biomechanics and rotator cuff function, warranting internal fixation.
Question 31:
A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens after walking 2 blocks. Physical examination shows absent Achilles reflexes but intact knee reflexes, with palpable pedal pulses. Which of the following historical findings most reliably differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?
Options:
- Pain relief requiring the patient to stand completely still for 5 minutes
- A decreased Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) after exercise
- Pain starting in the calves and radiating proximally
- Pain relief experienced when sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart
- Cramping pain in the buttocks with exertion
Correct Answer: Pain relief experienced when sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart
Explanation:
Neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) is classically relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., sitting or bending forward over a shopping cart), which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Vascular claudication is relieved by simply resting (standing still) and does not improve specifically with postural flexion.
Question 32:
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon performs a trial reduction and observes lateral tracking of the patella. Which of the following technical errors regarding component positioning is most likely responsible for this finding?
Options:
- Internal rotation of the femoral component
- External rotation of the tibial component
- External rotation of the femoral component
- Lateralization of the femoral component
- Medialization of the tibial tray
Correct Answer: Internal rotation of the femoral component
Explanation:
Internal rotation of the femoral and/or tibial components increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking. Conversely, appropriate external rotation of these components improves patellar tracking. Lateralization of the femoral or tibial components generally decreases the Q angle.
Question 33:
Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia (CPT) classically presents with anterolateral bowing of the tibia and subsequent fracture. Which systemic condition is most strongly associated with CPT?
Options:
- Marfan syndrome
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
- Neurofibromatosis type 1
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Achondroplasia
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1
Explanation:
Over 50% of patients with Congenital Pseudarthrosis of the Tibia (CPT) have Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1). The classic deformity is anterolateral bowing, which differs from the posteromedial bowing often seen with calcaneovalgus foot deformities, or the anterolateral bowing in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Question 34:
A patient with long-standing scaphoid nonunion presents with progressive wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate early arthritic changes characteristic of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC). Which joint is typically the first to develop degenerative changes in the SNAC progression?
Options:
- Radioscaphoid joint (specifically the radial styloid and distal scaphoid)
- Capitolunate joint
- Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid (STT) joint
- Lunotriquetral joint
- Distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)
Correct Answer: Radioscaphoid joint (specifically the radial styloid and distal scaphoid)
Explanation:
In SNAC wrist, arthritis progresses in a predictable sequence. Stage I involves the radial styloid and the distal pole of the scaphoid (radioscaphoid joint). Stage II progresses to the entire radioscaphoid joint. Stage III involves the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is characteristically spared due to a congruent spherical relationship.
Question 35:
A 12-year-old active boy complains of vague knee pain and occasional catching. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the single most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?
Options:
- Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
- Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
- Central portion of the patellar articular surface
- Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
- Weight-bearing surface of the medial tibial plateau
Correct Answer: Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation:
The classic and most common location for OCD in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, often remembered by the mnemonic LAME (Lateral Aspect Medial Epiphysis/Condyle). This accounts for approximately 70-80% of knee OCD lesions.
Question 36:
A 28-year-old male sustains a severe hyperdorsiflexion injury to the ankle. Radiographs reveal a displaced talar neck fracture with subluxation of the subtalar joint. The tibiotalar and talonavicular joints remain congruent. According to the Hawkins classification, what is the stage of this injury and its approximate associated risk of avascular necrosis (AVN)?
Options:
- Hawkins I, 0-10% AVN
- Hawkins II, 20-50% AVN
- Hawkins III, 80-100% AVN
- Hawkins IV, 100% AVN
- Hawkins II, 90-100% AVN
Correct Answer: Hawkins II, 20-50% AVN
Explanation:
Hawkins classification for talar neck fractures: Type I = non-displaced (0-10% AVN). Type II = displaced with subtalar subluxation/dislocation (20-50% AVN). Type III = displaced with subtalar and tibiotalar dislocation (~80-100% AVN). Type IV = displaced with subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular dislocation (~100% AVN).
Question 37:
Articular cartilage is a highly specialized connective tissue. While water accounts for 65-80% of its wet weight, the remaining solid matrix (dry weight) is primarily composed of collagens and proteoglycans. Which of the following best represents the approximate composition of the dry weight of adult hyaline articular cartilage?
Options:
- Type I collagen (60%), Proteoglycans (30%)
- Type II collagen (60%), Proteoglycans (30%)
- Type III collagen (50%), Proteoglycans (50%)
- Type II collagen (30%), Proteoglycans (60%)
- Type I collagen (30%), Proteoglycans (60%)
Correct Answer: Type II collagen (60%), Proteoglycans (30%)
Explanation:
The dry weight of articular cartilage consists primarily of Type II collagen (roughly 50-60%), which provides tensile strength, and proteoglycans (roughly 25-30%), predominantly aggrecan, which provides compressive stiffness by trapping water.
Question 38:
A 15-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen mass in his proximal humerus. Biopsy demonstrates uniform, small blue round cells with PAS-positive cytoplasmic glycogen. Genetic analysis is requested to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of Ewing sarcoma?
Options:
- t(11;22)(q24;q12)
- t(X;18)(p11;q11)
- t(12;16)(q13;p11)
- t(2;13)(q35;q14)
- t(9;22)(q34;q11)
Correct Answer: t(11;22)(q24;q12)
Explanation:
Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome seen in CML.
Question 39:
A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after falling off monkey bars. Radiographs demonstrate a completely displaced, extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture with no bony contact between the proximal and distal fragments. Upon closed reduction in the operating room, the surgeon notes the medial periosteal hinge is intact. According to the Gartland classification, what type of fracture is this?
Options:
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
- Type IV
- Type V
Correct Answer: Type III
Explanation:
Gartland Classification: Type I = non-displaced. Type II = displaced with intact posterior cortex. Type III = completely displaced with no cortical contact (though a medial or lateral periosteal hinge may remain intact, dictating displacement direction). Type IV = complete multidirectional instability due to complete periosteal disruption (diagnosed intraoperatively).
Question 40:
In the Young-Burgess classification, an Anteroposterior Compression (APC) Type II pelvic ring injury results in the 'open book' deformity. This is characterized by diastasis of the symphysis pubis and rupture of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. Which critical ligamentous complex remains INTACT in an APC II injury, thereby preventing vertical instability?
Options:
- Anterior sacroiliac ligaments
- Symphysis pubis ligaments
- Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
- Iliolumbar ligaments
- Sacrotuberous ligaments
Correct Answer: Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
Explanation:
An APC II injury involves disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments and pelvic floor ligaments (sacrotuberous, sacrospinous), leading to rotational instability. However, the stout posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact, providing vertical stability. If these tear, the injury becomes an APC III, which is both rotationally and vertically unstable.
Question 41:
A 65-year-old man presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years after index surgery. Joint aspiration reveals a synovial WBC count of 3,500 cells/uL with 75% PMNs. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers is most specific for diagnosing a periprosthetic joint infection by targeting an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils?
Options:
- Leukocyte esterase
- C-reactive protein
- Alpha-defensin
- Interleukin-6
- Procalcitonin
Correct Answer: Alpha-defensin
Explanation:
Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils in response to pathogens. It is highly sensitive and specific for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). Leukocyte esterase is an enzyme released by neutrophils, useful but less specific than alpha-defensin.
Question 42:
A 14-year-old boy presents with an ankle injury after falling while skateboarding. Radiographs show a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. What is the mechanism of injury and the deforming force acting on this fracture fragment?
Options:
- External rotation; Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
- Internal rotation; Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
- Inversion; Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
- External rotation; Deltoid ligament
- Plantarflexion; Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Correct Answer: External rotation; Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation:
A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. It occurs due to an external rotation force. The fragment is avulsed by the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). This happens because the distal tibial physis closes central, then medial, and finally lateral, leaving the lateral portion susceptible in adolescence.
Question 43:
A 40-year-old woman sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the generally accepted sequence of repair to best restore elbow stability?
Options:
- Radial head, coronoid, lateral collateral ligament (LCL), medial collateral ligament (MCL)
- Coronoid, LCL, radial head, MCL
- Coronoid, radial head, LCL, MCL (if needed)
- LCL, radial head, coronoid, MCL
- MCL, coronoid, radial head, LCL
Correct Answer: Coronoid, radial head, LCL, MCL (if needed)
Explanation:
The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) typically proceeds from deep to superficial and distal to proximal: Fixation or replacement of the coronoid, followed by the radial head, then repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex. The MCL is only repaired if the elbow remains grossly unstable after the lateral side is fixed.
Question 44:
A patient demonstrates increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?
Options:
- Posterolateral corner (PLC) only
- Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only
- Both PLC and PCL
- Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
- Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
Correct Answer: Posterolateral corner (PLC) only
Explanation:
The Dial test evaluates PLC and PCL injuries. Asymmetry (increased external rotation >10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates combined PLC and PCL injury.
Question 45:
A patient sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). Imaging shows angulation with minimal translation, and the fracture gap widens upon cervical traction. According to the Levine-Edwards classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is the appropriate initial management?
Options:
- Type I; rigid cervical collar
- Type II; halo vest immobilization
- Type IIA; compression in a halo vest
- Type III; immediate surgical stabilization
- Type IIA; rigid cervical collar
Correct Answer: Type IIA; compression in a halo vest
Explanation:
A Levine-Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is characterized by significant angulation with minimal translation. Traction is contraindicated as it widens the fracture gap (due to an intact anterior longitudinal ligament but disrupted posterior longitudinal ligament and disc). Management involves gentle compression and extension in a halo vest.
Question 46:
A 32-year-old female presents with a lytic, eccentrically located epiphyseal lesion in the proximal tibia. Biopsy reveals mononuclear cells and multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following is the true neoplastic cell component and its characteristic receptor expression?
Options:
- Multinucleated giant cells expressing RANKL
- Multinucleated giant cells expressing RANK
- Mononuclear stromal cells expressing RANKL
- Mononuclear stromal cells expressing RANK
- Osteoblasts expressing OPG
Correct Answer: Mononuclear stromal cells expressing RANKL
Explanation:
In a Giant Cell Tumor of bone (GCT), the true neoplastic cells are the spindle-shaped mononuclear stromal cells. These cells express RANK Ligand (RANKL), which stimulates the recruitment and differentiation of osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells (which express RANK). Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, is used to treat unresectable GCTs.
Question 47:
In a Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) pattern of wrist arthritis, which of the following joints is characteristically spared from degenerative changes even in advanced stages?
Options:
- Radioscaphoid joint
- Capitolunate joint
- Radiolunate joint
- Scaphotrapezio-trapezoidal joint
- Capitohamate joint
Correct Answer: Radiolunate joint
Explanation:
In SNAC wrist arthritis, the proximal pole of the scaphoid moves synchronously with the lunate, and the radiolunate articulation is characteristically spared. Degenerative changes progress from the radial styloid to the radioscaphoid, then the midcarpal (capitolunate) joint.
Question 48:
Which of the following ligaments provides the primary stabilization to the Lisfranc joint complex?
Options:
- Plantar ligament connecting the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
- Dorsal ligament connecting the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
- Interosseous ligament connecting the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal
- Plantar ligament connecting the lateral cuneiform to the base of the third metatarsal
- Interosseous ligament connecting the first and second metatarsal bases
Correct Answer: Interosseous ligament connecting the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation:
The Lisfranc ligament is the interosseous ligament connecting the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is the strongest and most important stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal articulation. There is no direct transverse ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals.
Question 49:
In total hip arthroplasty, the phenomenon where a hard third body (such as a bone fragment or bone cement) becomes embedded in the polyethylene liner and subsequently scratches the femoral head is best described as what type of wear?
Options:
- Adhesive wear
- Abrasive wear
- Fatigue wear
- Corrosive wear
- Fretting wear
Correct Answer: Abrasive wear
Explanation:
Abrasive wear occurs when a harder surface or particle plows into a softer surface. Third-body wear, where particles like bone or cement become embedded in the polyethylene and scratch the metal head, is a classic example of abrasive wear. Adhesive wear involves micro-welding between surfaces. Fatigue wear is due to cyclical loading causing subsurface cracking.
Question 50:
A 6-week-old infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The parents report that the child has stopped kicking the affected leg. On examination, the knee lacks active extension, but ankle motion is intact. What is the most likely cause?
Options:
- Obturator nerve palsy due to excessive abduction
- Femoral nerve palsy due to excessive hyperflexion
- Sciatic nerve palsy due to excessive extension
- Common peroneal nerve palsy due to strap compression
- Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve palsy due to excessive hyperflexion
Explanation:
Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of the Pavlik harness, typically caused by excessive hyperflexion of the hips, which compresses the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament. It presents with absent active knee extension. The harness should be adjusted or temporarily discontinued.
Question 51:
A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle collision with a hemodynamically unstable suspected pelvic ring injury. A circumferential pelvic binder is to be applied. What is the correct anatomical landmark to center the binder for optimal reduction of pelvic volume?
Options:
- Anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
- Iliac crests
- Greater trochanters
- Pubic symphysis
- Sacral promontory
Correct Answer: Greater trochanters
Explanation:
A pelvic binder should be centered directly over the greater trochanters of the femurs. This location most effectively closes the pelvic ring and reduces pelvic volume, particularly in 'open book' (APC) type injuries. Placing the binder too high (over the iliac crests or ASIS) may paradoxically widen the pelvis or be ineffective.
Question 52:
A 55-year-old female with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain. MRI reveals a large cystic mass around the hip joint. Histopathology of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to show which of the following characterized by ALVAL (Aseptic Lymphocyte-Dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesion)?
Options:
- Massive neutrophilic infiltration with positive alpha-defensin
- Extensive polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) debris with foreign body giant cells
- Perivascular lymphocytic cuffing and extensive tissue necrosis
- Birefringent crystals under polarized light with monosodium urate
- Predominance of eosinophils and mast cells
Correct Answer: Perivascular lymphocytic cuffing and extensive tissue necrosis
Explanation:
ALVAL is an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) associated with metal-on-metal arthroplasty (and corrosion in taper junctions). Histologically, it is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction characterized by perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, extensive tissue necrosis, and macrophages containing fine metallic wear debris.
Question 53:
A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals a large Hill-Sachs lesion that 'engages' the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is placed in abduction and external rotation. The glenoid bone loss is estimated at 10%. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address the Hill-Sachs lesion in conjunction with a Bankart repair?
Options:
- Latarjet procedure
- Arthroscopic remplissage
- Humeral head osteochondral allograft
- Putti-Platt procedure
- Bristow procedure
Correct Answer: Arthroscopic remplissage
Explanation:
Arthroscopic remplissage involves filling the Hill-Sachs defect by tenodesing the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the lesion. It is indicated for engaging Hill-Sachs lesions without critical (>20-25%) glenoid bone loss. Since the glenoid bone loss is only 10%, a Bankart repair with remplissage is an excellent choice. If glenoid bone loss was >20-25%, a Latarjet would be indicated.
Question 54:
A 68-year-old male complains of bilateral leg pain that worsens after walking two blocks. The pain is relieved by sitting or leaning forward over a shopping cart. He states that riding a stationary bicycle does not provoke the pain. Examination reveals intact distal pulses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
- Peripheral arterial disease
- Lumbar spinal stenosis
- Lumbar disc herniation
- Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
- Deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. The pain is relieved by spinal flexion (e.g., sitting, leaning over a shopping cart, cycling), which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Vascular claudication is brought on by muscle ischemia regardless of spinal posture (e.g., cycling would still cause pain) and typically presents with diminished pulses.
Question 55:
In a patient diagnosed with high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma, which of the following factors is considered the most significant prognostic indicator for long-term survival?
Options:
- The initial size of the tumor
- The anatomic location of the tumor
- The histologic subtype (e.g., osteoblastic vs chondroblastic)
- The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
- The patient's age at diagnosis
Correct Answer: The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Explanation:
The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the most critical prognostic factor for overall survival in high-grade osteosarcoma. A good response is typically defined as >= 90% tumor necrosis (Huvos grade III or IV).
Question 56:
A 30-year-old carpenter lacerates his volar index finger at the level of the proximal phalanx. Which flexor tendon zone is involved, and what is a defining characteristic of this zone?
Options:
- Zone I; contains only the FDP tendon
- Zone II; contains both FDS and FDP tendons within the fibro-osseous sheath
- Zone III; origin of the lumbrical muscles
- Zone IV; contents of the carpal tunnel
- Zone V; proximal to the carpal tunnel
Correct Answer: Zone II; contains both FDS and FDP tendons within the fibro-osseous sheath
Explanation:
The laceration is at the proximal phalanx, which corresponds to Zone II ('no man's land'). This zone extends from the distal palmar crease to the middle of the middle phalanx. It is characterized by both the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) and Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) tendons running tightly together within the fibro-osseous tendon sheath.
Question 57:
When comparing operative versus non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures utilizing modern early functional rehabilitation protocols, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding clinical outcomes?
Options:
- Non-operative management has a significantly higher re-rupture rate than operative management.
- Operative management has a higher risk of deep vein thrombosis.
- Both groups demonstrate similar re-rupture rates when early functional weight-bearing is employed.
- Operative management leads to significantly superior objective plantarflexion strength at 5 years.
- Non-operative management results in a higher rate of sural nerve injury.
Correct Answer: Both groups demonstrate similar re-rupture rates when early functional weight-bearing is employed.
Explanation:
Recent high-quality studies (e.g., Willits et al.) have demonstrated that when an early functional rehabilitation protocol (early weight-bearing and range of motion in an orthosis) is used, the re-rupture rates between operative and non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures are statistically similar. Operative management has a higher risk of wound complications and sural nerve injury (if percutaneous/minimally invasive).
Question 58:
According to Perren's strain theory of bone healing, primary bone healing (direct remodeling without callus) will only occur if the interfragmentary strain is below what threshold?
Options:
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:
According to Perren's strain theory, absolute stability is required for primary bone healing, which corresponds to an interfragmentary strain of less than 2%. Strains between 2% and 10% tolerate secondary bone healing via callus formation. Strains greater than 10% lead to nonunion as the tissue formed is typically fibrous or granulation tissue.
Question 59:
A 12-year-old boy presents with a left-sided Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) and undergoes in situ pinning. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral right hip is most strongly indicated in which of the following scenarios?
Options:
- The patient has an underlying endocrine disorder, such as hypothyroidism.
- The patient is classified as having a severe slip (>50 degrees) on the left.
- The patient is an obese male with no other comorbidities.
- The patient is older than 14 years of age at presentation.
- The slip is acute rather than chronic.
Correct Answer: The patient has an underlying endocrine disorder, such as hypothyroidism.
Explanation:
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is highly controversial but is strongly indicated in patients with a high risk of bilateral disease. The highest risk group includes patients with endocrine disorders (e.g., hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, growth hormone deficiency) or those undergoing prior radiation therapy, as the risk of contralateral slip can approach 100%. Age < 10 or > 16 is also higher risk, but endocrine disorder is the strongest absolute indication.
Question 60:
A 45-year-old pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle and sustains a varus-directed force to the knee. Radiographs reveal a medial tibial plateau fracture with depression. According to the Schatzker classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is the most critical associated complication to monitor for?
Options:
- Schatzker I; popliteal artery injury
- Schatzker II; common peroneal nerve injury
- Schatzker III; acute compartment syndrome
- Schatzker IV; popliteal artery injury and/or compartment syndrome
- Schatzker V; deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Schatzker IV; popliteal artery injury and/or compartment syndrome
Explanation:
A medial tibial plateau fracture is a Schatzker IV fracture. This represents a high-energy trauma mechanism (unlike lateral plateau fractures, which are often lower energy in older patients). Due to the high energy and valgus/varus disruptive forces, it carries a very high risk of popliteal artery injury and acute compartment syndrome. The medial condyle is more robust, so fracturing it requires significant force.