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Question 2741

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 30-year-old woman presents with medial scapular winging that is accentuated when she pushes against a wall. Which nerve and corresponding muscle are most likely affected?

. Spinal accessory nerve and trapezius
. Long thoracic nerve and serratus anterior
. Dorsal scapular nerve and rhomboids
. Suprascapular nerve and supraspinatus
. Axillary nerve and deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve and serratus anterior


Explanation

Medial scapular winging (where the medial border becomes prominent) is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Trapezius palsy typically causes lateral winging.

Question 2742

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following systemic conditions has the strongest and most well-documented association with the development of adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder?

. Hypothyroidism
. Hyperparathyroidism
. Diabetes mellitus
. Cushing's disease
. Addison's disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Diabetes mellitus has a very strong association with adhesive capsulitis. Patients with diabetes often experience a more severe and protracted clinical course that can be resistant to standard conservative management.

Question 2743

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old man with primary osteoarthritis of the shoulder has a B2 glenoid identified on preoperative CT scan. According to the Walch classification, a B2 glenoid is characterized by:

. Central wear with preserved version
. Posterior subluxation with biconcave posterior wear
. Dysplastic glenoid with severe retroversion
. Concentric wear with medialization
. Superior wear with massive rotator cuff tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior subluxation with biconcave posterior wear


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid in primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis is characterized by posterior subluxation of the humeral head and asymmetric posterior glenoid wear, creating a classic biconcave shape with increased retroversion.

Question 2744

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy. Postoperatively, she achieves 150 degrees of active forward elevation but complains of profound weakness and inability to actively externally rotate her arm when at her side. Which of the following concurrent procedures would have best addressed this specific postoperative deficit?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Latarjet procedure
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Trapezius transfer to the lesser tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

Loss of active external rotation with the arm at the side is due to an absent or non-functional teres minor (often seen in massive posterosuperior cuff tears). A latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer to the greater tuberosity is indicated to restore active external rotation.

Question 2745

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

An 82-year-old female presents with a severely comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a fall. Imaging reveals a disrupted medial hinge, less than 2 mm of metaphyseal extension attached to the articular segment, and severe osteoporosis. A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) is chosen over open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). What biomechanical principle explains the functional success of rTSA in this setting?

. Medialization and distalization of the center of rotation
. Lateralization and proximalization of the center of rotation
. Anatomic restoration of the glenohumeral offset
. Increased tensioning of the remaining rotator cuff
. Dependence on an intact coracoacromial arch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization and distalization of the center of rotation


Explanation

Reverse TSA medializes and distalizes the joint's center of rotation. This increases the deltoid muscle's moment arm and resting tension, allowing it to substitute for the deficient rotator cuff in elevating the arm.

Question 2746

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old woman undergoes a posterior triangle lymph node biopsy. Three weeks later, she complains of a dull ache in her shoulder and an inability to elevate her arm above 90 degrees. Examination shows lateral displacement and downward rotation of the scapula. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is the primary affected muscle?

. Long thoracic nerve; Serratus anterior
. Spinal accessory nerve; Trapezius
. Dorsal scapular nerve; Rhomboids
. Suprascapular nerve; Supraspinatus
. Axillary nerve; Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve; Trapezius


Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve during posterior cervical triangle surgery denervates the trapezius. This results in lateral winging and downward rotation of the scapula, distinguishing it from the medial winging seen in long thoracic nerve palsy.

Question 2747

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of progressive shoulder stiffness and pain, currently in the "freezing" stage of idiopathic adhesive capsulitis. Histologic evaluation of her shoulder capsule would most likely show an abundance of which cell type, and contracture of which primary structure in the rotator interval?

. Macrophages; Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Fibroblasts; Coracohumeral ligament
. Neutrophils; Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Osteoclasts; Coracoacromial ligament
. Lymphocytes; Inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblasts; Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by a fibroblastic proliferation and multilocular cytokine expression (e.g., TGF-beta). The pathognomonic macroscopic finding is a thick, contracted coracohumeral ligament within the rotator interval.

Question 2748

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis



A 75-year-old man is 4 years status post a Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs show Grade 3 scapular notching. Which intraoperative technical error most significantly increases the risk of this specific complication?

. Inferior baseplate overhang
. Inferior baseplate tilt
. Superior baseplate positioning
. Lateralized glenosphere
. Use of a larger diameter glenosphere

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior baseplate positioning


Explanation

Scapular notching is caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral tray against the inferior scapular neck. Superior baseplate positioning fails to provide adequate inferior overhang, significantly increasing the risk of notching.

Question 2749

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

An orthopaedic surgeon is planning an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty for a 68-year-old man with primary osteoarthritis. Preoperative axillary CT imaging demonstrates a biconcave glenoid with severe posterior cartilaginous wear and 22 degrees of retroversion. According to the Walch classification, what type of glenoid morphology is this?

. A1
. B1
. B2
. C
. D

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B2


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is defined by an asymmetric, biconcave morphology with posterior wear and increased retroversion. It is highly associated with posterior subluxation of the humeral head in primary osteoarthritis.

Question 2750

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after suffering a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of severe anterior shoulder pain. On examination, his arm is fixed in internal rotation, and he has zero degrees of active or passive external rotation. The AP shoulder radiograph shows a "lightbulb sign." What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Closed reduction using traction-countertraction and gentle external rotation
. Closed reduction using traction and gentle internal rotation
. Immediate operative fixation with a locking plate
. Sling immobilization and physical therapy
. Arthroscopic capsular release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction using traction-countertraction and gentle external rotation


Explanation

The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation (fixed internal rotation, 'lightbulb sign' from internal rotation on AP view). Initial management is closed reduction, typically utilizing axial traction with gentle anterior translation and external rotation.

Question 2751

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of scapular notching postoperatively, which of the following baseplate and glenosphere configurations is most appropriate?

. Superior placement of the baseplate with a neutral glenosphere
. Inferior placement of the baseplate with an inferiorly eccentric glenosphere
. Superior tilt of the baseplate with a concentric glenosphere
. Medialized baseplate with a smaller diameter glenosphere
. Lateralized baseplate with superior tilt of the glenosphere

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior placement of the baseplate with an inferiorly eccentric glenosphere


Explanation

Scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty can be minimized by placing the glenoid baseplate inferiorly and using an inferiorly eccentric or overhanging glenosphere. Lateralization and inferior tilt of the baseplate also independently reduce the incidence of inferior scapular impingement.

Question 2752

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm past 45 degrees. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head and severe glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Rotator cuff repair with superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Shoulder arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It alters the joint's center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.

Question 2753

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

Which of the following comorbidities is most strongly associated with both the development of adhesive capsulitis and a more refractory course to conservative treatment?

. Hypothyroidism
. Hypertension
. Diabetes mellitus
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Chronic kidney disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Diabetes mellitus is the strongest risk factor for adhesive capsulitis, occurring in up to 20% of diabetic patients. These patients generally have a more protracted course and poorer response to conservative management.

Question 2754

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old woman with severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis undergoes an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Ten years later, she presents with progressive pain and a loss of active elevation. What is the most common cause of late failure in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Humeral component loosening
. Infection
. Glenoid component loosening
. Periprosthetic fracture
. Deltoid dehiscence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Glenoid component loosening


Explanation

Aseptic glenoid component loosening is the most common complication and cause of late failure following anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Eccentric wear and rocking horse forces contribute to this failure mode.

Question 2755

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 28-year-old man sustains a severe elbow injury. Imaging confirms a terrible triad injury pattern.

What is the recommended sequence of surgical reconstruction to restore elbow stability?

. Lateral collateral ligament, radial head, coronoid
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament
. Radial head, coronoid, lateral collateral ligament
. Medial collateral ligament, coronoid, radial head
. Medial collateral ligament, lateral collateral ligament, coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament


Explanation

The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury builds stability from deep/anterior to superficial/lateral: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair/replacement, and finally lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair.

Question 2756

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 40-year-old manual laborer complains of right shoulder ache and a prominent medial scapular border, especially when doing a wall push-up. An injury to which nerve is responsible for this physical finding?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is associated with spinal accessory nerve (trapezius) palsy.

Question 2757

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Postoperatively, what surgical technique modification regarding glenoid baseplate and glenosphere positioning has been biomechanically and clinically proven to minimize the risk of inferior scapular notching?

. Superior translation of the baseplate
. Superior tilt of the glenosphere
. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
. Lateralization of the humeral component only
. Placing the baseplate in 15 degrees of anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere


Explanation

Inferior positioning and inferior tilt of the glenosphere in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty limit mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck during adduction. This technique effectively minimizes the risk of scapular notching, which is the most common radiographic complication of rTSA.

Question 2758

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 65-year-old woman with cuff tear arthropathy undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. During templating and component positioning, which of the following modifications minimizes the risk of scapular notching?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Superior tilt of the glenosphere
. Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
. Medialization of the center of rotation
. Using a smaller diameter glenosphere

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere


Explanation

Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere, along with lateralization, decrease the risk of scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty by improving clearance between the humeral component and the inferior scapular neck.

Question 2759

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a significant decrease in throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree deficit in glenohumeral internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the most likely primary pathophysiology for this range of motion deficit?

. Contracture of the anteroinferior capsule
. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Laxity of the coracohumeral ligament
. Stretching of the superior glenohumeral ligament
. Tearing of the subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is typically caused by a contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) and posterior capsule, leading to a posterosuperior shift of the humeral head during the cocking phase.

Question 2760

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and inability to actively elevate his arm above 40 degrees. Passive elevation is 150 degrees. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. The deltoid is functioning normally. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis, provided the deltoid is intact to power the reverse construct.