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Question 1761

Topic: Forefoot

A 12-year-old girl has the painful foot deformity seen in Figure 79. You advise her that she has juvenile bunions. How do they differ from adult bunions?

. Metatarsus primus varus
. Large exostosis
. Rigidity of the metatarsal phalangeal joint
. Greater hallux valgus angle than in adult bunions
. Prominent bursal thickening over the medial eminence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatarsus primus varus


Explanation

The hallmark of the juvenile bunion is metatarsus primus varus. Increased flexibility of the first metatarsal phalangeal joint leads to increased deformity. The hallux valgusangle is less than the adult bunion. Bursal thickenings and prominence of the medial eminence are less in a juvenile bunion.

Question 1762

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 69 is the radiograph of a 9-year-old who has posterior hindfoot pain while running. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Kohler disease
. Thiemann disease
. Freiberg infraction
. Sever disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sever disease


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sever disease is a traction apophysitis at the Achilles tendon insertion on the calcaneus. Plain radiographs may be unremarkable for this condition. Other osteochondroses of the foot include Kohler disease (tarsal navicular), Freiberg infraction (lesser metatarsal head), and Thiemann disease (great toe phalanx).

Question 1763

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The cavovarus deformity associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease is caused by which of the following?
. Streptococcal disease during infancy
. Viral infection of the motor nerves
. Sex-linked selective motor imbalance
. Autosomal-dominant myelin sheath disease
. Germ cell defect leading to asymmetrical growth disturbance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal-dominant myelin sheath disease


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common inherited neuromuscular disease seen by orthopaedic surgeons is CMT, which is an inherited autosomal-dominant disease. It is more commonly seen in men due to the nature of the inheritance. Identification of cavus deformity in the foot of a child should arouse suspicion.

Question 1764

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 21-year-old basketball player inverts his foot during practice. Examination reveals obvious deformity of the hindfoot with a prominence of the talar head dorsolaterally and medial displacement of the forefoot. A radiograph is shown in Figure 17. What is the most likely obstacle to closed reduction?
. Posterior tibial tendon
. Impaction fracture of the head of the talus
. Posterior tibial neurovascular bundle
. Achilles tendon
. Calcaneus fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior tibial tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a medial subtalar dislocation. These injuries should be reduced as soon as possible to minimize risk to the skin. Most often, this can be done easily, and further radiographic evaluation then can be performed as necessary. On rare occasions, closed reduction is not possible because of fractures of the articular surface of the talus, navicular, interposed extensor digitorum brevis, or transverse fibers of the cruciate crural ligament. The posterior tibial tendon is the most common obstruction to closed reduction in lateral subtalar dislocations, which are less common than medial dislocations. The majority of both injuries can be managed by closed reduction and immobilization. REFERENCES: Mulroy RD: The tibialis posterior tendon as an obstacle to reduction of a lateral anterior subtalar dislocation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1953;37:859-863. Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations of the foot, in Rockwood CA, Green DP, Bucholz RW (eds): Fractures in Adults. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991, pp 2093-2100. Saltzman C, Marsh JL: Hindfoot dislocations: When are they not benign? J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:192-198.

Question 1765

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The patient in Figure 99 has pain at the first MTP joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
. Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
. First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
. First metatarsophalangeal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure


Explanation

DISCUSSION: General principles can be used as bunion surgery guidelines even though there is extensive debate on the topic. A distal metatarsal osteotomy is most appropriate for patients with mild deformity and no transfer metatarsalgia. A proximal osteotomy potentially can correct more severe deformities. A Lapidus procedure, or tarsometatarsal fusion, provides the highest potential to correct deformity plus the advantage of stabilizing the first tarsometatarsal joint and limiting or eliminating transfer metatarsalgia. A first MTP fusion is most appropriate for patients with severe first MTP arthrosis.

Question 1766

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 58-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the emergency department and he reports a 3-day history of a red swollen foot but no history of trauma. Examination reveals that the skin is intact, and the patient has discomfort with passive range of motion at the ankle, hindfoot, and midfoot joints. He denies any fever. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 7,800/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 40 mm/h, a C-reactive protein level of 23, and a serum glucose of 100. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a through 16c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Technetium Tc 99m triple phase bone scan
. Admit for elevation, observation, and IV antibiotics
. Total contact casting, no weight bearing, and weekly cast changes until erythema and swelling is decreased
. Immediate stabilization of the talus and midfoot with internal fixation and postoperative splinting, no weight bearing, and total contact casting
. Total contact casting, weight bearing as tolerated, with weekly cast changes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total contact casting, no weight bearing, and weekly cast changes until erythema and swelling is decreased


Explanation

Whereas it is difficult to distinguish between cellulitis, septic joint, osteomyelitis, and early Eichenholtz stage 1 Charcot, the presence of a fracture in the absence of ulcerations with a normal WBC count and serum glucose strongly indicates that the described symptoms are due to an early Charcot process alone. A technetium Tc 99m scan alone would not be helpful; however, the addition of a sulfur colloid marrow scan or indium In 111 scan may be more specific to rule out infection, though it is not warranted here. Total contact casting with non-weight-bearing or limited weight bearing during Eichenholtz stage 1 when the foot is warm, erythematous, and swollen is advised to help prevent deformity. Alternatively, stabilization with pneumatic bracing may also be considered. While some authors have proposed early fixation or arthrodesis for Eichenholtz stage 1, the gold standard is still total contact casting with no to limited weight bearing until the swelling resolves and evidence of consolidation is seen on radiographs.

Question 1767

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 9-year-old boy has pain over the midfoot medially with activity. Based on the findings shown in Figures 26a and 26b, which of the following is considered the most effective short-term management?
. Crutches and no weight bearing
. Core decompression
. Shoe inserts
. Temporary cast immobilization
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Temporary cast immobilization


Explanation

While Köhler’s disease has a benign course, temporary cast immobilization has been shown to result in a shortened duration of symptoms. Core decompression or other surgery is not warranted because of the benign nature. Shoe inserts may be beneficial, but there are no studies to support their use.

Question 1768

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 29-year-old woman reports dysesthesias and burning after undergoing bunion surgery that consisted of a proximal crescentic first metatarsal osteotomy 6 months ago. Examination reveals a positive Tinel’s sign at the proximal aspect of the healed incision. What injured nerve is responsible for her continued symptoms?
. Recurrent branch of the deep peroneal
. Recurrent branch of the sural
. Terminal cutaneous branch of the saphenous
. Dorsomedial cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal
. Medial plantar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsomedial cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal


Explanation

Painful incisional neuromas after bunion surgery frequently involve the dorsomedial cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. This is the medial branch of the superficial peroneal nerve that terminates as the dorsomedial cutaneous nerve to the hallux. Branches of the deep peroneal nerve to this area are rare, and no branches to this area exist from the sural nerve. The saphenous nerve branches are generally more proximal, and the medial plantar nerve lies plantarly.

Question 1769

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 68 is the radiograph of a 33-year-old runner who recently decided to begin running barefoot on trails. Since his transition to running without shoes 3 months ago, he has been having pain in the second metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. He feels like he is walking on a stone, notes edema in the ball of his foot, and has started to see a deviation of the second toe. What is the most likely etiology of these symptoms and findings?
. Tear of the plantar plate
. Second MTP joint synovitis
. Second metatarsal stress fracture
. Flexor tendonitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tear of the plantar plate


Explanation

Lesser-toe plantar plate injuries are becoming increasingly recognized. Patients typically have an increase in pain, a positive Lachman test result upon examination, and deviation of the MTP joint. On radiograph, MTP subluxation can be appreciated. Nonsurgical treatment with a metatarsal pad may be attempted. Many patients who have surgery will have a partial or full tear of the plantar plate. The repair necessitates reinsertion of the plantar plate to the base of the proximal phalanx.

Question 1770

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An active 36-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has continued forefoot discomfort despite the use of orthotics and shoe wear modifications. A radiograph and a clinical photograph are shown in Figures 26a and 26b. Treatment at this point should consist of
. hallux valgus correction and lesser metatarsophalangeal joint synovectomies.
. hallux valgus correction and lesser metatarsal head resections.
. first metatarsophalangeal joint fusion and lesser metatarsal head resections.
. first metatarsophalangeal joint fusion and lesser metatarsophalangeal joint synovectomies.
. Keller resection arthroplasty and lesser metatarsal head resections.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. first metatarsophalangeal joint fusion and lesser metatarsal head resections.


Explanation

In a patient with inflammatory arthritis, advanced hallux valgus deformity in conjunction with lesser metatarsophalangeal joint destruction and subluxation warrants fusion of the first metatarsophalangeal joint and lesser metatarsal head resections. Hallux valgus correction will fail because of incompetent soft tissues. A Keller resection arthroplasty is not indicated in this age group. Synovectomy is contraindicated because of evidence of erosive changes of the lesser metatarsophalangeal joints.

Question 1771

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Figure 61 shows the radiograph of a 28-year-old professional football player who sustained a hyperextension injury to the great toe. He continued to play with pain and loss of push-off strength. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Hallux rigidus
. Fracture of the sesamoid
. Disruption of the plantar plate
. Osteonecrosis of the metatarsal head
. Rupture of the flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hallux rigidus


Explanation

Upon review of the radiograph give, there is no evidence of fracture or osteonecrosis. Upon review of the article above the most likely diagnosis is “Turf-Toe” or the disruption of the plantar plate. The patient has mechanism of injury, hyperextension and sequelae, decreased push-off strength, which is consistent with this diagnosis. Rupture of the FHL would most likely result in inability to continue playing while hallux rigidus is a potential chronic sequelae with associated dorsal osteophyte formation.

Question 1772

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 11 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 22-year-old man who sustained a midfoot injury in a motor vehicle accident 9 days ago. Treatment should consist of:
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. a short leg weight-bearing cast.
. a short leg non-weight-bearing cast.
. first tarsometatarsal fusion.
. functional brace application and early range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The dislocation is between the medial and middle cuneiform. Although the first and second tarsometatarsal joints are aligned, there is a gap between the cuneiforms. The radiograph shows a Lisfranc dislocation variant. In a healthy active individual, open reduction and internal fixation yields the best results. The reestablishment of the normal arch and medial column support with anatomic reduction is critical to obtaining the best possible outcome from these injuries.

Question 1773

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 56-year-old man sustained a nondisplaced extra-articular fracture of the proximal aspect of the third metatarsal after dropping a heavy object on his left foot. Management should consist of
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. external bone stimulation.
. percutaneous pin fixation.
. weight bearing in a walking boot or walking cast.
. open reduction and internal fixation and primary tarsometatarsal joint fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. weight bearing in a walking boot or walking cast.


Explanation

This injury pattern is one of a direct trauma to the mid aspect of the foot. Without additional forces involved, capsular ligamentous injury is not anticipated; therefore, the injury should be a stable pattern. Treatment should consist of protected weight bearing as tolerated in a walking boot or walking cast. Surgical intervention is not indicated with this pattern of injury. With injuries to the midfoot area where the exact mechanism of injury is uncertain, there should be a high index of suspicion for an associated injury to the tarsometatarsal joint, and standing radiographs or stress radiographs should be obtained.

Question 1774

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old girl injures her ankle playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a displaced Tillaux fracture. CT scans are shown in Figure 25. What is the most important consideration for appropriate management?
. Joint congruity
. Torn anterior tibiofibular ligament
. Growth arrest leading to angular deformity
. Growth arrest leading to limb-length discrepancy
. Osteonecrosis of the talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Joint congruity


Explanation

Tillaux and triplane fractures occur in adolescents as the result of an external rotation injury of the ankle. As seen on the CT scan, the growth plate starts to close during adolescence; therefore, growth arrest resulting in limb-length discrepancy or angulation is less of a concern in this age group than achieving joint congruity. The joint should be surgically reduced if displacement is greater than 2 mm to minimize the chances of late arthrosis.

Question 1775

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 23-year-old college basketball player reports persistent lateral ankle pain after sustaining an inversion injury 6 months ago. Examination reveals pain over the anterolateral ankle, absence of swelling, and no clinical instability. Management consisting of vigorous physical therapy fails to provide relief, and an intra-articular corticosteroid injection provides only temporary relief. Radiographs obtained at the time of injury and subsequent AP and varus stress views are normal. A recent MRI scan fails to show any abnormalities. Management should now include
. cast immobilization.
. arthroscopy.
. continued physical therapy.
. a repeat corticosteroid injection.
. a short course of oral steroids.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopy.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Because the patient has failed to respond to appropriate nonsurgical management and imaging studies are normal, the use of arthroscopy not only aids in the diagnosis of chronic ankle pain, but is also helpful in its treatment. In patients with this condition, typical findings include synovitis in the lateral gutter and fibrosis along the talofibular articulation; syndesmosis chondromalacia of the talus and ankle also may be found. In patients with anterior soft-tissue impingement, approximately 84% who have a poor response to nonsurgical management will have a good to excellent response after arthroscopic synovectomy and debridement.

Question 1776

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 58-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and a severe hindfoot valgus deformity now reports recurrent lateral ankle pain. Examination reveals pain over the fibula and sinus tarsi, with a valgus hindfoot that is passively correctable. Despite the use of an ankle-foot orthosis, this is the second time this problem has occurred. Radiographs and a clinical photograph are shown in Figures 28a through 28c. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
. Intramedullary screw fixation of the fibula
. Plating of the fibula with a one third tubular plate
. Subtalar arthrodesis with deformity correction
. Varus producing distal tibial osteotomy
. Ankle arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar arthrodesis with deformity correction


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Excessive hindfoot valgus can lead to abutment between the calcaneus and fibula. This valgus force can lead to a stress fracture of the distal fibula. Surgery may be required if an insufficiency fracture recurs despite orthotic management. Of the choices listed, a subtalar arthrodesis is most likely to achieve rebalancing of the foot at the level of the deformity.

Question 1777

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 7-year-old boy with spastic diplegia is a limited community ambulator. He has a moderately severe crouched gait. The parents request a treatment that will result in a permanent decrease in lower extremity muscle tone. This is best accomplished with Review Topic

. tone-reduction ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs).
. intramuscular injections of botulinum-A toxin.
. an intrathecal baclofen injection.
. selective posterior rhizotomy.
. fractional tendon lengthening of bilateral hamstring and gastrocnemius muscles.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. tone-reduction ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs).


Explanation

Posterior rhizotomy provides a permanent reduction in tone of spastic muscles. Potential drawbacks of the procedure include excessive muscle weakness, hip dislocation, and spinal deformity. Intramuscular botulinum-A toxin results in permanent blockade of presynaptic release of acetylcholine across the neuromuscular junction. The clinical effect usually resolves after 3 to 6 months due to neural regeneration. Tone-reduction AFOs have not been shown to reduce tone. A baclofen pump could offer prolonged reduction in tone, but not a single intrathecal injection.

Question 1778

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 33-year-old female sustains the injury shown in Figure A as the result of a fall off a chair, and subsequently undergoes operative stabilization of her injury. Which of the following is most correlated with positive outcomes when treating this injury?

. Immediate weightbearing
. Subchondral debridement of any osteochondral defect
. Repair of medial ligamentous structures
. Casting or splinting in a neutral position postoperatively
. Anatomic reduction of the syndesmosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate weightbearing


Explanation

Long-term outcomes after an ankle syndesmotic injury are most correlated with an anatomic reduction of the ankle syndesmosis. Formal open reduction of the syndesmosis has been shown to improve outcomes by improving the reduction quality.While the importance of anatomic reduction of a syndesmotic injury is clear, controversy exists regarding the ideal method of fixation. No significant differences are reproducibly reported in regards to number of syndesmotic screws, size, or number of cortices. There is emerging data supporting the use of suture button fixation.Wikeroy et al. reviewed 48 patients at a mean of 8.4 years, and they found that patients with a difference in the syndesmotic width between the operated and the nonoperated ankle of 1.5 mm or more showed inferior results. Posterior malleolar fragments and obese patients also had worse outcomes.Schepers et al. published a review on the suture button device comparisons to traditional screw fixation, reviewing 6 biomechanical studies and 34 clinical studies. They found that the suture button systems have similar outcomes to screw fixation, but insufficient long-term and high-quality evidence prevented a strong conclusion. Implant removal in the suture button groups averaged 10%, while screw removal averaged 52%.Sagi et al. reviewed 107 patients with ankle fractures and associated syndesmoticinjuries requiring surgery. They found that 39% were malreduced, but open reduction of the syndesmotic injury cut the malreduction rate by 2/3. They also reported that at a minimum of 2 years follow-up, patients with malreduced syndesmotic injuries demonstrated worse functional outcome scores.Figure A shows an ankle fracture with obvious syndesmotic injury/widening. Incorrect answers:1-4: These choices are not correlated with excellent outcomes with treatment of asyndesmotic injury.

Question 1779

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When standing, dorsiflexion of the great toe will accentuate
. midfoot pronation.
. heel valgus.
. internal tibial rotation.
. rigidity of the transverse tarsal articulation.
. parallel alignment of the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. rigidity of the transverse tarsal articulation.


Explanation

Dorsiflexion of the great toe will accentuate rigidity of the transverse tarsal articulation. Through the windlass mechanism, dorsiflexion of the great toe tightens the plantar fascia, stabilizing the longitudinal arch and placing the foot in supination. Supination makes the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints nonparallel, accentuating the rigidity of the transverse tarsal articulation. The heel also tends to go into varus, resulting in obligatory external tibial rotation.

Question 1780

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 12a and 12b show the radiographs of a 56-year-old man with diabetes mellitus who has had left foot swelling with no pain for the past several weeks. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals warmth, moderate swelling, no tenderness, and mild pes planus with standing. Pulses are palpable, and his sensory examination is grossly intact to light touch. Standing radiographs are shown in Figures 12c and 12d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Acute traumatic Lisfranc fracture-dislocation
. Acquired pes planus due to rupture of the posterior tibial tendon
. Neuropathic arthropathy
. Osteomyelitis
. Metatarsal stress fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neuropathic arthropathy


Explanation

The radiographs show tarsometatarsal joint subluxation without fragmentation. The clinical history and delay in presentation with the radiographic findings suggest a neuropathic or Charcot arthropathy involving the midfoot area. Intact sensory examination to light touch is not diagnostic for an intact peripheral neurologic system; monofilament testing is a more accurate office baseline examination for the presence of sensory peripheral neuropathy. With an acute traumatic Lisfranc fracture-dislocation, a history of a traumatic event is necessary, and radiographic abnormalities are expected, although nonstanding radiographs still may be misleading. Acquired pes planus due to posterior tibial tendon rupture may have negative nonstanding radiographs. Standing radiographs may reveal pes planus. However, intermetatarsal disruption is not expected as seen in a Lisfranc abnormality. Localized osteomyelitis of the foot without a penetrating injury or cutaneous ulceration is extremely unlikely and does not fit with the clinical picture described. An isolated metatarsal stress fracture would show osseous irregularity without the instability pattern pictured.