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Distal Radius Fractures: What Are They & How Are They Treated?

Proximal Phalanx Fractures: A Comprehensive Guide to Diagnosis, Treatment, and Management

20 Jun 2026 13 min read 173 Views
Illustration of fracture of the proximal - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

Key Takeaway

Treating proximal phalanx fractures aims for stable anatomical reduction, joint congruity, and early mobilization. Decision-making considers fracture stability, displacement, articular involvement, and rotational deformity. Operative indications include unstable, irreducible, open, or significantly displaced articular fractures. Stable, minimally displaced non-articular fractures may be managed non-operatively, always prioritizing functional recovery and preventing post-traumatic stiffness.

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FRCS Masterclass: Clinical Viva

Interactive Examiner Scenario • Test your knowledge before revealing the answers.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

A 28-year-old amateur rugby player presents with a closed, isolated proximal phalanx shaft fracture of the middle finger following a direct axial load injury. Clinical examination shows mild swelling, and the patient reports pain on movement. You have obtained the following imaging. How would you describe the fracture morphology, and what are your primary clinical concerns regarding the decision for operative versus non-operative management?

Clinical Image
Figure 1: Initial Radiograph of the injury

Candidate: I would describe the fracture as a displaced, angulated, and potentially shortened fracture of the proximal phalanx. My main concern is that any malalignment will cause scissoring of the fingers. I would look at the radiographs to check for angulation, shortening, and rotation, and then decide if it needs a splint or surgery.

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

The candidate fails to use precise orthopaedic terminology (e.g., apex volar/dorsal angulation) and ignores the clinical assessment of rotation. They also fail to mention the "digital cascade," which is the critical clinical check for rotational malalignment.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate must systematically evaluate: 1. Fracture pattern (e.g., transverse vs. oblique). 2. Deformation: Specify the apex direction (e.g., proximal shaft fractures typically show apex volar angulation due to intrinsic pull). 3. Clinical Thresholds: State the "rules of thumb"—less than 10 degrees angulation, <2mm shortening, and zero rotational deformity for non-operative care. 4. Assessment: Emphasize that clinical assessment of the digital cascade during active flexion is superior to radiographs for detecting rotational malalignment.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

You have decided to proceed with open reduction and internal fixation for this proximal phalanx fracture. As you plan the approach, discuss the trade-offs between the dorsal approach and the midaxial approach. Which one do you prefer and why?

Clinical Image
Figure 2: Lateral plating technique

Candidate: A dorsal approach is easier because it's a direct route to the bone, but it risks damaging the extensor tendons. A midaxial approach is harder because you have to protect the neurovascular bundle, but it’s better for the tendons. I would use the dorsal approach for a simple fracture.

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Missing the mention of the "Champeau" or "tendon-sparing" interval in the dorsal approach, and failing to acknowledge that dorsal plating itself causes the adhesions, not just the approach.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate should structure the answer by anatomy: 1. Dorsal Approach: Acknowledge the tendon-splitting vs. tendon-sparing (interval) techniques. Mention that dorsal hardware prominence is a known cause of adhesions. 2. Midaxial Approach: Highlight its use in the "functionally silent zone" between Grayson’s and Cleland’s ligaments, protecting the neurovascular bundle. 3. Preference: Choose based on fracture comminution—lateral plating (via midaxial) is preferred to minimize extensor tendon interference, whereas dorsal plating is reserved for specific tension band needs.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

Post-operatively, the patient has developed significant stiffness at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. Describe your management strategy for this complication.

Clinical Image
Figure 3: Long-term follow-up and soft tissue evaluation

Candidate: I would send the patient to hand therapy for aggressive stretching. If that fails after a couple of months, I would consider surgical tenolysis or a capsulotomy to release the tight joint.

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Failing to mention the absolute requirement of radiographic union before attempting tenolysis, and failing to define the timeline (3–6 months) before considering surgery.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate must outline a staged protocol: 1. Non-operative: Intensive hand therapy (active/passive motion, dynamic splinting). 2. Prerequisite for Surgery: Ensure solid radiographic union—tenolysis on a non-healed fracture is catastrophic. 3. Surgical Management: Describe the release of adhesions around the extensor/flexor mechanisms and, if necessary, capsulotomy (dorsal/volar). 4. Post-op: Emphasize immediate active motion, possibly using indwelling regional analgesia to facilitate pain-free rehab.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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