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Question 1741

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old woman reports worsening pain after undergoing a neurectomy in the third interspace for a Morton’s neuroma 12 months ago. She states that the pain is sharp and electrical, worse than before her surgery, and prevents her from participating in her usual work and exercise activities. Use of wider shoes and pads used before her surgery have failed to provide relief. Examination does not reveal any deformity or inflammation. Tenderness along with neuritic pain occurs with compression of the plantar aspect of the foot between the third and fourth metatarsal head area. To most reliably alleviate her pain, management should consist of
. Serial injection of steroids into the area of discomfort
. Custom orthotics with a second metatarsal pad
. Physical therapy for transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation and desensitization
. Plantar condylectomy of the second and third metatarsal heads
. Plantar exploration and revision neurectomy to a more proximal level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar exploration and revision neurectomy to a more proximal level


Explanation

Most patients with a significant recurrent neuroma will not obtain relief with conservative methods. Pain results from a stump neuroma at the weight-bearing area from too short of a resection of the nerve or from regrowth of the remaining nerve end. Revision of the nerve to a more proximal level off of the weight-bearing area is the most likely method to succeed. A plantar approach facilitates identification and ability to revise the nerve to a more proximal level.

Question 1742

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old woman has a painful bunion of the right foot, and shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a severe hallux valgus with dorsal subluxation of the second toe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. The most appropriate management should include
. hallux metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis.
. custom orthotics.
. Chevron osteotomy with second toe correction.
. Keller resection arthroplasty with second toe correction.
. proximal metatarsal osteotomy with second toe correction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. proximal metatarsal osteotomy with second toe correction.


Explanation

The radiographs do not show significant arthrosis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint; therefore, arthrodesis is unnecessary. Orthotics will not correct the deformity. A distally based osteotomy will not achieve sufficient correction of the incongruity of deformity, and a Keller resection is not indicated in the younger population. The treatment of choice is a proximal metatarsal osteotomy with second toe correction.

Question 1743

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
ORIF of the injury was chosen (as illustrated in Figure 27). Long-term results may include
. improved American Orthopaedic Foot & Ankle Society (AOFAS) scores as compared to scores obtained following fusion.
. pes planovalgus.
. persistent pain and arthritis.
. hindfoot pain.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. persistent pain and arthritis.


Explanation

The injury mechanism describes axial loading to a plantar-flexed foot and is classic for Lisfranc injury. If the initial films are not diagnostic as in this case, weight-bearing films are a reasonable next step. Radiographic widening of 2 mm or more between the second metatarsal base and medial cuneiform (as compared to the other side) is diagnostic; occasionally, a "fleck" sign (a small bony fragment noted in the Lisfranc joint) may indicate an avulsion fracture. Clinical signs include plantar ecchymosis, tenderness over the Lisfranc joint, and an inability to bear weight. Anatomic ORIF or fusion are the options for treatment, and results for ligamentous injuries are better when fusion is performed. Better AOFAS scores have been demonstrated with fusion, and a higher incidence of pain and arthritis have been noted with fixation.

Question 1744

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 19 is the clinical photograph of a 54-year-old man who underwent a total ankle replacement (TAR). Three weeks after surgery he has increasing pain and a deep wound as seen in the photograph. What is the best next step?
. Remove the total ankle and place an antibiotic spacer
. Debride and exchange polyethylene
. Perform a below-the-knee amputation
. Convert to a fusion with an intercalary allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debride and exchange polyethylene


Explanation

The patient is 3 weeks out from TAR. The wound is erythematous, and the tendon is visible. At 3 weeks this is an acute wound breakdown. The preferred treatment is a return to the operating room, an exchange of the polyethylene because the wound appears deep enough to go down to the joint, and a flap for coverage. Removal of the total ankle and placement of an antibiotic spacer should be considered in the settings of subacute (6 weeks postop) or chronic infection following TAR.

Question 1745

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 16-year-old boy has had a painful ingrown nail on his great toe for the past 3 months. When initial management consisting of soaking the foot in Epsom salts and trimming the nail failed to provide relief, his family physician recommended 2 weeks of oral antibiotics. His symptoms persist, and he is now seeking a second opinion. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 18. Management should now consist of
. povidone-iodine soaks and oral antibiotics.
. povidone-iodine soaks and IV antibiotics.
. partial nail plate removal.
. phenol nail matrix ablation.
. surgical nail matrix ablation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. partial nail plate removal.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a chronic ingrown nail on his great toe, which is not an uncommon occurrence in teenagers because of improper nail care. There is local infection and a foreign body reaction because of the nail. Continued conservative management with soaks and antibiotics will not improve the clinical situation. In the presence of local chronic infection, nail matrix ablation is contraindicated. Additionally, in the absence of a history of an ingrown nail, a nail matrix ablation is not medically indicated. The appropriate treatment is partial removal of the nail plate. With nail plate removal, the inflammation and local infection will resolve rapidly.

Question 1746

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the usual mechanism of injury for the fracture shown in Figures 49a and 49b?
. bending
. axial loading
. high-speed rotation
. direct impact from anteromedial
. crush from anteromedial to posterolateral

Correct Answer & Explanation

. axial loading


Explanation

Figures 49a and 49b show a severely comminuted, displaced fracture of the distal tibial metaphysis with intra-articular extension, i.e., pilon fracture, or the so-called “distal tibial explosion fracture.” According to the article by Kellam JF and Waddell JP, there are two mechanisms that can cause this fracture: a rotational pronation dorsiflexion force, and an axial compression force with the foot in either neutral or dorsiflexion at the moment of impact. Because of these mechanisms of injury, two fracture patterns were observed in the series of patients reported. The rotational pattern results in several large metaphyseal fragments, and usually a fibular fracture of a short oblique type above the level of the ankle joint. The second and unfortunately the more common fracture pattern is caused by a severe axial compression force which causes marked comminution of the distal tibial metaphysis, loss of bone substance due to impaction, superior migration of the talus, and loss of the ankle cartilage space.

Question 1747

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following is the major blood supply to the heel pad?

. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Lateral malleolar artery
. Artery of the sinus tarsi
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Medial calcaneal branch of the posterior tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial calcaneal branch of the posterior tibial artery


Explanation

The medial calcaneal branch of the posterior tibial artery is the major vascular supply to the heel pad. Heel pad avulsions are severe injuries associated with high-energy trauma and often carry a poor prognosis because of the potential for heel pad necrosis. The lateral calcaneal artery and the lateral malleolar artery, along with the lateral tarsal artery, provide perfusion to the lateral flap associated with a standard extensile approach to the calcaneus. The artery of the tarsal canal is a branch of the posterior tibial artery, and the artery of the sinus tarsi is a branch of the perforating peroneal artery. Both provide perfusion to the talus.

Question 1748

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The nerve to the abductor digiti quinti, implicated in some patients who have chronic heel pain, is most commonly a branch of what larger nerve?
. Lateral plantar
. Lateral calcaneal
. Medial plantar
. Medial calcaneal
. Sural

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral plantar


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The nerve to the abductor digiti quinti is the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. It branches off while the nerve is still on the medial side of the foot and also innervates a portion of the plantar fascia. It can become entrapped beneath the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle and has been associated with some forms of chronic heel pain. REFERENCES: Baxter DE, Pfeffer GB: Treatment of chronic heel pain by surgical release of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. Clin Orthop 1992;279:229-236. Schon LC, Glennon TP, Baxter DE: Heel pain syndrome: Electrodiagnostic support for nerve entrapment. Foot Ankle 1993;14:129-135.

Question 1749

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The lower extremity motor dysfunction in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease most commonly involves which of the following muscles?
. Gastrocnemius-soleus complex
. Tibialis anterior
. Peroneus longus
. Flexor digitorum longus
. Flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis anterior


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The motor dysfunction in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease involves the tibialis anterior muscle. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disorders most commonly cause distal motor dysfunction in the foot intrinsics, anterior compartment musculature, and peroneals. There is evidence that the peroneus brevis is affected selectively and the peroneus longus is spared. This is based on clinical muscle testing, muscle cross-sections on MRI, and electrodiagnostic testing. REFERENCES: Mann RA, Missirian J: Pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Clin Orthop 1988;234:221-228. Tynan MC, Klenerman L, Helliwell TR, Edwards RH, Hayward M: Investigation of muscle imbalance in the leg in symptomatic forefoot pes cavus: A multidisciplinary study. Foot Ankle 1992;13:489-501.

Question 1750

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has a progressively rigid cavovarus foot deformity. The patient states that the pain is restricted to the forefoot, where rigid claw toe deformities have developed. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in creation of a claw toe deformity?
. Laxity of the volar plate
. Intraosseous tendon
. Extensor digitorum longus tendon
. Extensor digitorum brevis tendon
. Flexor digitorum longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor digitorum longus tendon


Explanation

Diseases such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth result in spasticity of the extrinsic flexor tendons. This results in hyperflexion of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the involved toe, as well as hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joint. The tendon often becomes contracted with progressive equinus of the ankle. Correction of ankle equinus exaggerates the claw toe deformity. The interosseous tendon plays no role in the etiology of a claw toe but may become contracted in later stages of the disease. Laxity of the volar plate may precipitate a claw toe deformity in a nonspastic situation. In patients with a head injury, claw toe deformities are generally the result of overactivity of the extensor tendons.

Question 1751

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An obese 62-year-old man reports a 10-year history of progressive flatfoot deformity and a 3-month history of a painful callus along the plantar medial midfoot that has not improved with custom shoe wear, pedorthics, and callus care. There is no hindfoot motion, but functional ankle motion remains. He does not have diabetes mellitus. Radiographs are shown in Figures 27a and 27b. What is the best surgical option at this point?
. Exostectomy
. Lateral column lengthening
. Medial slide calcaneal osteotomy
. Talonavicular arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Triple arthrodesis


Explanation

The deformity is long-standing, the hindfoot is immobile, and the radiographs reveal severe degenerative arthritis involving the entire hindfoot, severe deformity, and talonavicular dislocation. The “exostosis” responsible for the callus is the talar head; resection would severely destabilize the foot. Degenerative arthritis and fixed deformity preclude lateral column lengthening, medial slide calcaneal osteotomy, and talonavicular arthrodesis. Triple arthrodesis is the only viable option.

Question 1752

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During a Lisfranc (tarsometatarsal) amputation of the foot, which of the following is crucial to prevent the patient from having a supinated foot during gait?
. Releasing the posterior tibialis tendon
. Preserving the soft-tissue envelope (peroneus brevis, tertius and plantar fascia) around the fifth metatarsal base
. Myodesis of the anterior tibialis to the medial and middle cuneiforms
. Lengthening of the gastrocsoleus (achilles tendon)
. Osteotomy through 1st metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preserving the soft-tissue envelope (peroneus brevis, tertius and plantar fascia) around the fifth metatarsal base


Explanation

A Lisfranc amputation is through the tarsometatarsal joints, except the 2nd metatarsal, which is osteotomized to preserve the stability of the medial cuneiform. To prevent the patient from supinating the foot following this amputation, the evertors of the foot must be maintained. The principal evertors are the peroneus brevis and longus. Therefore, the function of the peroneus brevis must be preserved. Technically, this is done by preserving the soft-tissue envelope (peroneus brevis, tertius, and plantar fascia) around the fifth metatarsal base. The posterior tibialis is the primary supinator of the foot, and releasing it would lead to an eversion deformity. The tibialis posterior tendon attachment to the bases of the second and third metatarsals will be released with this amputation, but the main attachment to the navicular is preserved.

Question 1753

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

-Which gene correlates with severity of disease in spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)?

. Peripheral myelin protein 22 (PMP22)
. Survival motor neuron I (SMN1)
. Survival motor neuron II (SMN2)
. Dystrophin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Survival motor neuron I (SMN1)


Explanation

produce higher levels of SMN protein.The other choices are not associated with spinal muscular atrophy.Defects in PMP22 are the cause of 70% to 80% of cases of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Mutations in the dystrophin gene cause Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Question 1754

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
  • A 10-year-old boy twisted his ankle while skateboarding and has pain and swelling around the lateral ankle just distal to the fibula. Radiographs are obtained and a lesion is identified in the distal tibia as seen in Figures 273a and 273b. Two weeks later he has no pain to palpation in the region and denies antecedent pain. What is the most appropriate treatment for this lesion?

. Biopsy
. Naprosyn
. Observation
. Radio frequency ablation
. Curettage and bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

Question.1 .A 49-year-old weekend athlete has a 4-week history of pain in his unilateral plantar heel that is most severe for the first 20 steps upon arising in the morning. He has an area of maximal tenderness on the plantar medial aspect of the heel pad at the origin of the plantar fascia. He has only improved 30% after a 3-week course of physical therapy with toe intrinsic muscle strengthening and arch- and tendo-Achilles stretching. What is the best next treatment step?Release the plantar fascia.Inject the plantar fascia with platelet-rich plasma.Prescribe a night splint and continue physical therapy.Administer extracorporeal shockwave therapy to the heel.Perform a series of 3 steroid injections into the plantar fascia.Question.2 .Figures 16a and 16b are the radiographs of a 38-year-old carpenter with progressively worsening ankle pain; 14 years ago, he was involved in an all-terrain vehicle collision. Anti-inflammatory medication,corticosteroid injections, and bracing no longer effectively control his pain. The pain now interferes with his work and family responsibilities. Examination reveals an antalgic limp, varus deformity, limited ankle motion, limited eversion, and normal strength. Treatment should now consist ofankle arthrodesis.total ankle arthroplasty.distal tibia osteotomy.lateral ligament repair.deltoid ligament release.Question. 3 .A 48-year-old woman had total knee arthroplasty. She is unable to “lift her toes or ankle to her nose.”After 2 months of physical therapy, she has a slapping gait. What is the best next treatment step?Ankle fusionAnkle-foot orthosisSural nerve graftMedial heel postLaminectomy of L4/5Question. 4 .Figures 46a through 46c are the CT scans of an 18-year-old who sustained an injury 3 weeks ago and now has ankle pain. Examination reveals an ankle effusion and painful range of motion. Recommended treatment should consist oftranstalar drilling.fixation of the fragment.osteochondral autograft.weight bearing in a boot with early range of motion.cast immobilization and nonweight-bearing activity for 6 weeks.Question. 5 .A 47-year-old woman has a closed, displaced, Weber C bimalleolar ankle fracture. Past medical history includes diabetes mellitus for 7 years controlled with diet and an oral hypoglycemic agent. Semmes-Weinstein sensory testing reveals absence of sensation to the 5.07/10-gm monofilament on the plantar aspect of both feet. The skin is intact with 2+ pedal pulses. Treatment should includeopen reduction with limited internal fixation.closed reduction and application of an external fixator.closed reduction and total contact cast immobilization.retrograde intramedullary rod fixation with ankle fusion.internal fixation and an extended period of immobilization.Question. 6 .Figures 68a and 68b are the clinical photographs of a 55-year-old woman who had a right hindfoot fusion 3 years ago for a pes planovalgus deformity. Since the surgery, she has had lateral hindfoot pain and places most of the weight-bearing load on the lateral border of her foot when walking. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Deltoid insufficiencyExcessive forefoot abductionResidual heel valgusResidual Achilles tendon contractureMalposition of the transverse tarsal joint

Question 1755

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old woman has left second toe dactylitis (sausage toe). Radiographs show a “pencil in cup” distal interphalangeal joint deformity. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is markedly reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Lyme disease
. Psoriatic arthritis
. Crohn’s disease arthropathy
. Gout

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Psoriatic arthritis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient’s clinical picture is considered the classic presentation for psoriatic arthritis. The other answers are not applicable for the constellation of findings. REFERENCES: Jahss MH: Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 1691-1693. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 172-173.

Question 1756

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The orthosis shown in Figure 47 is commonly used for
. hallux rigidus.
. midfoot arthritis.
. second metatarsal stress fracture.
. bunionette deformity.
. heel pain.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. hallux rigidus.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The orthosis shown is a carbon reinforced Morton’s extension, and it is commonly used for hallux rigidus. It decreases motion of the first metatarsophalangeal joint and subsequently decreases pain. REFERENCE: Clanton TO: Athletic injuries to the soft tissues of the foot and ankle, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, vol 2, p 1185.

Question 1757

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The strongest biomechanical construct for open reduction and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture uses what interval and entry point?
. Anterior tibialis, abductor hallucis; anteromedial head of the talus
. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus; anteromedial head of the talus
. Peroneus brevis, flexor hallucis longus; posterolateral tubercle of the talus
. Extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius; anterolateral head of the talus
. Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus; posteromedial tubercle of the talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus brevis, flexor hallucis longus; posterolateral tubercle of the talus


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The strongest biomechanical construct is posterior to anterior fixation with the entry point being at the level of the posterolateral tubercle of the talus. This uses the interval between the peroneus brevis and the flexor hallucis longus. The interval between the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus with entry at the posteromedial tubercle of the talus is not an accepted approach for fixation of talar neck fractures. All of the other options use screw placements from anterior to posterior. REFERENCES: Swanson TV, Bray TJ, Homes GB Jr: Fractures of the talar neck: A mechanical study of fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:544-551. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 37-38.

Question 1758

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 63-year-old woman with a history of poliomyelitis has a fixed 30-degree equinus contracture of the ankle, rigid hindfoot valgus, and normal knee strength and stability. She reports persistent pain and has had several medial forefoot ulcerations despite a program of stretching, bracing, and custom footwear. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. CROW walker
. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment
. Triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening
. Transtibial amputation
. Ankle arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening


Explanation

The patient has a fixed deformity of the hindfoot and an Achilles tendon contracture; therefore, the treatment of choice is triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening. Further bracing will not be helpful. Amputation is not indicated, and ankle arthrodesis will not address the hindfoot deformity. Palliative management would be more appropriate if the knee was unstable or the quadriceps were weak, because the equinus balances the ground reaction force across the knee.

Question 1759

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In displaced calcaneal fractures, what fragment is the only one that remains in its anatomic position?
. Posterior tubercle
. Posterior articular facet
. Anterior process
. Sustentaculum tali
. Lateral wall

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sustentaculum tali


Explanation

The sustentaculum tali remains in its anatomic position because of its supporting ligamentous structures. This provides the key to the reconstruction of the calcaneus. The posterior facet is reduced to the sustentaculum tali and then fixed to it for stability. All of the other components of the calcaneus are then reduced to this complex.

Question 1760

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following increases radiation exposure to patients and personnel during surgery?
. Orienting the beam in the opposite direction of the working team and keeping the team outside a 6-foot radius of the fluoroscopy machine
. Orienting the cathode ray tube beneath the patient with the image intensifier receptor as close to the patient as possible
. Limiting the beam on time to only what is clinically important
. The use of continuous fluoroscopy whenever possible to ensure proper placement of implants
. The use of lead glasses, a thyroid shield, and a lead apron with an equivalent lead thickness of 0.25 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The use of continuous fluoroscopy whenever possible to ensure proper placement of implants


Explanation

Continuous fluoroscopy and cine radiography expose the patient and personnel to markedly increased levels of direct and scatter radiation exposure. Continuous fluoroscopy should be limited to only what is absolutely needed for safe completion of the procedure. By orienting the cathode ray tube beneath the patient and placing the image intensifier as close as clinically possible to the patient, scatter radiation exposure to the personnel is minimized.