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Question 1921

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 70-year-old woman presents with severe right shoulder pain and an inability to raise her arm above the horizontal level for the past 6 months. Examination demonstrates active forward elevation to 70 degrees, but passive forward elevation to 150 degrees. Radiographs reveal advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head articulating with the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Hemiarthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair with superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty relies on a functioning deltoid to restore elevation in patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty is contraindicated due to the deficient rotator cuff, which would lead to eccentric superior loading and early glenoid loosening.

Question 1922

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old man falls on his outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. He undergoes operative management for a posterolateral elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and a type II coronoid fracture. Which of the following represents the most appropriate sequence of surgical reconstruction for this injury pattern?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) repair, radial head fixation, lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair
. Radial head fixation, coronoid fixation, medial collateral ligament (MCL) repair
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair


Explanation

The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury of the elbow is fixing deep to superficial: coronoid first, followed by the radial head, and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex. Medial collateral ligament repair is generally only performed if the elbow remains unstable after the lateral-sided structures are addressed.

Question 1923

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher feels a pop in his medial elbow during a pitch. MRI confirms a complete distal avulsion of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). The primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing is the:

. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Radial collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. This arc of motion corresponds to the high-torque late cocking and early acceleration phases of the overhead throwing motion.

Question 1924

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 30-year-old male presents with elbow clicking and apprehension when pushing up from a chair. Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is diagnosed. The primary deficient structure originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?

. Coronoid process of the ulna
. Radial tuberosity
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Olecranon tip
. Annular ligament directly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) results from insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna, acting as the primary restraint to varus and external rotatory stress.

Question 1925

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with an inability to actively extend their thumb interphalangeal joint. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon is suspected. The EPL tendon normally routes around Lister's tubercle, separating which two dorsal extensor compartments?

. Compartments 1 and 2
. Compartments 2 and 3
. Compartments 3 and 4
. Compartments 4 and 5
. Compartments 1 and 3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Compartments 2 and 3


Explanation

Lister's tubercle acts as a mechanical pulley for the EPL tendon, which resides in the 3rd dorsal compartment. It separates the 2nd dorsal compartment (containing the ECRL and ECRB) from the 3rd compartment.

Question 1926

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 25-year-old man presents with prominent medial scapular winging when asked to push against a wall, following a heavy traction injury to his shoulder. Electromyography confirms an isolated nerve palsy. From which specific nerve roots does the affected nerve originate?

. C5 only
. C5, C6
. C5, C6, C7
. C7, C8, T1
. C8, T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5, C6, C7


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is characteristic of serratus anterior paralysis caused by a long thoracic nerve injury. The long thoracic nerve originates directly from the anterior rami of the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots.

Question 1927

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old patient undergoes a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck and subsequently develops noticeable shoulder drooping and severe weakness with shoulder elevation. The nerve injured during this procedure exits the skull through which of the following foramina?

. Foramen rotundum
. Foramen ovale
. Jugular foramen
. Stylomastoid foramen
. Hypoglossal canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jugular foramen


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) is vulnerable to iatrogenic injury in the posterior triangle of the neck, leading to trapezius palsy. It exits the skull via the jugular foramen along with the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves.

Question 1928

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain. Valgus stress testing reveals joint laxity at 30 degrees of elbow flexion. Which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at this angle, and what is its distal insertion site?

. Anterior bundle; sublime tubercle
. Anterior bundle; tip of the coronoid
. Posterior bundle; sublime tubercle
. Posterior bundle; olecranon
. Transverse bundle; base of the coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle; sublime tubercle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the anteromedial ulna.

Question 1929

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, a nerve is encountered piercing the clavipectoral fascia medial to the coracoid process. This nerve primarily innervates which of the following structures?

. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major
. Sternal head of the pectoralis major
. Pectoralis minor
. Coracobrachialis
. Short head of the biceps brachii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major


Explanation

The lateral pectoral nerve pierces the clavipectoral fascia to innervate the clavicular head of the pectoralis major. Conversely, the medial pectoral nerve pierces the pectoralis minor to supply the sternocostal portion of the pectoralis major.

Question 1930

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

The distal biceps tendon normally inserts on the radial tuberosity. To maximize supination strength during a surgical repair of a ruptured tendon, it should be reattached to which specific footprint?

. Anterior aspect of the radial tuberosity
. Ulnar aspect of the coronoid process
. Posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity
. Lateral aspect of the radial tuberosity
. Distal pole of the radial tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity


Explanation

The native distal biceps tendon inserts on the ulnar/posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity. Reattaching it as posterior as possible maximizes the supination moment arm and restores functional strength.

Question 1931

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with shoulder weakness and lateral winging of the scapula following a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck. Which nerve was injured, and which muscle is paralyzed?

. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior
. Dorsal scapular nerve; rhomboid major
. Spinal accessory nerve; trapezius
. Thoracodorsal nerve; latissimus dorsi
. Suprascapular nerve; supraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve; trapezius


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle and is highly susceptible to injury during procedures in the posterior triangle of the neck. Paralysis results in shoulder droop and lateral scapular winging.

Question 1932

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 28-year-old gymnast sustains an elbow dislocation. After closed reduction, she has persistent posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI). Deficiency of which of the following structures is the primary cause of this instability?

. Radial collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Accessory collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. It originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the ulna.

Question 1933

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient presents with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. This condition is primarily caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Where does the LUCL anatomically insert?

. Radial neck
. Annular ligament
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Coronoid process of the ulna
. Olecranon process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.

Question 1934

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

During the proximal portion of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm, supination of the forearm is performed to protect a major nerve. Which muscle's insertion is stripped and elevated to expose the proximal radius, and what is the anatomical relationship of the at-risk nerve to this muscle?

. Supinator; the nerve lies within the substance of the muscle between its superficial and deep heads.
. Pronator teres; the nerve lies superficial to its ulnar border.
. Biceps brachii; the nerve lies deep to its aponeurosis.
. Brachioradialis; the nerve lies medial to its tendon.
. Flexor digitorum superficialis; the nerve lies deep to its radial head.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator; the nerve lies within the substance of the muscle between its superficial and deep heads.


Explanation

In the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the supinator muscle is elevated to expose the bone. Supinating the forearm protects the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN), which safely moves laterally away from the surgical field as it courses between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator.

Question 1935

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow is primarily caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What is the precise insertion of the LUCL?

. Radial neck
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Sublime tubercle
. Annular ligament
. Lesser sigmoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, blends with the annular ligament, and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. Its insufficiency is the primary lesion in posterolateral rotatory instability.

Question 1936

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with medial winging of the scapula after a traumatic injury. The injured nerve originates from which of the following roots of the brachial plexus?

. C5-C6-C7
. C8-T1
. C5-C6
. C7-C8-T1
. C4-C5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6-C7


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle due to injury of the long thoracic nerve. The long thoracic nerve originates from the anterior rami of the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots.

Question 1937

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with winged scapula following a breast lumpectomy and axillary node dissection. The affected nerve innervates which of the following muscles?

. Rhomboid major
. Trapezius
. Serratus anterior
. Latissimus dorsi
. Levator scapulae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serratus anterior


Explanation

The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Injury to this nerve leads to medial scapular winging.

Question 1938

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Where does the LUCL typically insert?

. Olecranon tip
. Radial tuberosity
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Coronoid process
. Lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral epicondyle


Explanation

The LUCL originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. Disruption of this ligament leads to posterolateral rotatory instability.

Question 1939

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

In the evaluation of a patient with scapular winging, physical examination reveals medial prominence of the scapula when pushing against a wall. Injury to which nerve is the most likely cause?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior weakness, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is typically due to trapezius dysfunction, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve.

Question 1940

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A patient presents with weakness in internal rotation and adduction of the shoulder, specifically lacking the ability to perform latissimus dorsi pull-downs. Which of the following cords of the brachial plexus provides the primary innervation to this muscle?

. Lateral cord
. Medial cord
. Posterior cord
. Anterior division of middle trunk
. Superior trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cord


Explanation

The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve, which arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.