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Question 1781

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old woman has had intense pain in her foot for the last 3 days. She also reports a mild fever and difficulty with shoe wear. Examination reveals a swollen, slightly erythematous warm foot with tenderness at the great toe metatarsophalangeal joint and pain with passive motion of the joint. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 13. Which of the following will best aid in determining a definitive diagnosis?
. Gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the great toe
. Serum uric acid level, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate
. Serum rheumatoid factor
. Aspiration of the first metatarsophalangeal joint
. Fasting serum glucose level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspiration of the first metatarsophalangeal joint


Explanation

The patient has gouty arthropathy of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This definitive diagnosis is achieved with aspiration of the joint and polarized light microscopy that shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals. Differential diagnoses of infectious arthritis and pseudogout are also definitively made through joint aspiration. Although rheumatoid arthritis is a possibility, a serum rheumatoid factor is not always diagnostic and a patient with rheumatoid arthritis may have concomitant gouty arthritis. The radiographic findings are not typical of diabetes mellitus or of a patient with Charcot arthropathy.

Question 1782

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

What is the most common physical examination finding in a patient with chronic painful spondylolysis? Review Topic

. Positive straight leg raise
. Pain with forward flexion
. Pain with lumbar extension
. Absent tendo-Achilles reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive straight leg raise


Explanation

Patients with spondylolysis typically demonstrate increased pain with lumbar extension, not with forward flexion. In the absence of a disk herniation, a straight leg raise test result should be negative. Pain with forward flexion is not common in spondylolysis, and without nerve root impingement there should be no loss of the tendo-Achilles reflex.

Question 1783

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An 18-year-old man sustained a traumatic laceration of the common peroneal nerve when glass fell on the outer part of his leg 1 year ago. He has used a molded foot and ankle orthosis for the past 10 months, but would now like surgical intervention. Electromyography shows no function in the anterior or lateral compartments. He has 5/5 muscle strength of the superficial and deep posterior compartments. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Gastrocsoleus recession
. Subtalar fusion
. Split anterior tibial tendon transfer
. Split posterior tibial tendon transfer
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gastrocsoleus recession


Explanation

In a patient with a drop foot and with 5/5 muscle strength of the posterior tibial tendon, a split posterior tibial tendon transfer would be the most appropriate treatment option based on the options presented. The deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior tibial tendon. This muscle has been affected by the injury; therefore, the anterior tibial tendon cannot be transferred. A subtalar fusion would help correct inversion and eversion deformities, but is not effective for plantar flexion deformities. The foot drop is caused by a neurologic condition in this patient, not a contracture of the gastrocsoleus complex. Therefore, a recession would not be beneficial. A flexorhallucis longus tendon transfer would not take the deforming force and make it a corrective force.

Question 1784

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old professional dancer reports a 3-month history of progressive pain in the posterior aspect of the left ankle. Her symptoms are worse when she assumes the en pointe position. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation at the posterolateral aspect of the ankle posterior to the peroneal tendons which is made worse with passive plantar flexion. There is no nodularity, fluctuance, or tenderness of the Achilles tendon. The neurovascular examination is unremarkable. A lateral radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, respectively. Management should consist of
. a short leg cast with the ankle in slight plantar flexion.
. a corticosteroid injection into the retrocalcaneal bursa.
. excision of the os trigonum.
. excision of the superior tuberosity of the calcaneus.
. ankle arthroscopy with loose body removal.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. excision of the os trigonum.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The imaging studies reveal findings typical of the os trigonum syndrome. This condition results from inflammation between the os trigonum and the adjacent talus. The symptoms of posterior ankle pain are exacerbated by plantar flexion, which stresses the fibrous union between these two bones. Definitive management of the high-level athlete involves excision of the os trigonum from a medial approach, although arthroscopic excision has also been described. The os trigonum is not an intra-articular structure; therefore, ankle arthroscopy is neither diagnostic nor therapeutic.

Question 1785

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 21a and 21b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 15-year-old girl who has a deformity of her feet. Her parents are concerned because there is a family history of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. The patient reports some mild instability of the ankle and has noticed mild early callosities; however, she is not having any significant pain. Coleman block testing reveals a forefoot valgus and supple hindfoot. She has weakness to eversion and dorsiflexion. Initial management should consist of:
. dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal with peroneus longus to brevis transfer.
. plantar fasciotomy with dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal and calcaneal osteotomy.
. a stretching and strengthening physical therapy program and accommodative inserts.
. observation.
. calcaneal osteotomy, dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal, peroneus longus to brevis transfer, plantar fascia release, Achilles tendon lengthening, and midfoot osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a stretching and strengthening physical therapy program and accommodative inserts.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Initial management of a young patient with a cavovarus deformity of the foot and a family history of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease should focus on mobilization and strengthening of the weakening muscular units and an accommodative insert. Surgical intervention should be delayed until progression of the deformity begins to cause symptoms and/or weakness of the muscular units, resulting in contractures of the antagonistic muscle units.

Question 1786

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old woman complains of ankle pain with weightbearing for the last 2 years. She recalls spraining her ankle more than 10 years ago. She plays tennis and regularly walks 5 miles a day for exercise, but has had to give up these activities over the last few months because of pain. Examination reveals limitation in ankle dorsi- and plantar flexion. A course of non-operative management has been unsuccessful. Which of the following options will most likely provide pain relief and allow her to return to her previous activity level?
. Arthroscopic debridement
. Supramalleolar osteotomy
. Talar resurfacing
. Total ankle replacement
. Ankle arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supramalleolar osteotomy


Explanation

This young, active patient has ankle valgus following previous trauma. A corrective supramalleolar osteotomy of the tibia will provide pain relief and improve range of motion, allowing return to sports. Supramalleolar osteotomy may be performed for varus or valgus ankles. They are suited for near-normal ROM, minimal talar-tilt or varus heel alignment, and asymmetric ankle arthritis.

Question 1787

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The patient undergoes further testing and it is discovered that the lesion encompasses 70% of the joint. What is the best next treatment option?
. Arthroscopic debridement
. Subtalar arthroereisis
. Subtalar fusion
. Lesion resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar fusion


Explanation

A tarsal coalition is an abnormal connection of 2 or more bones in the foot. Surgical options include resection with interposition of muscle or fatty tissue from another area of the body or fusions when large (exceeding 50% of the joint), more severe coalitions are encountered.

Question 1788

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 3a and 3b show the current radiographs of a 59-year-old woman who has pain and deformity after undergoing bunion surgery 1 year ago. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
. revision first metatarsal osteotomy.
. medial soft-tissue release and lateral plication.
. metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis.
. transfer of the extensor hallucis longus tendon.
. reverse Akin osteotomy of the proximal phalanx.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The hallux varus seen in this patient is most likely the result of a combination of causes. Based on the degenerative changes and the significant shortening of the first metatarsal relative to the second metatarsal, a metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. The other surgical approaches are not expected to provide a satisfactory result. REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Adult hallux valgus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 2000, pp 150-269. Skalley TC, Myerson MS: The operative treatment of acquired hallux varus. Clin Orthop 1994;306:183-191.

Question 1789

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 23a and 23b show the radiograph and clinical photograph of a patient who reports a reduced ability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her great toe after undergoing a Chevron-Akin bunionectomy. What is the most likely cause?
. Interphalangeal joint arthritis
. Laceration of the flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Sesamoid entrapment
. Metatarsal malunion
. Phalangeal malunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laceration of the flexor hallucis longus tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The flexor hallucis longus tendon is at risk during a Chevron-Akin osteotomy because of its close relationship to the base of the proximal phalanx. The radiograph reveals a reduced ability to flex the interphalangeal joint secondary to the flexor hallucis longus laceration. The other complications are not supported by the radiograph. REFERENCES: Tollison ME, Baxter DE: Combination chevron plus Akin osteotomy for hallux valgus: Should age be a limiting factor? Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:477-481. Scaduto AA, Cracchiolo A III: Lacerations and ruptures of the flexor or extensor hallucis longus tendons. Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:725-736.

Question 1790

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 61-year-old man has a symptomatic bunionette that is refractory to nonsurgical management. A radiograph is shown in Figure 6. What is the optimal surgical correction?
. Fifth metatarsal head lateral ostectomy
. Fifth metatarsal head excision
. Metatarsal osteotomy and fifth metatarsal head ostectomy
. Fifth metatarsal plantar condylectomy
. Fifth metatarsophalangeal Silastic implant arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatarsal osteotomy and fifth metatarsal head ostectomy


Explanation

The patient has a bunionette with a large 4-5 intermetatarsal angle. This requires not only ostectomy of the lateral prominence but metatarsal osteotomy to decrease the intermetatarsal angle. Excising the head results in a flail joint and creates the possibility of a transfer lesion. Condylectomy can reduce plantar pressures but does not address the bunionette. The joint surface is well maintained, thus there are no indications for resection.

Question 1791

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The injury seen in the CT scan shown in Figure 56 is related to or associated with injury to which of the following structures?
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Subtalar joint
. Syndesmosis
. Superior peroneal retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Syndesmosis


Explanation

The right syndesmosis appears disrupted on the CT scan when compared to the normal left side. CT can be helpful in determining injury to the syndesmosis, especially with occult clinical findings.

Question 1792

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 3-year-old boy who was treated with Ponseti-method casting demonstrates supination of the affected foot during swing phase of gait. His ankle has 20 degrees of active and passive dorsiflexion and 45 degrees of plantar flexion. What is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic

. Anterior tibialis tendon lengthening
. Anterior tibialis tendon transfer to a dorsal lateral foot position
. Anterior tibialis tendon transfer through the interosseous membrane to the calcaneus
. Posterior tibialis tendon transfer through the interosseous membrane to the dorsum of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibialis tendon lengthening


Explanation

Dynamic supination is a known residual problem after the Ponseti casting technique is used. Ponseti applied the principles of the Garceau procedure and transferred the entire anterior tibialis tendon to the lateral cuneiform. The anterior tibialis continues to act as a dorsiflexor of the foot but with a more advantageous trajectory. Lengthening the anterior tibialis by itself will not redirect the pull of the muscle. Likewise, the posterior tibialis tendon transfer through the interosseous membrane will not address the supinating force of the anterior tibialis. It is used when the anterior and lateral compartment muscles are either not functioning or weak in relationship to the posterior tibialis. The anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the calcaneus has been used successfully in myelodysplasia for calcaneal deformity.

Question 1793

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old woman underwent a distal chevron bunionectomy 2 months ago. Her postoperative recovery had been uneventful until 1 week ago. She now has new onset pain and dorsal swelling in the area of the third metatarsal. A radiograph is shown in Figure 27. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Transfer metatarsalgia
. Mortonโ€™s neuroma
. Metatarsal stress fracture
. Freibergโ€™s infraction
. Metatarsophalangeal synovitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatarsal stress fracture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Based on findings of a sudden increase in pain with associated swelling, the most likely diagnosis is a stress fracture. The initial radiographic findings usually will be negative. Mortonโ€™s neuroma and transfer metatarsalgia are not associated with swelling. Metatarsophalangeal synovitis usually involves the second metatarsophalangeal joint. Freibergโ€™s infraction is seen clearly on a radiograph.

Question 1794

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The arthroscopic views shown in Figures 31a and 31b reveal extensive synovitis in the anterolateral corner of the ankle overlying a band of tissue sometimes implicated in soft-tissue impingement of the ankle following a chronic sprain injury. This band is a portion of the:
. Anteroinferior tibiofibular ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Extensor retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroinferior tibiofibular ligament


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The arthroscopic views show the lateral side of the ankle as demonstrated by the presence of the tibiofibular articulation. As is typical in chronic anterolateral impingement, synovitis overlies the anteroinferior band of the tibiofibular ligament, the most distal portion of the anterior syndesmosis. Hypertrophic scar formed on or in this ligament can impinge on the lateral margin of the talar dome and has been associated with chronic anterolateral ankle pain.

Question 1795

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 69-year-old woman has rigid painful left pes planus that has become less symptomatic with casting. She has multiple comorbidities and is not a good surgical candidate. She has failed a trial of activity without any supports.
. Observation
. Arizona brace
. Medial arch support
. Casting
. Hindfoot fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arizona brace


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Treatment for pes planus revolves around 2 clinical parameters: pain and rigidity. In the absence of pain, no intervention is warranted. Rigid pes planus is most frequently associated with a tarsal coalition. The initial treatment for painful pes planus, whether flexible or rigid, is immobilization, usually in a walking cast. This often is sufficient to relieve symptoms on a permanent basis. Surgery should be contemplated only when this treatment fails. In stage 3, the pes planus is rigid. If it is painful, surgical treatment, which consists of a triple arthrodesis, may be considered. However, if medical constraints or patient preference preclude surgery, an Arizona brace can provide sufficient support to reduce symptoms to an acceptable level to perform activities of daily living.

Question 1796

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Following a fall from a height of 5 feet, a patient reports pain along the lateral border of the foot. The CT scan shown in Figure 54 indicates what pathology?
. Impaction injury of the cuboid
. Retracted os peroneum
. Fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture
. Avulsion injury of the bifurcate (Y) ligament
. Lisfranc injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avulsion injury of the bifurcate (Y) ligament


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The CT scan reveals an avulsion of the dorsal beak of the anterior process of the calcaneus. This common fracture is an avulsion of the origin of the bifurcate ligament, which runs from the anterior calcaneal process to both the cuboid and the lateral aspect of the navicular. An inversion mechanism is common, and the fracture is often missed in evaluation for a suspected ankle sprain. MRI may be useful in the diagnosis of these occult injuries, and suspicion should be present when tenderness exists over the superior portion of the anterior process of the calcaneus.

Question 1797

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 8a and 8b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 4-month-old infant who has a left foot deformity. Examination reveals that the foot deformity is an isolated entity, and the infant has no known neuromuscular conditions or genetic syndromes. Which of the following studies will best confirm the diagnosis?
. MRI of the foot
. Static ultrasound examination of the foot in dorsiflexion
. Lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantar flexion
. Lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum dorsiflexion
. CT of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantar flexion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The clinical photograph shows a rocker-bottom deformity, and the lateral radiograph suggests a congenital vertical talus deformity. A lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantar flexion is needed to demonstrate the fixed position of the deformity with malalignment of the talar-metatarsal axis. A fixed dislocation of the navicular on the talus differentiates a congenital vertical talus from the oblique talus with talonavicular subluxation.

Question 1798

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 10-year-old boy reports heel pain with sporting activities. An examination demonstrates gastrocnemius contracture and tenderness at the calcaneal apophysis. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the best next step?
. MRI
. Surgical intervention
. Activity modification
. Cast immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activity modification


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sever disease, or calcaneal apophysitis, is best treated with activity modification that includes rest, restriction from sports and running, and Achilles tendon stretching exercises. The diagnosis is clinical (rendering MRI study unnecessary) and the course is usually self-limited, obviating the need for surgery. Occasionally, children with severe symptoms may benefit from a short period of cast or fracture brace immobilization. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Sullivan RJ. Adolescent foot and ankle conditions. In: Pinzur MD, ED. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 4. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2008:47-55. Feldman DS. Osteochondrosis. In: Spivak JM, Di Cesare PE, Feldman DS, et al, eds. Orthopaedics: A Study Guide. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 1999:765-766.

Question 1799

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of
. distal Chevron osteotomy.
. proximal metatarsal osteotomy with soft-tissue release.
. shoe wear modifications.
. dorsal cheilectomy with Moberg osteotomy.
. hallux metatarsophalangeal joint arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. shoe wear modifications.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Surgery is not indicated in a patient who has a mild deformity and no pain. Shoe wear modifications should be recommended. REFERENCE: Mann RA, Coughlin MJ: Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, p 174.

Question 1800

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 29 shows the radiograph of a 25-year-old woman who has had a 3-month history of ankle pain after sustaining an inversion injury to the ankle. She reports occasional catching, but no sense of instability. Examination reveals ligament stability. Management should consist of
. a non-weight-bearing short leg cast.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. no weight bearing with motor exercises for 8 weeks.
. debridement, curettage, and drilling.
. an ankle brace or taping when participating in athletic activity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. debridement, curettage, and drilling.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteochondral lesions of the talar dome can have a traumatic or nontraumatic etiology. Most authors site a probable traumatic etiology for lateral lesions. Stage I and II lesions, which are composed of compressed subchondral bone or a partial detached osteochondral fragment, can be treated initially in a non-weight-bearing short leg cast for 6 weeks. Stage III medial lesions can also be treated in the same manner. If symptoms persist, the treatment of choice is debridement of the fracture, curettage of the lesion, and drilling of the subchondral bone. This treatment also applies to lateral stage III and all stage IV lesions. If the fragment is at least one third of the size of the talar dome, management should consist of open reduction and internal fixation. In patients with more chronic lesions (4 to 6 months of persistent pain), the threshold to proceed with surgery is lower, even in a stage II lesion. REFERENCES: Lutter LD, Mizel MS, Pfeffer GB (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 205-226. Pettine KA, Morrey BF: Osteochondral fractures of the talus: A long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:89-92.