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Question 2761

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old male presents with a chronic massive rotator cuff tear and pseudoparalysis (active elevation less than 90 degrees). Physical examination reveals an intact deltoid, and radiographs demonstrate no evidence of glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears accompanied by pseudoparalysis. Superior capsular reconstruction and tendon transfers require intact active elevation and are contraindicated in the setting of pseudoparalysis.

Question 2762

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 24-year-old competitive tennis player presents with right shoulder pain and weakness, particularly when serving. On examination, there is prominent medial winging of the scapula that worsens when he pushes against a wall. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured, and what is the corresponding muscle?

. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior
. Spinal accessory nerve; trapezius
. Dorsal scapular nerve; rhomboids
. Suprascapular nerve; supraspinatus
. Axillary nerve; deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is classically caused by a long thoracic nerve palsy leading to serratus anterior weakness. Spinal accessory nerve palsy causes lateral winging due to trapezius dysfunction.

Question 2763

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 76-year-old woman sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. She has a history of severe osteoporosis. A decision is made to proceed with reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA). Healing of the tuberosities to the humeral shaft in rTSA is primarily associated with:

. Increased rate of scapular notching
. Improved active external and internal rotation
. Decreased implant survival
. Higher rates of postoperative instability
. Increased risk of acromial stress fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improved active external and internal rotation


Explanation

In rTSA for proximal humerus fractures, anatomic tuberosity healing significantly improves clinical outcomes. Specifically, it enhances active external and internal rotation by restoring the rotator cuff force couples.

Question 2764

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old man with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis presents for total shoulder arthroplasty. A preoperative CT scan reveals a Walch B2 glenoid with 20 degrees of retroversion and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for managing the glenoid deformity during anatomic TSA?

. Standard concentric glenoid reaming
. Asymmetric reaming to correct version up to 15 degrees, accepting some residual retroversion
. Anterior capsular plication
. Use of a standard pegged glenoid with no version correction
. Bone grafting of the anterior glenoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asymmetric reaming to correct version up to 15 degrees, accepting some residual retroversion


Explanation

For Walch B2 glenoids, asymmetric anterior reaming can safely correct up to 10-15 degrees of retroversion. Excessive reaming must be avoided as it violates subchondral bone and decreases glenoid vault volume, increasing the risk of component loosening.

Question 2765

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When placing the glenoid baseplate during a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, the optimal position to minimize scapular notching and maximize range of motion is:

. Superior tilt and superior translation
. Inferior tilt and inferior translation
. Superior tilt and anterior translation
. Neutral tilt and superior translation
. Neutral tilt and posterior translation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior tilt and inferior translation


Explanation

Inferior positioning and inferior tilt of the glenosphere (baseplate) are crucial in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. This position minimizes the incidence of inferior scapular notching and appropriately tensions the deltoid.

Question 2766

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 52-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with severe left shoulder stiffness. She has equal loss of active and passive range of motion. Radiographs are normal. Which of the following is true regarding adhesive capsulitis in diabetic patients compared to idiopathic cases?

. They have a lower incidence of bilateral involvement.
. They are more responsive to isolated physical therapy.
. They have a higher failure rate with conservative management.
. Intra-articular corticosteroids are strictly contraindicated.
. Pathology primarily involves isolated contracture of the posterior capsule.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. They have a higher failure rate with conservative management.


Explanation

Diabetic patients with adhesive capsulitis have a higher incidence of bilateral involvement, more severe symptoms, and a higher failure rate with conservative management compared to those with idiopathic adhesive capsulitis.

Question 2767

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis presents with a Walch B2 glenoid demonstrating 22 degrees of retroversion. He is scheduled for an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. If eccentric reaming is chosen to correct the version, what is the maximum recommended correction before significantly risking glenoid vault violation and peg perforation?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15 degrees


Explanation

Eccentric reaming is typically limited to 10 to 15 degrees of correction. Reaming beyond 15 degrees significantly reduces the subchondral bone stock, violating the glenoid vault and increasing the risk of early component loosening and peg perforation.

Question 2768

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following best describes the biomechanical alteration achieved by a Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Lateralizes and superiorly translates the center of rotation
. Medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation
. Medializes and superiorly translates the center of rotation
. Maintains the anatomic center of rotation while increasing the deltoid moment arm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializes and superiorly translates the center of rotation


Explanation

The Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty medializes and inferiorly shifts the center of rotation. This increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing it to compensate for a deficient rotator cuff to elevate the arm.

Question 2769

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old mechanic presents with shoulder pain and difficulty lifting heavy objects above his head. On examination, having the patient perform a wall push-up exacerbates medial prominence of the scapula. This clinical finding is most characteristic of an injury to which of the following nerves?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior paralysis due to long thoracic nerve injury. It is classically accentuated by having the patient perform a wall push-up to resist forward elevation.

Question 2770

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 25-degree deficit in glenohumeral internal rotation on the dominant arm compared to the contralateral side, with normal total arc of motion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic posterior capsulorrhaphy
. Arthroscopic posteroinferior capsular release
. Corticosteroid injection into the glenohumeral joint
. Physical therapy focusing on sleeper stretches
. Immediate cessation of pitching for 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy focusing on sleeper stretches


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) is common in overhead athletes and relates to posterior capsular contracture. The initial and most effective management is a stretching program focusing on the posteroinferior capsule, such as sleeper stretches.

Question 2771

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old female presents with chronic shoulder pain and inability to actively elevate her arm above 45 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head articulating with the acromion, consistent with Hamada grade 3 cuff tear arthropathy. Her axillary nerve is intact. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It relies on a functioning deltoid muscle and intact axillary nerve to elevate the arm, altering the joint's biomechanics.

Question 2772

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 40-year-old diabetic female presents to the emergency department with acute, excruciating shoulder pain without preceding trauma. Radiographs show a large, fluffy, ill-defined calcific deposit in the supraspinatus tendon. During which phase of calcific tendinitis does the patient typically experience the most severe pain?

. Precalcific phase
. Formative phase
. Resting phase
. Resorptive phase
. Postcalcific phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resorptive phase


Explanation

Calcific tendinitis causes the most severe, acute pain during the resorptive phase. In this phase, the calcific deposit becomes highly vascularized, undergoes phagocytosis, and takes on a toothpaste-like consistency.

Question 2773

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 50-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, retracted, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has significant weakness in external rotation and a positive Hornblower's sign. The glenohumeral joint shows no arthritic changes. Which of the following tendon transfers is best indicated to restore active external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Serratus anterior transfer
. Levator scapulae transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

For a young or active patient with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear, a latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfer can restore active external rotation and forward elevation. It provides a biologic option to improve kinematics in a joint without significant arthropathy.

Question 2774

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 35-year-old male is evaluated in the emergency department following an unprovoked generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of severe shoulder pain and his arm is locked in an internally rotated position. An AP radiograph demonstrates a symmetric "light bulb" appearance of the humeral head without an obvious fracture. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior shoulder dislocation
. Inferior shoulder dislocation (luxatio erecta)
. Posterior shoulder dislocation
. Non-displaced surgical neck fracture
. Hill-Sachs lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior shoulder dislocation


Explanation

Posterior shoulder dislocations commonly occur following seizures, electrical shocks, or high-energy trauma. The arm is typically locked in internal rotation, and the AP radiograph classically shows a "light bulb" sign due to the internal rotation of the humeral head.

Question 2775

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In the design and biomechanics of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RSA), how does the prosthesis primarily compensate for a deficient rotator cuff to allow active forward elevation?

. It lateralizes and superiorly translates the center of rotation.
. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation.
. It increases the tension on the remaining conjoined tendon.
. It anatomicizes the offset of the proximal humerus.
. It restricts glenohumeral translation completely to function as a hinge.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation.


Explanation

Reverse shoulder arthroplasty shifts the center of rotation medially and distally. This increases the lever arm of the deltoid muscle and improves its resting tension, allowing it to elevate the arm without a functioning rotator cuff.

Question 2776

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 38-year-old male complains of a drooping shoulder and lateral scapular winging 6 months after undergoing a radical neck dissection for squamous cell carcinoma. He has difficulty sustaining abduction above 90 degrees. Which nerve was most likely injured during his prior surgery?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Lateral scapular winging and shoulder droop are classic signs of trapezius palsy, which is typically due to iatrogenic injury to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) during posterior triangle neck surgeries. The Eden-Lange muscle transfer is the surgical treatment of choice if recovery fails.

Question 2777

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old woman is 6 months postoperative from a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. She reports a sudden onset of lateral shoulder pain after lifting a light box. Radiographs reveal a non-displaced fracture of the acromion base. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation
. Revision to a hemiarthroplasty
. Glenosphere lateralization
. Sling immobilization and conservative management
. Botulinum toxin injection to the deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization and conservative management


Explanation

Non-displaced acromial stress fractures (Levy Type 1 or 2) after reverse total shoulder arthroplasty are typically treated non-operatively with sling immobilization. Operative fixation is generally reserved for displaced fractures causing severe deltoid dysfunction or painful nonunions.

Question 2778

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old woman presents with right shoulder aching and fatigue. She underwent a cervical lymph node biopsy 4 months ago. Examination reveals lateral winging of the scapula and inability to actively abduct the arm past 90 degrees. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius, and its iatrogenic injury during posterior triangle neck biopsies causes lateral winging of the scapula and a dropped shoulder. Injury to the long thoracic nerve causes medial winging due to serratus anterior paralysis.

Question 2779

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old female presents with sudden onset of superior shoulder pain 6 months after a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the acromion base (Levy type II). What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with plates and screws
. Revision to a larger glenosphere
. Conservative management with sling immobilization
. Excision of the fractured fragment
. Conversion to a hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conservative management with sling immobilization


Explanation

Acromial stress fractures after reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (Levy type I and II) are initially managed conservatively with sling immobilization and activity modification. Nonunion is common but often asymptomatic.

Question 2780

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old male with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and no glenohumeral arthritis presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder. He has an intact subscapularis and functioning deltoid. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic debridement and biceps tenotomy
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

In an elderly patient with a massive irreparable rotator cuff tear and pseudoparalysis, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty provides the most reliable restoration of active elevation. Latissimus dorsi transfer and superior capsular reconstruction are generally reserved for younger patients without pseudoparalysis.