This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6441
Topic: 6. Spine
In the lumbar spine, the intervertebral foramen (IVF) is bounded by several osseous and ligamentous structures. What forms the anterior border of the lumbar IVF?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pedicle of the superior vertebra
Explanation
The lumbar intervertebral foramen is bordered anteriorly by the posterior aspects of the adjacent vertebral bodies and the intervening intervertebral disc (and the posterior longitudinal ligament). The superior and inferior borders are the pedicles of the superior and inferior vertebrae, respectively. The posterior border is formed by the ligamentum flavum, the facet joint capsule, and the pars interarticularis.
Question 6442
Topic: 6. Spine
The vertebral artery typically arises from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck. At which cervical spine level does the vertebral artery typically first enter the transverse foramen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C1
Explanation
The vertebral artery most commonly enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level (in approximately 90-95% of individuals). It then ascends through the transverse foramina of C6 through C1 before entering the foramen magnum. It rarely enters at C7.
Question 6443
Topic: 6. Spine
During a standard anterior (Smith-Robinson) approach to the lower cervical spine, dissection is carried out between the visceral and carotid sheaths. Which structure is at greatest risk if the self-retaining retractor is placed too forcefully over the longus colli muscle laterally?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation
The cervical sympathetic trunk lies on the surface of the longus colli muscle, beneath the prevertebral fascia. Improper or overly lateral placement of retractors beneath this fascia can injure the trunk, leading to an iatrogenic Horner's syndrome.
Question 6444
Topic: 6. Spine
During a posterior approach to the upper cervical spine, the surgeon exposes the suboccipital triangle. Which vital structure courses within this anatomical triangle over the posterior arch of C1?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal carotid artery
Explanation
The vertebral artery lies within the suboccipital triangle, resting in a groove on the superior surface of the posterior arch of the atlas (C1). Dissection must remain strictly subperiosteal and within 1.5 cm of the midline to avoid catastrophic vascular injury.
Question 6445
Topic: 6. Spine
A 2-year-old girl is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis due to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. What is the most critical screening evaluation required before considering any spinal surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the entire neuroaxis to rule out intraspinal anomalies
Explanation
Up to 40% of patients with congenital scoliosis have associated intraspinal anomalies, such as a tethered cord, syringomyelia, or diastematomyelia. An MRI of the entire spine is critical before surgical intervention to avoid neurologic injury during curve correction. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram are also indicated due to associated VACTERL anomalies.
Question 6446
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with insidious onset of low back pain exacerbated by extension. Plain radiographs are normal. An MRI shows marrow edema in the pars interarticularis of L5 bilaterally without a definitive fracture line. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate pars repair with pedicle screws and laminar hooks
Explanation
The patient has an acute stress reaction of the pars interarticularis (early spondylolysis), evidenced by MRI marrow edema without a radiographic defect. The mainstay of treatment is conservative: cessation of the offending activity (extension loading), rest, and physical therapy focused on antilordotic core strengthening. Surgery is not indicated for early stress reactions.
Question 6447
Topic: 6. Spine
An 8-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with profound hypotonia, feeding difficulties, and episodes of central apnea. What is the most likely orthopedic cause of these symptoms?
Infants with achondroplasia are at high risk for foramen magnum stenosis, which can compress the cervicomedullary junction. This life-threatening complication can manifest as central apnea, hypotonia, and sudden infant death.
Question 6448
Topic: 6. Spine
A 4-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with hypotonia, hyperreflexia, and episodes of central apnea. What is the most critical next step in diagnostic evaluation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the craniocervical junction and foramen magnum
Explanation
Infants with achondroplasia are at high risk for foramen magnum stenosis, which can cause severe cervicomedullary compression manifesting as central apnea, myelopathy, and hypotonia. Urgent MRI of the craniocervical junction is vital to determine if suboccipital decompression is necessary.
Question 6449
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male undergoes a multi-level posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On post-operative day two, he develops isolated, profound weakness in right shoulder abduction and elbow flexion. He has no new sensory deficits, and his myelopathic leg symptoms remain improved. What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Epidural hematoma compressing the spinal cord
Explanation
The patient is experiencing a C5 palsy, a known complication of cervical decompression (most common after laminectomy). The prevailing theory is that posterior drift of the spinal cord following multi-level laminectomy causes traction (tethering) on the short, horizontally oriented C5 nerve roots.
Question 6450
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old male requires surgical decompression for severe L4-L5 lateral recess stenosis presenting as neurogenic claudication. During the central and lateral decompression, which of the following anatomical structures must be partially resected (undercut) to adequately unroof the traversing L5 nerve root within the lateral recess?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior articular process of L4
Explanation
The superior articular process of the lower vertebra (L5 in this case) forms the posterior wall of the lateral recess. Hypertrophy of this facet causes compression of the traversing root (L5 root at the L4-L5 level). Thus, a medial facetectomy undercutting the L5 superior articular process is essential for decompression.
Question 6451
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old man presents with right-arm pain, numbness in his thumb and index finger, and weakness in wrist extension. The brachioradialis reflex is diminished. If a herniated nucleus pulposus is the cause, which disc level is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C4-C5
Explanation
A C5-C6 disc herniation compresses the C6 nerve root. C6 radiculopathy typically presents with sensory deficits in the thumb and index finger, weakness in wrist extension and elbow flexion, and an altered or absent brachioradialis reflex.
Question 6452
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old male arrives at the trauma bay after a motorcycle crash. He has complete loss of motor and sensory function below T10. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. Which of the following statements is true regarding his neurological status?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. He has a definitively incomplete spinal cord injury.
Explanation
An absent bulbocavernosus reflex indicates the patient is in a state of spinal shock, characterized by a temporary loss of all reflex activity below the level of injury. A true determination of whether the spinal cord injury is complete or incomplete cannot be made until this reflex returns.
Question 6453
Topic: 6. Spine
A 28-year-old male suffers a severe spinal cord injury at the T6 level. Initially, he presents with flaccid paralysis and areflexia below the level of the injury, indicative of spinal shock. Which clinical finding signifies the definitive end of the 'spinal shock' phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Return of deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
Explanation
Spinal shock is a temporary physiologic state of flaccid paralysis and areflexia below the level of a spinal cord injury. The return of the bulbocavernosus reflex typically occurs within 24 to 48 hours and is universally considered the clinical marker signaling the end of spinal shock.
Question 6454
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old male sustains a severe hyperflexion-distraction injury to his cervical spine in an MVC. Radiographs demonstrate a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) with severe angulation but minimal translation. The C2-C3 disc space is visibly widened posteriorly. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Halo vest with longitudinal skeletal traction
Explanation
This describes a Type IIA Hangman's fracture, characterized by severe angulation with minimal translation and a widened posterior disc space. It is caused by flexion-distraction. Axial traction is strictly contraindicated as it will distract the fracture further. Management requires gentle reduction with slight extension and compression, typically immobilized in a Halo vest.
Question 6455
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating fine motor skills in his hands. MRI confirms severe cervical spinal stenosis at C4-C6 with cord signal changes. On examination, he can ambulate without assistance but is noticeably unsteady and reports mild difficulty with his gait. According to the Nurick classification for cervical spondylotic myelopathy, what grade corresponds to this patient's clinical status?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade 0
Explanation
The Nurick classification grades cervical myelopathy based on gait impairment. Grade 0: Root signs only. Grade 1: Signs of cord involvement, but normal gait. Grade 2: Mild gait involvement but able to walk unassisted and remain employed. Grade 3: Gait abnormality prevents employment, but can walk unassisted. Grade 4: Able to ambulate only with assistance (walker/cane). Grade 5: Chair-bound or bedridden. This patient fits Grade 2.
Question 6456
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle accident with a traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 (Hangman's fracture) demonstrating 4 mm of translation and 15 degrees of angulation. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is the primary mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II; Hyperextension and axial loading followed by severe flexion
Explanation
This is a Type II Hangman's fracture (greater than 3 mm translation, greater than 11 degrees angulation). The mechanism is initial hyperextension and axial loading followed by severe flexion, which disrupts the C2-C3 disc.
Question 6457
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome undergoes an emergent MRI. Which of the following clinical findings is considered the most reliable indicator of complete cauda equina syndrome with the poorest prognosis for recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bilateral sciatica
Explanation
Painless urinary retention resulting in overflow incontinence indicates a complete cauda equina syndrome with established autonomic dysfunction. Decompression at this late stage is associated with a significantly poorer prognosis for bowel and bladder recovery.
Question 6458
Topic: 6. Spine
When evaluating a lateral cervical spine radiograph of a 6-year-old child following minor trauma, apparent subluxation of C2 on C3 is noted. Which radiographic line or principle is most useful to distinguish physiologic pseudosubluxation from a true traumatic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wackenheim clivus line
Explanation
Swischuk's line is drawn from the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C1 to the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C3. In physiologic pseudosubluxation (a normal variant in children up to age 8), the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C2 should pass within 1.5 to 2 mm of this line. Deviation greater than 2 mm suggests true subluxation or hangman's fracture.
Question 6459
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast is diagnosed with a L5 isthmic spondylolysis. Which of the following factors is the strongest risk factor for the progression of spondylolysis to spondylolisthesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Low pelvic incidence
Explanation
Risk factors for the progression of spondylolysis to spondylolisthesis include a high slip angle, high pelvic incidence, dysplastic facet joints, and dome-shaped sacrum. The highest risk of progression occurs during the adolescent growth spurt.
Question 6460
Topic: 6. Spine
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the ED after a motor vehicle collision. Neurological exam is normal. The lateral cervical spine radiograph shows 3 mm of anterior translation of C2 on C3. Which radiographic reference line is best used to differentiate physiologic pseudosubluxation from a true traumatic ligamentous injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wackenheim's clivus line
Explanation
Swischuk's line (posterior cervical line) is drawn from the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C1 to the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C3. In physiologic pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3 (common in young children), the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C2 should lie within 1-2 mm of this line. Deviation > 2 mm suggests a true structural or ligamentous injury.
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