This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2801
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old diabetic female presents with an acute exacerbation of excruciating shoulder pain. Radiographs reveal a large, amorphous calcific deposit in the supraspinatus tendon. During which phase of calcific tendinitis does the patient typically experience the most severe pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resorptive phase
Explanation
Calcific tendinitis is most acutely painful during the resorptive phase. In this stage, vascular invasion and macrophage infiltration cause severe swelling and extreme inflammatory pain within the tendon.
Question 2802
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a patient undergoing reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA), which of the following baseplate positioning strategies is most effective in minimizing the risk of postoperative scapular notching?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior tilt and inferior overhang
Explanation
Scapular notching is a frequent complication in reverse shoulder arthroplasty caused by mechanical impingement. Positioning the glenosphere with an inferior tilt and inferior overhang minimizes impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck during adduction.
Question 2803
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
In a patient undergoing anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA), failure to correct excessive posterior glenoid retroversion (B2 glenoid) is most likely to result in which of the following mechanisms of failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rocking horse phenomenon leading to glenoid component loosening
Explanation
Uncorrected posterior glenoid retroversion and posterior humeral head subluxation lead to eccentric loading on the posterior aspect of the glenoid component. This causes a "rocking horse" phenomenon, resulting in early catastrophic glenoid loosening.
Question 2804
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes presents with a profound, painful loss of active and passive shoulder external rotation with the arm at the side. In primary adhesive capsulitis, which structures exhibit the most significant fibroblastic proliferation and contracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracohumeral ligament and rotator interval
Explanation
The primary histopathology of adhesive capsulitis involves dense fibroblastic proliferation and thickening of the joint capsule. This is most prominent at the rotator interval and coracohumeral ligament, directly restricting external rotation with the arm at the side.
Question 2805
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports medial elbow pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with a UCL injury. Which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It originates from the anteroinferior medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle.
Question 2806
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old bodybuilder hears a "pop" in his antecubital fossa while performing heavy deadlifts. He has a reverse Popeye sign and weakness in forearm supination. The distal biceps tendon inserts onto which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial tuberosity
Explanation
The distal biceps tendon inserts primarily on the posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity. This anatomical position allows the biceps to act as a powerful supinator of the forearm.
Question 2807
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During a distal biceps tendon repair, the surgeon must reattach the tendon to its anatomical footprint on the radial tuberosity. In which portion of the radial tuberosity does the distal biceps predominantly insert?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar and posterior
Explanation
The distal biceps tendon inserts on the ulnar and posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity. This eccentric, posterior insertion maximizes its mechanical advantage as a powerful supinator of the forearm.
Question 2808
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old child presents with a painful elbow after falling from monkey bars. On the true anteroposterior (AP) radiograph of the elbow, which of the following secondary ossification centers should typically be visible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Capitellum, radial head, and medial epicondyle
Explanation
Ossification centers appear in the order of CRITOE: Capitellum (1 yr), Radial head (3 yrs), Internal/medial epicondyle (5 yrs), Trochlea (7 yrs), Olecranon (9 yrs), External/lateral epicondyle (11 yrs). At 6 years old, the capitellum, radial head, and medial epicondyle are expected to be visible.
Question 2809
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A baseball pitcher undergoes reconstruction of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow. Which bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It originates from the anteroinferior medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the ulna.
Question 2810
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 25-year-old male sustains a midshaft humerus fracture and presents with an inability to extend his wrist and fingers. The injured nerve normally pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the arm at approximately what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 cm
Explanation
The radial nerve passes from the posterior to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle.
Question 2811
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
Following a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck, a patient develops shoulder weakness and lateral scapular winging. Which of the following muscles is primarily affected due to the injured nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trapezius
Explanation
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) courses through the posterior triangle of the neck and innervates the trapezius. Injury results in lateral scapular winging, contrasting with medial winging seen in serratus anterior paralysis from long thoracic nerve injury.
Question 2812
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old bodybuilder sustains a distal biceps tendon rupture. During surgical repair through a single anterior incision, the surgeon must be mindful of a nerve that crosses the surgical field deep to the brachioradialis. Which nerve is most at risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) supinates around the radial neck and passes through the supinator muscle. It is at significant risk during distal biceps repair, especially with excessive lateral retraction or incorrect placement of retractors.
Question 2813
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 55-year-old patient undergoes a modified radical neck dissection for malignancy. Postoperatively, she is unable to actively elevate her arm above 90 degrees and demonstrates lateral winging of the scapula. Which nerve was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve
Explanation
Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by trapezius muscle paralysis due to spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) injury, a known complication of neck dissections. Medial winging is caused by serratus anterior weakness secondary to long thoracic nerve injury.
Question 2814
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old male sustains a traction injury to his brachial plexus. Clinical examination reveals profound weakness in shoulder extension and internal rotation, but intact rhomboid and serratus anterior function. Which of the following cords of the brachial plexus is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cord
Explanation
The posterior cord gives rise to the thoracodorsal nerve (latissimus dorsi, shoulder extension) and upper/lower subscapular nerves (subscapularis, internal rotation). The rhomboids and serratus anterior are innervated by more proximal roots.
Question 2815
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient exhibits posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Reconstruction of the primary deficient ligament is planned. What is the anatomic insertion of this key stabilizing ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator crest of the ulna
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to PLRI of the elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts firmly on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.
Question 2816
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The radiographs of the elbow and lower legs of a patient with chondroectodermal dysplasia demonstrate short and thick tubular bones as seen below. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Autosomal recessive
Explanation
Correct Answer: BEllis-van Creveld syndrome (chondroectodermal dysplasia) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Question 2817
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 60-year-old man presents with chronic nodular swelling of his elbows and fingers. Radiographs show periarticular punched-out lytic lesions with overhanging edges. Which of the following is the most likely composition of these nodules?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Monosodium urate
Explanation
The radiographic findings of punched-out lesions with "overhanging edges" (Martel sign) are characteristic of chronic tophaceous gout. These tophi are composed of monosodium urate crystals surrounded by a granulomatous inflammatory response.
Question 2818
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 12-year-old boy with Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type V presents with progressive loss of forearm pronation and supination. Radiographs reveal calcification of the interosseous membrane and a dislocated radial head. He reports mild pain but significant functional limitation. What is the most appropriate orthopedic management of the radial head dislocation in this specific patient population?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and occupational therapy.
Explanation
Correct Answer: COsteogenesis Imperfecta Type V is uniquely characterized by the triad of hyperplastic callus formation, calcification of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, and radial head dislocation. Surgical intervention for the radial head dislocation (such as excision, reduction, or interosseous membrane release) is generally contraindicated. Surgery in these patients frequently provokes massive hyperplastic callus formation, which can lead to worsening stiffness, severe pain, and complete radioulnar synostosis. Observation and functional adaptation through occupational therapy is the standard of care.
Question 2819
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 48-year-old woman presents with severe, progressive right shoulder swelling and instability over the last 6 months. She reports minimal pain despite significant deformity. Radiographs show extensive bone resorption of the humeral head and glenoid with intra-articular loose bodies.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this specific shoulder pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-operative management with activity modification and a sling
Explanation
The clinical picture describes a neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy of the shoulder, highly associated with syringomyelia. Surgical interventions like arthroplasty or arthrodesis have exceptionally high failure rates due to lack of protective sensation, making non-operative management the standard of care.
Question 2820
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old male presents with painless swelling and instability of his right shoulder over the past 6 months. Neurological examination reveals a loss of pain and temperature sensation over his shoulders and upper back, with preserved light touch and proprioception.
What is the underlying pathophysiology of his shoulder pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Expansion of a cystic cavity in the spinal cord destroying the anterior white commissure
Explanation
The patient presents with a Charcot shoulder and a cape-like dissociated sensory loss, classic for syringomyelia. A syrinx typically expands and destroys the crossing spinothalamic tracts in the anterior white commissure first, leading to loss of pain and temperature sensation.
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