Menu

Question 2721

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 55-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with severe, progressive shoulder pain and stiffness over the past 4 months. Examination reveals global loss of active and passive range of motion, with external rotation limited to 10 degrees. Radiographs are normal. The pathophysiology of this condition is primarily characterized by fibroblastic proliferation and thickening of which capsular structures?

. Inferior glenohumeral ligament only
. Superior labrum and biceps anchor
. Rotator interval and coracohumeral ligament
. Posterior joint capsule
. Subacromial bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator interval and coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) demonstrates significant fibroblastic proliferation, most notably in the rotator interval and the coracohumeral ligament. Contracture of the coracohumeral ligament is the primary reason for the pathognomonic loss of external rotation.

Question 2722

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old woman presents with persistent shoulder pain and weakness 6 months after a posterior triangle cervical lymph node biopsy. Examination reveals lateral winging of the scapula and an inability to actively abduct the arm past 90 degrees. If nonoperative management fails, which tendon transfer procedure is most appropriate?

. Pectoralis major to subscapularis transfer
. Latissimus dorsi to greater tuberosity transfer
. Eden-Lange procedure (transfer of levator scapulae, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor)
. Split pectoralis major to the long thoracic nerve
. Lower trapezius transfer to the infraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eden-Lange procedure (transfer of levator scapulae, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor)


Explanation

Lateral winging of the scapula suggests spinal accessory nerve palsy leading to trapezius paralysis, often iatrogenic from posterior triangle neck surgery. The Eden-Lange procedure transfers the levator scapulae and rhomboids to the lateral scapula to replicate trapezius function.

Question 2723

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old male with a known chronic, massive rotator cuff tear presents with worsening shoulder pain. Plain radiographs show an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm, acetabularization of the coracoacromial arch, and severe narrowing of the glenohumeral joint space with inferior osteophytes. According to the Hamada classification, what grade is this patient's rotator cuff tear arthropathy?

. Grade 1
. Grade 2
. Grade 3
. Grade 4
. Grade 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade 4


Explanation

The Hamada classification stages rotator cuff arthropathy: Grade 1 is AHI >6mm; Grade 2 is AHI <5mm; Grade 3 adds acetabularization of the acromion; Grade 4 features the addition of glenohumeral arthritis (joint space narrowing); Grade 5 includes humeral head collapse/necrosis.

Question 2724

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 28-year-old male bodybuilder felt a sudden 'pop' in his anterior axilla while performing heavy bench presses. Physical examination demonstrates the loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction of the shoulder. MRI confirms a complete tear of the sternal head of the pectoralis major. Where does the majority of these ruptures anatomically occur?

. At the origin on the clavicle
. At the origin on the sternum
. At the musculotendinous junction
. At the tendon insertion onto the humerus
. Within the mid-substance of the muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At the tendon insertion onto the humerus


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures, especially in weightlifters performing bench presses, most commonly occur at or near the tendon's insertion onto the humerus. Operative repair of the distal tendon insertion is highly successful and recommended in active individuals.

Question 2725

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 70-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. The Grammont-style reverse prosthesis changes the biomechanics of the shoulder joint to restore active elevation. Which of the following best describes this biomechanical alteration?

. It lateralizes and superiorly shifts the center of rotation.
. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation.
. It lateralizes the center of rotation while maintaining normal superior-inferior position.
. It decreases the deltoid moment arm.
. It increases the shearing forces at the glenoid bone-implant interface.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation.


Explanation

The Grammont design principles for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty include medializing and distalizing the center of rotation. This increases the deltoid moment arm, converts shear forces to compressive forces at the glenoid, and allows the deltoid to compensate for a deficient rotator cuff.

Question 2726

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive pain and stiffness 8 months after an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Serum ESR and CRP are within normal limits. Joint aspiration is performed, and cultures are held for 14 days, eventually growing Cutibacterium acnes. Which of the following characterizes this organism?

. Gram-negative aerobic bacillus
. Gram-positive aerobic coccus
. Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus
. Gram-negative anaerobic coccus
. Acid-fast aerobic bacillus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus


Explanation

Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacterium acnes) is a slow-growing, Gram-positive, anaerobic (or microaerophilic) bacillus commonly found in the sebaceous glands of the shoulder. It is a frequent cause of indolent periprosthetic shoulder infections.

Question 2727

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree loss of glenohumeral internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. Pathologic contracture of which structure is primarily responsible for this physical exam finding?

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead throwers is classically driven by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule, specifically the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL).

Question 2728

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 26-year-old man presents with right shoulder pain and weakness 3 weeks after a viral illness. On examination, forward elevation is limited to 90 degrees, and there is prominent medial winging of the scapula when he pushes against a wall.

Which nerve is most likely affected, and what muscle does it innervate?

. Spinal accessory nerve; Trapezius
. Long thoracic nerve; Serratus anterior
. Dorsal scapular nerve; Rhomboids
. Suprascapular nerve; Supraspinatus
. Axillary nerve; Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve; Serratus anterior


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Viral illness can trigger a neuritis (Parsonage-Turner syndrome) causing this palsy.

Question 2729

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 48-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of severe, diffuse shoulder pain and significant loss of active and passive range of motion. Histological analysis of the joint capsule in this condition is most likely to show which of the following?
. Abundant neutrophil infiltration with necrosis
. Extensive chondrocyte clustering and focal calcification
. Fibroblastic proliferation and dense type III collagen deposition
. Granuloma formation with multinucleated giant cells
. Fibrinoid necrosis of the blood vessel walls

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblastic proliferation and dense type III collagen deposition


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis is characterized histologically by a fibroblastic proliferation and dense deposition of type III collagen (similar to Dupuytren's disease), driven by inflammatory cytokines such as TGF-beta.

Question 2730

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 60-year-old man undergoes a lower trapezius tendon transfer augmented with an Achilles tendon allograft for a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear.

What nerve supplies the transferred muscle, and what primary motion is restored?

. Thoracodorsal nerve; Internal rotation
. Spinal accessory nerve; External rotation
. Long thoracic nerve; Forward elevation
. Dorsal scapular nerve; Abduction
. Axillary nerve; External rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve; External rotation


Explanation

The lower trapezius transfer is primarily used to restore external rotation in patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears. The trapezius is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (Cranial Nerve XI).

Question 2731

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 60 degrees, though passive elevation is 150 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head articulating with the acromion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis in the elderly. It shifts the center of rotation medially and inferiorly, recruiting the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.

Question 2732

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 55-year-old woman presents with 4 months of progressive, insidious onset right shoulder pain and stiffness. Physical examination shows significantly restricted active and passive external rotation with the arm at the side. Radiographs are normal. Which of the following systemic conditions is most strongly associated with this diagnosis and portends a more refractory clinical course?

. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Hypothyroidism
. Diabetes mellitus
. Hyperparathyroidism
. Chronic kidney disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) has a strong association with diabetes mellitus, occurring in up to 20% of diabetic patients. These patients tend to have a more protracted and treatment-resistant clinical course compared to the idiopathic population.

Question 2733

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 32-year-old man presents with right shoulder weakness 3 months after a severe viral illness. Examination demonstrates pronounced medial winging of the scapula when he pushes against a wall. EMG confirms a localized nerve injury. If nonoperative management fails after 12 to 18 months, which surgical procedure is most appropriate?

. Eden-Lange procedure
. Split pectoralis major transfer
. Modified Weaver-Dunn procedure
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Split pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by serratus anterior palsy secondary to long thoracic nerve injury. The split pectoralis major tendon transfer is the procedure of choice for symptomatic, irreversible serratus anterior palsy.

Question 2734

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old female undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy. By what primary biomechanical mechanism does this prosthesis restore active shoulder elevation?

. Lateralization and superior displacement of the center of rotation
. Medialization and inferior displacement of the center of rotation
. Lateralization and inferior displacement of the center of rotation
. Medialization and superior displacement of the center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization and inferior displacement of the center of rotation


Explanation

RTSA shifts the center of rotation medially and inferiorly. This mechanism increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing the deltoid to effectively recruit more muscle fibers to elevate the arm in the absence of a functioning rotator cuff.

Question 2735

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man with primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis is planned for an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. CT imaging demonstrates a biconcave glenoid with severe posterior cartilage wear and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. This represents which Walch classification?

. Type A2
. Type B1
. Type B2
. Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type B2


Explanation

Walch Type B2 glenoids are characterized by a biconcave surface with asymmetric posterior cartilage wear and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. This morphology carries a high risk of early glenoid loosening if not properly corrected during arthroplasty.

Question 2736

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 76-year-old female presents with acute lateral shoulder pain 4 months after undergoing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal an acromial base stress fracture (Levy Type II). Which surgical factor most significantly increases the risk of this complication?

. Medialization of the glenosphere
. Overtensioning of the deltoid
. Undersizing the humeral stem
. Placing the glenosphere in 10 degrees of inferior tilt

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overtensioning of the deltoid


Explanation

Acromial stress fractures after RTSA are strongly associated with overtensioning of the deltoid, which places excessive load on the acromion. Excessive lateralization or distalization can contribute to this detrimental overtensioning.

Question 2737

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 24-year-old carpenter presents with a dull ache in his right shoulder and inability to fully elevate his arm. Examination reveals medial winging of the scapula that worsens when he pushes against a wall. Injury to which nerve is the most likely cause?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is typically associated with spinal accessory nerve injury (trapezius paralysis).

Question 2738

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Which design parameter of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty most effectively decreases the risk of scapular notching?

. Superior baseplate tilt
. Medialized glenosphere
. Inferior glenosphere overhang
. Increased humeral neck-shaft angle
. Lateralized center of rotation on humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior glenosphere overhang


Explanation

Inferior placement and overhang of the glenosphere relative to the inferior glenoid rim effectively minimizes scapular notching by avoiding impingement of the humeral cup on the scapular neck during adduction.

Question 2739

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man presents with insidious onset of shoulder pain 18 months following an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Inflammatory markers are normal. Aspirate cultures grow Cutibacterium acnes at 10 days. Which of the following best describes this organism?

. Gram-negative aerobic bacillus
. Gram-positive aerobic coccus
. Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus
. Gram-negative anaerobic coccus
. Acid-fast bacillus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus


Explanation

Cutibacterium (formerly Propionibacterium) acnes is a Gram-positive, anaerobic (to aerotolerant) bacillus that is a common cause of indolent prosthetic joint infections in the shoulder.

Question 2740

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When converting a patient from an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty to a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, what happens to the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint?

. It moves superiorly and laterally
. It moves superiorly and medially
. It moves inferiorly and laterally
. It moves inferiorly and medially
. It remains unchanged

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It moves inferiorly and medially


Explanation

A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty moves the center of rotation inferiorly and medially. This increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing the deltoid to effectively recruit more fibers for shoulder elevation.