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Question 2781

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old male presents with increasing pain 18 months after an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Inflammatory markers are mildly elevated. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid, but routine aerobic and anaerobic cultures at 3 days are negative. What is the most likely causative organism?

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Cutibacterium acnes
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Escherichia coli

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cutibacterium acnes


Explanation

Cutibacterium (formerly Propionibacterium) acnes is a slow-growing, anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that is a leading cause of periprosthetic shoulder infections. It typically requires extended cultures (up to 14 days) to be identified.

Question 2782

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 55-year-old female with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with a 4-month history of insidious onset global shoulder pain and progressively decreasing range of motion. Examination reveals a significant loss of both active and passive external rotation. Radiographs are normal. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Arthroscopic capsular release
. Manipulation under anesthesia
. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection and physical therapy
. Oral NSAIDs and immobilization in a sling
. MRI of the shoulder to rule out a rotator cuff tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection and physical therapy


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis presents with restricted active and passive motion, particularly external rotation. Initial treatment involves an intra-articular corticosteroid injection combined with gentle physical therapy to reduce inflammation and restore motion.

Question 2783

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 26-year-old female presents with weakness and prominence of her right shoulder blade after a viral illness. Physical examination demonstrates medial winging of the scapula, which is accentuated when she pushes against a wall. Which nerve is most likely affected?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is associated with spinal accessory nerve palsy affecting the trapezius.

Question 2784

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 40-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after suffering a generalized seizure. He complains of severe shoulder pain and cannot externally rotate the arm. An AP radiograph shows a "lightbulb" sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior shoulder dislocation
. Posterior shoulder dislocation
. Inferior shoulder dislocation (luxatio erecta)
. Proximal humerus fracture
. Scapula fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior shoulder dislocation


Explanation

Posterior shoulder dislocations classically occur following seizures or electrical shocks. They present with the arm locked in internal rotation, and AP radiographs show the "lightbulb" sign due to fixed internal rotation of the humeral head.

Question 2785

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old male heavy laborer complains of sudden onset of pain and a bulge in his lower arm after lifting a heavy object. He has an obvious "Popeye" deformity but reports minimal pain currently. What is the most appropriate management?

. Urgent surgical repair of the tendon
. Nonoperative management with physical therapy
. Subacromial corticosteroid injection
. MRI of the elbow
. Distal biceps tendon repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonoperative management with physical therapy


Explanation

Rupture of the long head of the biceps tendon in an older patient typically results in a "Popeye" deformity. It is almost always treated nonoperatively as functional loss is minimal and the pain resolves quickly.

Question 2786

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old male presents with severe shoulder pain and decreased range of motion. Radiographs show joint space narrowing, large inferior osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis. MRI shows an intact rotator cuff. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic debridement
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Shoulder arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty is the gold standard treatment for end-stage glenohumeral osteoarthritis in patients with an intact, functioning rotator cuff and sufficient glenoid bone stock.

Question 2787

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old woman presents with severe osteoarthritis of the right shoulder. CT scan reveals a retroverted glenoid of 20 degrees and posterior humeral head subluxation with asymmetric posterior wear. According to the Walch classification, which glenoid type is this?

. Type A1
. Type B1
. Type B2
. Type B3
. Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type B2


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is characterized by asymmetric posterior glenoid wear, retroversion, and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. It often requires specific management during shoulder arthroplasty, such as eccentric reaming or augmented components.

Question 2788

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, the center of rotation is moved in which directions compared to the native shoulder anatomy?

. Lateralized and superior
. Medialized and inferior
. Medialized and superior
. Lateralized and inferior
. Anterior and superior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialized and inferior


Explanation

RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation. This increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing it to compensate for a deficient rotator cuff to elevate the arm.

Question 2789

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following modifications in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty component positioning has been shown to decrease the incidence of scapular notching?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Superior tilt of the glenosphere
. Inferior tilt and inferior overhang of the glenosphere
. Using a smaller diameter glenosphere
. Increasing humeral retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior tilt and inferior overhang of the glenosphere


Explanation

Scapular notching is a common complication of RTSA caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck. Inferior placement with overhang and an inferior tilt of the glenosphere help reduce this impingement.

Question 2790

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 52-year-old woman presents with insidious onset of profound shoulder stiffness and pain over the last 4 months. Passive and active ROM are equally restricted. Which systemic condition is most strongly associated with an increased incidence and severity of this disorder?

. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Diabetes mellitus
. Hyperparathyroidism
. Chronic kidney disease
. Gout

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) has a strong association with diabetes mellitus. Diabetic patients have a higher incidence, often bilateral involvement, and a more prolonged, refractory clinical course compared to non-diabetic patients.

Question 2791

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old woman is 6 months status-post an uncomplicated reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. She reports a sudden onset of lateral shoulder pain after lifting a heavy grocery bag, with a subsequent drop in active elevation. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the acromion base. What factor is most associated with this complication?

. Insufficient deltoid tension
. Excessive lateralization and increased deltoid tension
. Humeral component retroversion
. Glenosphere superior tilt
. Unrepaired subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive lateralization and increased deltoid tension


Explanation

Acromial stress fractures after RTSA are associated with increased deltoid tension and excessive lateralization. The increased mechanical load on the acromion from the tensioned deltoid can lead to fatigue fractures, particularly at the base or spine.

Question 2792

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old male presents to the trauma bay following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He complains of chest pain, shortness of breath, and dysphagia. His left shoulder is protracted, and there is a palpable depression at the left sternoclavicular joint. Which imaging study is the gold standard to evaluate this injury?

. Anteroposterior radiograph of the chest
. Serendipity view radiograph
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
. Computed tomography (CT) scan
. Ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan


Explanation

This patient has a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation, a surgical emergency due to the proximity of the great vessels and trachea. A CT scan of the chest is the gold standard for diagnosis and evaluating mediastinal compromise.

Question 2793

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with decreasing throwing velocity and shoulder pain in the late cocking phase. Examination reveals a loss of internal rotation of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side, with a corresponding increase in external rotation. What is the primary anatomic structure responsible for this finding?

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Contracture of the coracohumeral ligament
. Laxity of the anterior capsule
. Shortening of the pectoralis minor
. Atrophy of the subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in throwers is primarily driven by contracture of the posterior capsule and the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. Initial treatment involves sleeper stretches to restore internal rotation.

Question 2794

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old female presents with pseudoparalysis of her right shoulder and severe pain. Imaging confirms a massive, retracted, irreparable rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, with advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Her deltoid function is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard for patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It relies on an intact deltoid to elevate the arm, bypassing the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 2795

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

According to the Walch classification of glenoid morphology in primary osteoarthritis, a B2 glenoid is best described by which of the following?

. Centered humeral head with concentric wear
. Biconcave glenoid with posterior humeral head subluxation
. Dysplastic glenoid with severe retroversion > 25 degrees
. Medialized glenoid with severe central wear
. Superior humeral head migration with superior glenoid wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biconcave glenoid with posterior humeral head subluxation


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is characterized by a biconcave surface and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. It is a critical consideration in shoulder arthroplasty due to the need to address asymmetric posterior bone loss and retroversion.

Question 2796

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 48-year-old female with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of progressive shoulder stiffness and pain. Examination reveals a significant loss of both active and passive range of motion, particularly in external rotation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Manipulation under anesthesia
. Arthroscopic capsular release
. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection and physical therapy
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Suprascapular nerve ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection and physical therapy


Explanation

This patient has adhesive capsulitis, which is strongly associated with diabetes mellitus. Initial management consists of conservative measures, including a supervised physical therapy program and intra-articular corticosteroid injections to reduce inflammation.

Question 2797

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, lateralization of the glenosphere provides which of the following biomechanical advantages compared to a traditional medialized design?

. Increased deltoid wrapping and decreased scapular notching
. Decreased tension on the remaining rotator cuff
. Increased risk of glenoid component loosening
. Decreased baseplate fixation strength
. Increased internal rotation deficit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased deltoid wrapping and decreased scapular notching


Explanation

Lateralization of the glenosphere in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty increases deltoid wrapping, improves external rotation, and significantly reduces the incidence of scapular notching compared to medialized designs.

Question 2798

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness after a posterior triangle neck biopsy. On physical examination, the scapula translates laterally and superiorly with attempted shoulder abduction. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve denervates the trapezius, causing the scapula to wing laterally and superiorly. Conversely, long thoracic nerve injury denervates the serratus anterior, causing medial winging.

Question 2799

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old male with primary osteoarthritis of the shoulder is planning to undergo an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Preoperative CT scan demonstrates a biconcave glenoid with retroversion of 20 degrees and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. This glenoid morphology is best classified as:

. Walch Type A1
. Walch Type A2
. Walch Type B1
. Walch Type B2
. Walch Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Walch Type B2


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is characterized by a biconcave articular surface with posterior wear, posterior humeral head subluxation, and increased retroversion. It is a critical consideration in anatomic TSA due to the high risk of early glenoid loosening.

Question 2800

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 42-year-old female presents with sudden onset of severe, unprovoked left shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, followed by progressive weakness in shoulder elevation as the pain subsided. An MRI of the shoulder and cervical spine is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cervical radiculopathy
. Frozen shoulder
. Acute calcific tendinitis
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parsonage-Turner syndrome


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) typically presents with acute, severe, unremitting shoulder pain. As the pain resolves over several weeks, the patient develops profound weakness and atrophy of the affected shoulder girdle musculature.