This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1961
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old man with chronic massive rotator cuff tear presents with pseudo-paralysis of the shoulder and severe glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following structures must remain intact for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty to be successful?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid muscle
Explanation
A functional deltoid muscle is an absolute prerequisite for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. It provides the primary motor function to elevate the arm once the center of rotation is medialized and distalized.
Question 1962
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In a patient with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture), what is the most appropriate surgical sequence to restore elbow stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury works deep to superficial. This involves fixation of the coronoid first, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 1963
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient falls on an outstretched hand and complains of lateral elbow pain. Radiographs show a comminuted radial head fracture. There is also marked tenderness over the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). If the radial head is excised without replacement, what complication is most likely to occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal migration of the radius
Explanation
The patient has an Essex-Lopresti lesion, consisting of a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane disruption, and DRUJ injury. Excision of the radial head without prosthetic replacement in this setting will lead to profound proximal radial migration and chronic wrist pain.
Question 1964
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain, an inability to actively elevate his arm past 45 degrees, and a preserved passive range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical management to restore active elevation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It shifts the center of rotation medially and distally, tensioning the deltoid and maximizing its mechanical advantage for shoulder elevation.
Question 1965
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a comminuted radial head fracture, wrist pain, and instability of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Radial head excision is contraindicated in this setting primarily due to the risk of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal migration of the radius and ulnocarpal impaction
Explanation
This presentation is consistent with an Essex-Lopresti fracture-dislocation, which includes a longitudinal tear of the interosseous membrane. Excising the radial head removes the primary restraint to proximal radial migration, leading to severe ulnocarpal impaction and wrist pain.
Question 1966
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old laborer undergoes surgical repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture using a two-incision technique. Compared to a single anterior incision technique, the two-incision approach is associated with a higher risk of which specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioulnar synostosis
Explanation
The two-incision technique for distal biceps repair was developed to minimize the risk to the radial nerve (PIN) and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve seen in single-incision approaches. However, it carries a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and potentially debilitating radioulnar synostosis.
Question 1967
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During surgical reconstruction of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, which of the following is the generally recommended sequence of repair to best restore stability?
The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial: fixation of the coronoid, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair.
Question 1968
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old bodybuilder feels a 'pop' in his antecubital fossa during a heavy deadlift, accompanied by bruising and a positive hook test. If a single-incision anterior approach is used for repair, which nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the most frequently injured structure during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair due to its superficial course.
Question 1969
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old female presents with severe right shoulder pain, pseudoparalysis, and radiographic evidence of superior humeral head migration with acetabularization of the acromion. What is the most reliable definitive surgical treatment to restore active elevation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the gold standard for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, maximizing the moment arm of the deltoid to restore forward elevation.
Question 1970
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old man presents with severe right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 60 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear with an acromiohumeral interval of 2 mm and advanced glenohumeral arthritis. What is the most reliable definitive surgical treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, relying on the deltoid to overcome the deficient rotator cuff.
Question 1971
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man feels a 'pop' in his antecubital fossa while lifting a heavy box and experiences weakness in forearm supination. He undergoes a distal biceps tendon repair using a traditional two-incision technique. Compared to a single anterior incision approach, this technique carries a historically higher risk of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioulnar synostosis
Explanation
The two-incision technique for distal biceps repair carries a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis. Conversely, the single-incision approach has a higher rate of lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) neuropraxia.
Question 1972
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 28-year-old bodybuilder complains of vague shoulder weakness. Physical examination demonstrates prominent medial winging of the scapula when the patient performs a wall push-up. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long thoracic nerve
Explanation
Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis or weakness of the serratus anterior muscle. The serratus anterior is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, and this deficit is classically highlighted during a wall push-up.
Question 1973
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher has persistent deep shoulder pain. Examination reveals normal strength, 130 degrees of external rotation in abduction, 10 degrees of internal rotation in abduction, mild dynamic scapular winging, and equivocal findings on provocative tests for labral tears. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. rest from pitching, initiation of a rehabilitation program to restore internal rotation, and scapular stabilization.
Explanation
Although management of shoulder pain in the throwing athlete is controversial, there are some general principles. Initial management generally includes rest from throwing, restoring normal joint function, specifically motion and strength as well as eliminating pain. In this patient, examination reveals excessive external rotation and decreased internal rotation. This pattern is common in pitchers; however, the total arc of motion should remain close to 180 degrees in abduction. In this patient, the total arc is 140 degrees. Treatment should first focus on restoring a 180-degree arc with posterior scapular stretching, as well as pain control and muscle rehabilitation. Injections and surgery are generally reserved for patients who fail to respond to rest and rehabilitation.
Question 1974
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Operative fixation is planned. What is the most widely accepted sequence of surgical reconstruction to restore elbow stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head repair or replacement, followed by lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair
Explanation
The standard protocol for terrible triad reconstruction proceeds from deep to superficial. This involves coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair or arthroplasty, and finally lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) repair.
Question 1975
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 65-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of scapular notching, how should the glenosphere baseplate optimally be positioned?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior translation with an inferior tilt
Explanation
Scapular notching is a frequent complication in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Placing the baseplate with an inferior tilt and inferior translation lowers the center of rotation and prevents mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck.
Question 1976
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports sudden medial elbow pain and an audible pop during the acceleration phase of throwing. Valgus stress testing reveals gross laxity. In surgical reconstruction of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), which specific anatomic bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of elbow flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is the primary structure reconstructed in 'Tommy John' surgery.
Question 1977
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old male sustains a Type III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation and opts for nonoperative management after thorough counseling. According to long-term outcome studies, what is the most common persistent patient complaint following nonoperative management of this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prominent cosmetic deformity of the distal clavicle
Explanation
While functional outcomes and return to sport are generally excellent following nonoperative management of Type III AC separations, the most common long-term complaint is the persistent visible bump or cosmetic deformity over the superior shoulder.
Question 1978
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 19-year-old motorcyclist sustains a traction injury to his right shoulder. On examination, his arm hangs at his side with the shoulder adducted, internally rotated, and the forearm pronated (waiter's tip posture). Hand and wrist flexion remain intact. This presentation is most consistent with an injury to which anatomic region of the brachial plexus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Upper trunk
Explanation
This patient exhibits an Erb-Duchenne palsy, which results from an injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5-C6 roots). This causes loss of shoulder abduction and external rotation, as well as elbow flexion, leading to the classic 'waiter's tip' posture.
Question 1979
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old woman sustains a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow after a fall from a ladder. She is scheduled for operative fixation. To optimally restore elbow stability, what is the generally accepted sequence of surgical reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation, LCL repair
Explanation
Standard surgical management of a terrible triad injury involves a deep-to-superficial (inside-out) approach. The coronoid is fixed first, followed by the radial head (fixation or replacement), and finally the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is repaired.
Question 1980
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 70-year-old woman is 3 years out from a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate significant inferior scapular notching. Which of the following technical errors during the index procedure is most strongly associated with this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior placement of the glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the inferior scapular neck. It is strongly associated with superior placement of the glenosphere and lack of inferior tilt.
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