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Question 1801

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The radiograph shown in Figure 27 shows measurement of what angle?
. Hallux valgus
. Distal metatarsal articular
. Intermetatarsal
. Sesamoid divergence
. Angle of joint congruence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal metatarsal articular


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The relationship between the distal articular surface of the first metatarsal head and the long axis of the first metatarsal is called the distal metatarsal articular angle. This angle has been validated by Richardson and associates to measure and determine the congruence of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This angle is critical in determining the appropriate surgical procedure to perform on a patient with a bunion deformity because a congruent joint requires a procedure to maintain congruence of the articular surfaces following osteotomy. Therefore, a chevron becomes a biplanar chevron, and a Lapidus procedure adds a second osteotomy of the distal metatarsal to tilt the metatarsal head into a congruent location. REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ: Juvenile hallux valgus: Etiology and treatment. Foot Ankle Int 1995;16:682-697. Steel MW III, Johnson KA, DeWitz MA, et al: Radiographic measurements of the normal foot. Foot Ankle 1980;1:151-158. Richardson EG, Graves SC, McClure JT, et al: First metatarsal head-shaft angle: A method of determination. Foot Ankle 1993;14:181-185.

Question 1802

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is considered the most useful screening method for the evaluation of protective foot sensation in a patient with diabetes mellitus?
. Sharp two-point discrimination
. Light touch sensation
. Hot and cold sensation
. Vibratory sensation
. 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament sensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament sensation


Explanation

Patients with diabetes mellitus should be screened for the presence of protective foot sensation. In the absence of protective foot sensation, patients are at increased risk for the development of neuropathic ulcerations and neuropathic arthropathy. The most reliable screening tool for the presence of protective sensation is the ability to feel the 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament.

Question 1803

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 70-year-old female with a history of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with purulent ulcers along the plantar aspect of her right forefoot and exposed metatarsal bone. She elects to undergo an amputation. She is insensate to the midfoot bilaterally. Her ankle-brachial index (ABI) for her right posterior tibial artery is 0.4. Further preoperative evaluation demonstrates a transcutaneous oxygen pressure of 45 and an albumin of 3.4. Which of the following would be a contraindication to performing a Syme amputation (ankle disarticulation) in this patient?
. Albumin of 3.4
. Active osteomyelitis
. ABI of 0.4 for the posterior tibial artery
. Transcutaneous oxygen pressure of 45
. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ABI of 0.4 for the posterior tibial artery


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Syme amputation (ankle disarticulation) is a function-preserving amputation option that allows for terminal weight bearing, however strict criteria must be met for a patient to undergo successful Syme amputation. An ankle-brachial index (ABI) less than 0.5 for the posterior tibial artery in a patient with diabetes would be a contraindication for this procedure as success is dependent on the vascular supply of posterior tibial artery to the plantar flap and heel pad.

Question 1804

Topic: Forefoot
A 42-year-old woman who observes traditional Muslim practices is seen in your office accompanied by her physician husband to discuss possible elective bunion correction. In considering the treatment of this patient, what is one of the most important considerations?
. The role her husband will play in the decision to proceed with surgery
. Her role as primary caregiver in the household
. Dietary concerns during her hospitalization
. Daily cleansing rituals that may affect wound care
. The importance of maintaining modesty precautions during examination, surgery, and postoperative appointments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The importance of maintaining modesty precautions during examination, surgery, and postoperative appointments


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In considering faith-based issues regarding treatment of this patient, the presence of her husband for the office visit would imply an agreement with her decision to have surgery. It also may facilitate her examination. Her role as caregiver, dietary concerns, and cleansing rituals are less important considerations with an outpatient-based procedure. Privacy concerns remain paramount to Muslim women, which include limited exposure during examination, during surgery, and in subsequent follow-up visits.

Question 1805

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Preservation or reconstruction of which of the following structures is essential to minimize the risk of hallux valgus developing after removal of part or all of the medial sesamoid?
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Flexor hallucis brevis tendon
. Abductor hallucis tendon
. Adductor hallucis tendon
. Extensor hallucis brevis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis brevis tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Complications of medial sesamoidectomy include stiffness, claw toe, and hallux valgus. Each sesamoid sits within its respective head of the flexor hallucis brevis tendon. Excision of one sesamoid can result in slack in its flexor hallucis brevis tendon; therefore, it is imperative to preserve or repair the flexor hallucis brevis tendon when removing the medial sesamoid.

Question 1806

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 1a and 1b show the clinical photograph and oblique radiograph of a 52-year-old man who has plantar first metatarsal pain. A felt pad in the shoe proximal to the area of pain has failed to provide relief. Management should now consist of
. cryoablation with liquid nitrogen.
. topical salicylic acid application.
. first metatarsal dorsiflexion osteotomy.
. sesamoidectomy.
. sesamoid shaving.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. sesamoid shaving.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a discrete callus that overlies a prominent medial sesamoid. Calluses typically occur in response to increased pressure on the skin. Initial treatment should be directed at reducing local pressure with a felt pad. Sesamoid shaving is indicated if the felt pad fails to provide relief. Sesamoidectomy should be reserved for refractory callus given the potential complications of transfer metatarsalgia or callus and hallux valgus. A first metatarsal dorsiflexion osteotomy is more appropriate for a diffuse callus that fails to respond to nonsurgical management. Cryoablation and topical salicylic acid are appropriate for plantar warts, which have a rougher appearance with multiple, small black spots in the lesion.

Question 1807

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The subcutaneous nerve most at risk for transection during an anterior surgical exposure of the ankle is the

. dorsal cutaneous branch of the sural nerve.
. deep peroneal nerve.
. medial plantar nerve.
. medial branch of the superficial peroneal nerve.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. dorsal cutaneous branch of the sural nerve.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe dorsal medial cutaneous nerve arising from the superficial peroneal nerve crosses the inferior extent of a routine extensile surgical exposure to the ankle joint. The extensile anterior incision develops the interval between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis tendons, and, although the deep peroneal nerve is lateral and posterior to the extensor hallucis longus, the nerve most at risk during this exposure is the cutaneous branch supplying the dorsal medial foot to the great toe. Ankle replacement surgery is becoming more common; consequently, surgeons must be familiar with this anatomic landmark and risks related to its transection during surgery.The medial plantar nerve is at risk when medial hindfoot incisions are made through theabductor hallucis muscle during tarsal tunnel release and harvest of the flexor hallucis tendon for transfer. The dorsal cutaneous branch of the sural nerve supplies the lateral dorsal

Question 1808

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 69-year-old man reports pain over his bunion while wearing shoes and pain in the joint with push-off when barefoot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. What is the surgical procedure of choice?
. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis
. Distal chevron osteotomy and bunionectomy with closing wedge osteotomy and soft-tissue release
. Bunionectomy with proximal metatarsal osteotomy
. Bunionectomy with first metatarsal cuneiform fusion
. Bunionectomy with proximal phalanx osteotomy and distal chevron osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis


Explanation

Arthrodesis is indicated for severe bunion and hallux valgus deformities, but particularly with extensive degenerative disease of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The other bunionectomy procedures have different indications, none of which include symptomatic first metatarsophalangeal degenerative disease.

Question 1809

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An obese 56-year-old woman with hypertension has had posterior heel pain for the past 6 months. She also notes some enlargement over the posterior aspect of the heel. Examination reproduces pain with palpation at the insertion of the Achilles tendon. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 45. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Stress fracture of the calcaneus
. Painful os trigonum
. Insertional Achilles tendinopathy
. Entrapment of the calcaneal branch of the posterior tibial nerve
. Rupture of the Achilles tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insertional Achilles tendinopathy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The lateral radiograph shows a traction spur consistent with tendinopathy of the Achilles tendon. There is no displacement of the spur to suggest a rupture of the Achilles tendon, and os trigonum is not seen on the radiograph. The examination findings are not consistent with nerve entrapment.

Question 1810

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 25-year-old man sustained a head injury after being ejected from his car. Examination reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7 and a swollen right knee. Clinical examination shows that the knee is very unstable, suggesting tears of the medial collateral and anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments, as well as the posterior lateral corner. What is the most appropriate first step to rule out a vascular injury?
. Examination of the pedal pulses
. Ankle-brachial pressure index
. Duplex ultrasound
. Arteriography
. Exploration of the popliteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Examination of the pedal pulses


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A knee dislocation carries the potential for an arterial injury and has always brought up the question of need for arteriography to rule out this limb-threatening injury. However, arteriography has an inherent complication rate that may compromise the general care of the patient. In over 240 published cases with documented knee dislocations that were evaluated for vascular injury by physical examination (without imaging studies), not a single missed injury was reported, for a 100% negative predictive value (0% false-negative rate). This degree of accuracy at excluding major vascular injury is unsurpassed by the results obtained with arteriography but with no risk involved and a marked savings in time, equipment, and costs. Therefore, the most appropriate first step to rule out vascular injury is examination of the pedal pulses. If there is any doubt about an arterial injury, another option is the ankle-brachial index (ABI). If the ABI is greater than 0.9, the chance of arterial injury is again nonexistent. However, a positive physical examination or an ABI of less than 0.9 is not 100% predictive of an arterial injury; therefore, arteriography is recommended. REFERENCES: Miranda FE, Dennis JW, Veldenz HC, et al: Confirmation of the safety and accuracy of physical examination in the evaluation of knee dislocation for injury of the popliteal artery: A prospective study. J Trauma 2002;52:247-252. Mills WJ, Barei DP, McNair P: The value of the ankle-brachial index for diagnosing arterial injury after knee dislocation: A prospective study. J Trauma 2004;56:1261-1265.

Question 1811

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

They found statistically significant decreases in need for secondary intervention, hardware failure, and infection as well as faster wound healing and faster time to fracture union.

. Wei et al. provide a meta analysis regarding use of rhBMP-2 in open tibia fractures. Due to decreased rates of secondary interventions they estimated a net savings of $6,000 per case when rh-BMP2 was used. They found no significant difference in rates of infection, postoperative pain, hardware failure, or fracture healing at 20 weeks.
. Incorrect answers:

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wei et al. provide a meta analysis regarding use of rhBMP-2 in open tibia fractures. Due to decreased rates of secondary interventions they estimated a net savings of $6,000 per case when rh-BMP2 was used. They found no significant difference in rates of infection, postoperative pain, hardware failure, or fracture healing at 20 weeks.


Explanation

OrthoCash 2020A 76-year old patient underwent partial foot amputation through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints. Besides Achilles tendon lengthening, what additional procedure(s) may be required to prevent the most common post-operative deformity?Posterior capsule releaseAnterior tibialis transfer to the talar neckAnterior tibialis transfer to cuboidFlexor hallucis longus transfer to calcaneusPeroneus brevis transfer to calcaneusCorrent answer: 2Achilles tendon lengthening AND anterior tibialis transfer to the talar neck would be required to prevent equinovarus deformity.Partial foot amputation through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints is also known as the Chopart amputation. Chopart amputation alone is known to result in significant equinovarus deformity. This deformity results in excessive pressure on the anterior wound during gait, causing pain and wound complications. Transfer of the tibialis anterior tendon to talar neck will provide force, and muscle tone, that promotes ankle dorsiflexion. Lengthening of the Achilles tendon will also reduce the equinus moment force across the ankle joint.Dillion et al. examined the gait patterns of partial foot amputees. They found that amputations proximal to the metatarsal heads compromised the normal propulsive function of the foot and ankle. The ideal level of amputation to maintain normal propulsive function was distal to the metatarsal heads (i.e., disarticulating the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint).Illustration A is a lateral radiograph showing a Chopart amputation. Incorrect Answers:prevent the equinovarus deformity.OrthoCash 2020A 32-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains the injury seen in Figure A. What is the most common urological injury associated with this injury pattern?Testicular torsionPosterior urethral tearBladder denervationTesticular ruptureRenal hematomaThe figure shows an anteroposterior pelvic ring injury. The most common urological injury with pelvic ring injuries remains the posterior urethral tear, followed by bladder rupture.Watnik et al notes lower urinary tract (bladder to end of urethra) injuries in up to 25% of patients with this injury. He reports that when contaminated urine communicates with the anterior arch, the possibility of infection exists, and early repair of bladder disruptions with simultaneous anterior arch plating minimizes this risk.Routt et al notes that even with simultaneous treatment of these injuries, complications are common (late stricture in 44%, impotence in 16%, delayed incontinence in 20% of females, anterior deep pelvic infection in 4%). Despite this, they report that early urological repairs are easily performed at the time of anterior pelvic open reduction and internal fixation.OrthoCash 2020A 26-year-old women, 31-weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with the injury shown in Figure A. She states the injury occurred while lifting a heavy vacuum five days ago. She suffers from chronic headaches and sleep disturbances. On inspection, there are multiple dorsal and volar bruising over her wrist and upper arm. She is neurologically intact. After closed reduction and immobilizing the arm, what would be the next best step in management of this patient?Diagnostic wrist arthroscopyUrgent MRI wristSkeletal survey radiographsRequest a consultation with social worker in the hospitalUrgent open reduction internal fixationCorrent answer: 4This patient presents with classic features of domestic violence. The most appropriate next step would be consultation with a social worker at the hospital, assess for child and patient safety, and encouraging the patient to seek self-protection.Factors suggestive of domestic violence in the patient include pregnancy, delayed presentation after injury, inconsistent history, multiple bruises and complaints of chronic headache/sleep disturbances. Victims frequently miss days of work and as a result are at risk for losing their jobs. Victims are also more likely to engage in high-risk behavior with sex, drugs, alcohol, smoking, and eating.The AAOS published a document outlining the Orthopaedic Surgeon’s responsibilities in domestic and family violence. Musculoskeletal injuries that should raise a suspicion of a problem include (1) Multiple injuries/fractures; (2) Unusual patterns of injury/fracture; (3) Injuries/fractures of varying ages; (4)Injuries/fractures inconsistent with or disproportional to the history; (5) Multiple injuries treated in different hospital emergency departments or by different providers.Incorrect Answers:OrthoCash 2020A 45-year-old man undergoes open reduction and internal fixation for a comminuted intra-articular humerus fracture . An olecranon osteotomy is performed and subsequently fixed with an intramedullary cancellous screw. Which of the following options in the table shown in Figure A best describes the characteristics of this osteotomy?

Question 1812

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

A 21-year-old professional football player suffers an acute syndesmotic injury (high ankle sprain) with dynamic widening of the distal tibiofibular joint visualized on stress fluoroscopy. He is treated with a flexible suture-button construct. Compared to traditional rigid syndesmotic screw fixation, what is the primary biomechanical advantage of the suture-button construct?

. It provides absolute rigid fixation, eliminating all syndesmotic motion
. It maintains physiologic micromotion at the distal tibiofibular joint during the gait cycle
. It inherently decreases the risk of superficial peroneal nerve entrapment
. It allows for immediate, unrestricted full weight-bearing on post-operative day one
. It completely prevents any external rotation of the fibula relative to the tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It provides absolute rigid fixation, eliminating all syndesmotic motion


Explanation

Suture-button constructs provide dynamic stabilization of the syndesmosis. The primary biomechanical advantage over rigid screw fixation is that they allow for the maintenance of physiologic micromotion and normal kinematics of the distal tibiofibular joint during the normal gait cycle, while preventing pathologic widening.

Question 1813

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old roofer undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture via an extensile lateral approach. Which of the following is the most common early postoperative complication associated with this specific approach?

. Sural nerve transection
. Superficial peroneal nerve entrapment
. Medial plantar nerve injury
. Subtalar arthritis
. Wound edge necrosis and dehiscence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve transection


Explanation

Wound healing complications, specifically wound edge necrosis or dehiscence at the apex of the L-shaped flap, are the most common early complication (occurring in up to 10-25% of cases) associated with the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. This is largely due to the tenuous blood supply from the lateral calcaneal artery network.

Question 1814

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a midfoot sprain. Radiographs reveal a "fleck sign" in the first intermetatarsal space. This bony avulsion typically originates from which of the following structures?

. Base of the first metatarsal
. Base of the second metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform
. Intermediate cuneiform
. Lateral cuneiform

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Base of the first metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a stout interosseous ligament that originates on the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform and inserts on the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. The "fleck sign" pathognomonic for a Lisfranc injury represents a bony avulsion of this ligament, most commonly pulling off a fragment from the base of the second metatarsal.

Question 1815

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

During open reduction and internal fixation of a distal tibia pilon fracture, a large anterolateral articular fragment (the Chaput fragment) is identified. Which of the following ligamentous structures remains attached to this specific fragment?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The anterolateral distal tibial articular fragment in a pilon or complex ankle fracture is known as the Chaput fragment (or Tillaux-Chaput). It serves as the tibial attachment site for the Anterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (AITFL). The fibular attachment of the AITFL is the Wagstaffe-Le Fort fragment. The posterior tibial fragment (Volkmann's triangle) is the attachment for the Posterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (PITFL).

Question 1816

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Compared to the traditional extensile lateral approach for the operative treatment of displaced intra-articular calcaneus fractures, the sinus tarsi approach has been shown in recent literature to result in which of the following?

. Significantly improved anatomical reduction of the posterior facet
. Decreased incidence of sural nerve injury
. Significantly lower rate of wound healing complications and infection
. Superior biomechanical stability of the internal fixation construct
. Higher rates of late subtalar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significantly improved anatomical reduction of the posterior facet


Explanation

The primary advantage of the minimally invasive sinus tarsi approach over the traditional extensile lateral approach for calcaneus fractures is a dramatic reduction in soft tissue complications, such as wound dehiscence, flap necrosis, and deep infection. Clinical outcomes and quality of joint reduction have been shown to be comparable between the two approaches in appropriately selected patterns.

Question 1817

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old male sustains a closed tibia fracture and subsequently develops acute compartment syndrome isolated to the deep posterior compartment of the leg. If left untreated, the patient will most likely develop ischemic contracture resulting in weakness of which movement and sensory loss in which anatomic distribution?

. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion; sensory loss in the first dorsal web space
. Weakness in toe flexion; sensory loss on the plantar aspect of the foot
. Weakness in ankle eversion; sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the foot
. Weakness in knee flexion; sensory loss over the posterior calf
. Weakness in great toe extension; sensory loss on the lateral dorsum of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion; sensory loss in the first dorsal web space


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment contains the flexor hallucis longus (FHL), flexor digitorum longus (FDL), and tibialis posterior, as well as the tibial nerve. Untreated compartment syndrome here leads to weakness in toe flexion and ankle inversion, along with sensory loss on the plantar aspect of the foot (supplied by the tibial nerve). Ankle dorsiflexion and 1st web space sensation are anterior compartment structures (deep peroneal nerve).

Question 1818

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Recent high-quality randomized controlled trials comparing operative versus non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures have concluded which of the following when early functional rehabilitation protocols (including early weight-bearing and mobilization) are employed in both groups?

. Non-operative treatment has a significantly higher re-rupture rate.
. Operative treatment leads to a significantly greater return of plantar flexion strength.
. Operative and non-operative treatments result in similar re-rupture rates.
. Non-operative treatment is associated with a higher rate of sural nerve neuropraxia.
. Operative treatment allows for significantly faster return to professional sports.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-operative treatment has a significantly higher re-rupture rate.


Explanation

Historically, non-operative management of Achilles ruptures with prolonged cast immobilization resulted in higher re-rupture rates compared to surgery. However, modern RCTs (e.g., Willits et al.) have demonstrated that when early functional rehabilitation (early range of motion and weight-bearing in a functional brace) is utilized, the re-rupture rates between operative and non-operative groups are essentially equal, while surgery carries a higher risk of wound complications.

Question 1819

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 32-year-old man sustains a pronation-external rotation (PER) ankle fracture. Which of the following structures is injured first in the sequence of a PER injury according to Lauge-Hansen?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Fibular shaft
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Medial malleolus or deltoid ligament
. Interosseous membrane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


Explanation

In a Pronation-External Rotation (PER) injury, the sequence begins medially. Stage 1 is a medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament rupture, followed by AITFL rupture (Stage 2), high fibular fracture (Stage 3), and PITFL rupture (Stage 4).

Question 1820

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The predominant blood supply to the talar body, which is at highest risk of disruption in a displaced talar neck fracture, is the artery of the tarsal canal. This artery is a branch of which parent vessel?

. Anterior tibial artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Peroneal artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Medial plantar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal is a branch of the posterior tibial artery and provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. It anastomoses with the artery of the tarsal sinus to form a vascular sling inferior to the talar neck.