This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1941
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
When performing an arthroscopic subacromial decompression, brisk bleeding may be encountered from the acromial branch of the thoracoacromial artery. This vessel typically runs in close proximity to which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoacromial ligament
Explanation
The acromial branch of the thoracoacromial artery runs parallel to and supplies the coracoacromial (CA) ligament. It is routinely encountered during CA ligament release or acromioplasty.
Question 1942
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a patient undergoing superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear, the graft is primarily designed to act as a static restraint against which abnormal kinematic motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior humeral migration
Explanation
SCR utilizes a graft attached to the superior glenoid and greater tuberosity to act as a static restraint against superior humeral migration. This restores the glenohumeral fulcrum, optimizing the biomechanical efficiency of the deltoid.
Question 1943
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old female presents with pseudoparalysis of the right shoulder and severe pain. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion. MRI confirms a massive, retracted, irrepairable rotator cuff tear with significant fatty atrophy, but an intact deltoid muscle. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff tear arthropathy presenting with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the intact deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.
Question 1944
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His arm is locked in adduction and internal rotation. An AP radiograph shows a symmetric appearance of the proximal humerus without the normal overlap of the humeral head and glenoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior shoulder dislocation
Explanation
Seizures commonly cause posterior shoulder dislocations due to the dominant strength of the internal rotators (latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, subscapularis). The AP radiograph classically shows the 'lightbulb sign' due to internal rotation of the humeral head and a lack of normal glenohumeral overlap.
Question 1945
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 40-year-old male sustains a seizure and complains of bilateral shoulder pain and inability to externally rotate his arms. Radiographs show a lightbulb sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations
Explanation
Seizures or electrical shocks are classic mechanisms for bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations. The lightbulb sign on AP radiographs is due to the humerus being locked in internal rotation, obscuring the greater tuberosity.
Question 1946
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical exam reveals a 25-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. This deficit is most commonly attributed to contracture of the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior capsule and posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is typically caused by a contracture of the posteroinferior capsule, specifically the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament.
Question 1947
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 25-year-old hockey player sustains a grade III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. If nonoperative management is chosen, what is the most likely long-term clinical outcome compared to early operative fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. No significant difference in objective strength and functional scores
Explanation
Studies comparing operative versus nonoperative treatment for Grade III AC joint separations show no significant long-term differences in functional outcomes, strength, or return to play. However, operative management carries higher risks of complications such as hardware failure and infection.
Question 1948
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic shoulder aching feels a sudden pop with subsequent ecchymosis in his upper arm, creating a 'Popeye' deformity. He notes that his shoulder pain has actually improved since the event. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nonoperative management with progressive physical therapy
Explanation
Rupture of the long head of the biceps brachii in older, lower-demand patients is generally well-tolerated and often leads to the resolution of chronic tendinopathy pain. Nonoperative management with therapy yields excellent functional results with only minimal loss of supination strength.
Question 1949
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old bodybuilder feels a sudden "pop" in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. Examination shows loss of the normal anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the pectoralis major. At which specific anatomical location do the majority of these ruptures occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tendon avulsion at the humeral insertion
Explanation
The vast majority of pectoralis major ruptures in weightlifters (especially during the eccentric phase of a bench press) are avulsions of the tendon from its insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Early surgical repair to bone yields the best functional outcomes.
Question 1950
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 68-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain and the inability to actively raise his arm above 60 degrees. Passive range of motion is full. Radiographs show a high-riding humeral head with acromiohumeral articulation (Hamada grade 3). What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
This patient has pseudoparalysis secondary to a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear with associated cuff tear arthropathy (Hamada 3). Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice as it utilizes the deltoid to restore active elevation while addressing the joint arthritis.
Question 1951
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes evaluation for internal impingement. Which of the following capsuloligamentous structures is most likely contracted, contributing to glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in this athlete?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
GIRD in overhead athletes is typically driven by contracture of the posteroinferior capsule, specifically the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). This contracture alters normal glenohumeral kinematics, leading to posterosuperior labral impingement during the late cocking phase of throwing.
Question 1952
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 10-year-old girl falls on her outstretched hand and sustains an elbow dislocation. After closed reduction, radiographs show an intra-articular fragment. Which of the following physical exam findings is most likely associated with this incarcerated fracture fragment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased sensation over the volar small finger
Explanation
Medial epicondyle fractures are highly associated with elbow dislocations. An incarcerated medial epicondyle can impinge or injure the ulnar nerve, leading to decreased sensation over the volar small finger and weakness in ulnar-innervated intrinsic hand muscles.
Question 1953
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 2-year-old girl presents with her arm held closely to her side in slight flexion and pronation. Her father reports pulling her by the arm to prevent a fall. Radiographs are normal. What anatomical structure is subluxated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament
Explanation
Nursemaid's elbow is a radial head subluxation caused by axial traction on a pronated and extended forearm. The annular ligament slips over the radial head and becomes interposed between the radius and the capitellum.
Question 1954
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 11-year-old boy sustains a posterolateral elbow dislocation and an associated fracture. Following closed reduction of the joint in the emergency department, post-reduction radiographs reveal that the medial epicondyle fragment is incarcerated within the ulnohumeral joint. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the medial epicondyle
Explanation
Incarceration of the medial epicondyle fragment in the joint following reduction of an elbow dislocation is an absolute indication for operative intervention (ORIF) to extract and fix the fragment and restore joint congruity.
Question 1955
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During clinical evaluation of glenohumeral instability, understanding the specific capsuloligamentous restraints is required. Which structure provides the primary restraint to inferior translation of the humerus when the arm is adducted in neutral rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracohumeral ligament and Superior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
In the adducted (0 degrees of abduction) shoulder, the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and the coracohumeral ligament (CHL) are the primary static restraints against inferior translation of the humeral head.
Question 1956
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A patient sustains a traction injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5-C6). Which physical exam finding is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inability to abduct the arm and flex the elbow
Explanation
Erb's palsy involves the C5-C6 roots (upper trunk), affecting the axillary, suprascapular, and musculocutaneous nerves. This leads to weakness in shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion.
Question 1957
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shoulder pain and an inability to externally rotate his arm after suffering an electrical shock. An AP radiograph shows a 'lightbulb' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior shoulder dislocation
Explanation
Posterior shoulder dislocations classically occur following seizures or electrical shocks due to the strong internal rotators overpowering the external rotators. The 'lightbulb' sign on an AP radiograph indicates the humerus is locked in internal rotation.
Question 1958
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 62-year-old man sustains an acute anterior shoulder dislocation after falling on an outstretched hand. The dislocation is successfully reduced. Three weeks later, he complains of persistent, profound weakness in active external rotation and abduction. Deltoid sensation is intact. What is the most likely underlying pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Massive rotator cuff tear
Explanation
In patients older than 40-50 years, anterior shoulder dislocations are highly associated with concomitant rotator cuff tears (up to 30-80% incidence). Persistent weakness in external rotation and abduction post-reduction in this age group strongly suggests a massive cuff tear rather than isolated nerve injury.
Question 1959
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 80-year-old woman sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation after a fall. The dislocation is successfully reduced in the emergency department. Three weeks later, she complains of profound weakness with active shoulder elevation and external rotation, though passive motion is preserved. Plain radiographs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Massive rotator cuff tear
Explanation
In elderly patients, anterior shoulder dislocations are highly associated with acute rotator cuff tears, with incidences exceeding 80% in patients older than 60. Profound weakness after reduction in this age group should raise high suspicion for a massive cuff tear, which must be evaluated with an MRI.
Question 1960
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old man with known advanced cervical spondylosis is involved in a motor vehicle collision. He presents with severe motor weakness in his upper extremities but is able to move his lower extremities against resistance. He also has decreased sensation over the cape-like distribution of his shoulders. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with preexisting cervical spondylosis following a hyperextension injury. It presents with disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.
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