This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2741
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 30-year-old woman presents with medial scapular winging that is accentuated when she pushes against a wall. Which nerve and corresponding muscle are most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long thoracic nerve and serratus anterior
Explanation
Medial scapular winging (where the medial border becomes prominent) is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Trapezius palsy typically causes lateral winging.
Question 2742
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which of the following systemic conditions has the strongest and most well-documented association with the development of adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diabetes mellitus
Explanation
Diabetes mellitus has a very strong association with adhesive capsulitis. Patients with diabetes often experience a more severe and protracted clinical course that can be resistant to standard conservative management.
Question 2743
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 68-year-old man with primary osteoarthritis of the shoulder has a B2 glenoid identified on preoperative CT scan. According to the Walch classification, a B2 glenoid is characterized by:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior subluxation with biconcave posterior wear
Explanation
The Walch B2 glenoid in primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis is characterized by posterior subluxation of the humeral head and asymmetric posterior glenoid wear, creating a classic biconcave shape with increased retroversion.
Question 2744
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy. Postoperatively, she achieves 150 degrees of active forward elevation but complains of profound weakness and inability to actively externally rotate her arm when at her side. Which of the following concurrent procedures would have best addressed this specific postoperative deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
Loss of active external rotation with the arm at the side is due to an absent or non-functional teres minor (often seen in massive posterosuperior cuff tears). A latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer to the greater tuberosity is indicated to restore active external rotation.
Question 2745
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 82-year-old female presents with a severely comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a fall. Imaging reveals a disrupted medial hinge, less than 2 mm of metaphyseal extension attached to the articular segment, and severe osteoporosis. A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) is chosen over open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). What biomechanical principle explains the functional success of rTSA in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medialization and distalization of the center of rotation
Explanation
Reverse TSA medializes and distalizes the joint's center of rotation. This increases the deltoid muscle's moment arm and resting tension, allowing it to substitute for the deficient rotator cuff in elevating the arm.
Question 2746
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 45-year-old woman undergoes a posterior triangle lymph node biopsy. Three weeks later, she complains of a dull ache in her shoulder and an inability to elevate her arm above 90 degrees. Examination shows lateral displacement and downward rotation of the scapula. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is the primary affected muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve; Trapezius
Explanation
Injury to the spinal accessory nerve during posterior cervical triangle surgery denervates the trapezius. This results in lateral winging and downward rotation of the scapula, distinguishing it from the medial winging seen in long thoracic nerve palsy.
Question 2747
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of progressive shoulder stiffness and pain, currently in the "freezing" stage of idiopathic adhesive capsulitis. Histologic evaluation of her shoulder capsule would most likely show an abundance of which cell type, and contracture of which primary structure in the rotator interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibroblasts; Coracohumeral ligament
Explanation
Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by a fibroblastic proliferation and multilocular cytokine expression (e.g., TGF-beta). The pathognomonic macroscopic finding is a thick, contracted coracohumeral ligament within the rotator interval.
Question 2748
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 75-year-old man is 4 years status post a Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs show Grade 3 scapular notching. Which intraoperative technical error most significantly increases the risk of this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior baseplate positioning
Explanation
Scapular notching is caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral tray against the inferior scapular neck. Superior baseplate positioning fails to provide adequate inferior overhang, significantly increasing the risk of notching.
Question 2749
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
An orthopaedic surgeon is planning an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty for a 68-year-old man with primary osteoarthritis. Preoperative axillary CT imaging demonstrates a biconcave glenoid with severe posterior cartilaginous wear and 22 degrees of retroversion. According to the Walch classification, what type of glenoid morphology is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. B2
Explanation
The Walch B2 glenoid is defined by an asymmetric, biconcave morphology with posterior wear and increased retroversion. It is highly associated with posterior subluxation of the humeral head in primary osteoarthritis.
Question 2750
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after suffering a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of severe anterior shoulder pain. On examination, his arm is fixed in internal rotation, and he has zero degrees of active or passive external rotation. The AP shoulder radiograph shows a "lightbulb sign." What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction using traction-countertraction and gentle external rotation
Explanation
The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation (fixed internal rotation, 'lightbulb sign' from internal rotation on AP view). Initial management is closed reduction, typically utilizing axial traction with gentle anterior translation and external rotation.
Question 2751
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of scapular notching postoperatively, which of the following baseplate and glenosphere configurations is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior placement of the baseplate with an inferiorly eccentric glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty can be minimized by placing the glenoid baseplate inferiorly and using an inferiorly eccentric or overhanging glenosphere. Lateralization and inferior tilt of the baseplate also independently reduce the incidence of inferior scapular impingement.
Question 2752
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 68-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm past 45 degrees. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head and severe glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It alters the joint's center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.
Question 2753
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
Which of the following comorbidities is most strongly associated with both the development of adhesive capsulitis and a more refractory course to conservative treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diabetes mellitus
Explanation
Diabetes mellitus is the strongest risk factor for adhesive capsulitis, occurring in up to 20% of diabetic patients. These patients generally have a more protracted course and poorer response to conservative management.
Question 2754
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old woman with severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis undergoes an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Ten years later, she presents with progressive pain and a loss of active elevation. What is the most common cause of late failure in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Glenoid component loosening
Explanation
Aseptic glenoid component loosening is the most common complication and cause of late failure following anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Eccentric wear and rocking horse forces contribute to this failure mode.
Question 2755
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man sustains a severe elbow injury. Imaging confirms a terrible triad injury pattern.
What is the recommended sequence of surgical reconstruction to restore elbow stability?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury builds stability from deep/anterior to superficial/lateral: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair/replacement, and finally lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair.
Question 2756
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 40-year-old manual laborer complains of right shoulder ache and a prominent medial scapular border, especially when doing a wall push-up. An injury to which nerve is responsible for this physical finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long thoracic nerve
Explanation
Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is associated with spinal accessory nerve (trapezius) palsy.
Question 2757
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 72-year-old woman undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Postoperatively, what surgical technique modification regarding glenoid baseplate and glenosphere positioning has been biomechanically and clinically proven to minimize the risk of inferior scapular notching?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
Explanation
Inferior positioning and inferior tilt of the glenosphere in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty limit mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck during adduction. This technique effectively minimizes the risk of scapular notching, which is the most common radiographic complication of rTSA.
Question 2758
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 65-year-old woman with cuff tear arthropathy undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. During templating and component positioning, which of the following modifications minimizes the risk of scapular notching?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
Explanation
Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere, along with lateralization, decrease the risk of scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty by improving clearance between the humeral component and the inferior scapular neck.
Question 2759
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a significant decrease in throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree deficit in glenohumeral internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the most likely primary pathophysiology for this range of motion deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is typically caused by a contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) and posterior capsule, leading to a posterosuperior shift of the humeral head during the cocking phase.
Question 2760
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and inability to actively elevate his arm above 40 degrees. Passive elevation is 150 degrees. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. The deltoid is functioning normally. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis, provided the deltoid is intact to power the reverse construct.
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