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Question 6461

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old girl undergoes reduction and instrumented fusion for a high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. Postoperatively, she develops new-onset weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension. Which nerve root was most likely stretched during the reduction?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

Reduction of a high-grade L5-S1 spondylolisthesis stretches the L5 nerve root as the L5 vertebra is translated backward and superiorly. This commonly presents postoperatively as a traction injury causing weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension.

Question 6462

Topic: 6. Spine

An infant with achondroplasia presents with central apnea, profound hypotonia, and hyperreflexia. What is the most critical anatomical abnormality responsible for these symptoms?

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Atlantoaxial instability
. Foramen magnum stenosis
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
. Tethered spinal cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis


Explanation

Infants with achondroplasia have a small skull base, predisposing them to foramen magnum stenosis. This can cause cervicomedullary compression, leading to central apnea, hypotonia, quadriparesis, and even sudden death if unrecognized.

Question 6463

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old girl presents with torticollis following a mild upper respiratory infection. Radiographs show rotatory subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint. What is the most common underlying mechanism for this specific condition (Grisel's syndrome)?

. Congenital absence of the transverse ligament
. Traumatic rupture of the alar ligaments
. Inflammatory hyperemia causing laxity of the transverse ligament
. Neoplastic erosion of the dens
. Degenerative osteoarthritis of C1-C2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Congenital absence of the transverse ligament


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation caused by inflammatory hyperemia of the retropharyngeal space (often post-URI or ENT surgery). The inflammation leads to laxity of the transverse ligament and subsequent subluxation.

Question 6464

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old child presents to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Lateral cervical spine radiographs show 3 mm of anterior translation of C2 on C3. Swischuk's line is drawn and passes 1 mm anterior to the posterior arch of C3. What is the correct interpretation?

. Hangman's fracture
. Odontoid fracture
. Physiological pseudosubluxation
. True traumatic C2-C3 subluxation
. Bilateral facet dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hangman's fracture


Explanation

Pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3 is a normal variant in children up to 8 years old. Swischuk's line (spinolaminar line from C1 to C3) should pass within 2 mm of the anterior cortex of the posterior arch of C2; if it does, the subluxation is physiological rather than traumatic.

Question 6465

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of lower back pain that worsens with extension. Oblique radiographs of the lumbar spine demonstrate a "Scotty dog with a collar" sign. If conservative treatment with rest and bracing fails after 6 months, what is the most appropriate surgical option for a persistent L5 pars defect without spondylolisthesis?

. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. L5 laminectomy
. L5-S1 posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screws
. Direct pars repair
. Sacroiliac joint fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)


Explanation

In a young athlete with symptomatic spondylolysis (pars defect) that fails conservative management and has no significant spondylolisthesis or disc degeneration, direct pars repair is the surgical treatment of choice to preserve motion.

Question 6466

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with mid-back pain. Lateral spine radiographs demonstrate vertebra plana (a uniformly flattened vertebral body). The adjacent disc spaces are preserved. Biopsy of the lesion would most likely reveal cells positive for which immunohistochemical markers?

. CD99 and FLI-1
. S-100 and CD1a
. Cytokeratin and EMA
. Vimentin and SMA
. Desmin and Myogenin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD99 and FLI-1


Explanation

Vertebra plana in a child is highly characteristic of Eosinophilic Granuloma (Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis). The Langerhans cells in this condition are characteristically positive for S-100 and CD1a, and contain Birbeck granules on electron microscopy.

Question 6467

Topic: 6. Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with mid-back pain. Lateral spine radiographs demonstrate complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preserved adjacent disc spaces. Biopsy of the lesion reveals a proliferation of mononuclear cells with folded, 'coffee-bean' nuclei and eosinophils. Electron microscopy would classically reveal which of the following structures?

. Weibel-Palade bodies
. Birbeck granules
. Howell-Jolly bodies
. Russell bodies
. Psammoma bodies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Birbeck granules


Explanation

The presentation of vertebra plana in a child, combined with the characteristic histology, points to Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma). The hallmark finding on electron microscopy for LCH is the presence of Birbeck granules, which have a characteristic 'tennis racket' appearance.

Question 6468

Topic: 6. Spine

The Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) is used to evaluate the need for surgical stabilization in patients with metastatic spine disease. Which of the following components of the SINS criteria carries the highest maximum point value?

. Location of the lesion
. Pain characteristics
. Bone lesion type (lytic vs blastic)
. Radiographic spinal alignment
. Posterolateral involvement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiographic spinal alignment


Explanation

The SINS criteria assess six domains. The maximum point values are: Location (3), Pain (3), Bone lesion quality (2), Radiographic spinal alignment (4), Vertebral body collapse (3), and Posterolateral involvement (3). Radiographic spinal alignment carries the highest possible score (4 points for subluxation/translation).

Question 6469

Topic: 6. Spine

A 5-year-old male with Morquio syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV) is scheduled for a bilateral proximal femoral osteotomy. Prior to induction of general anesthesia, which of the following specialized imaging studies is absolutely mandatory to prevent a potentially fatal orthopedic complication?

. Echocardiogram to assess for fatal arrhythmias
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine
. CT scan of the chest to rule out tracheomalacia
. MRI of the lumbar spine to rule out tethered cord
. DEXA scan to assess risk of intraoperative fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with Morquio syndrome (MPS IV) have severe skeletal dysplasia but normal intelligence. They are uniquely predisposed to odontoid hypoplasia and ligamentous laxity, leading to severe atlantoaxial instability. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine are mandatory before any surgery (especially requiring intubation) to prevent catastrophic spinal cord injury.

Question 6470

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old Asian male with progressive hand clumsiness and hyperreflexia undergoes a multi-level cervical laminoplasty for Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL). On post-operative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and external rotation, but maintains normal lower extremity motor function and normal sensation. What is the most likely etiology of this post-operative complication?

. Spinal cord ischemia from anterior spinal artery hypoperfusion
. Tethering of the C5 nerve root due to posterior drift of the spinal cord
. Post-operative epidural hematoma compressing the cervical spinal cord
. Displacement of the lamina graft leading to direct root compression
. Iatrogenic injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tethering of the C5 nerve root due to posterior drift of the spinal cord


Explanation

C5 palsy is a well-known complication after cervical decompressive surgery, particularly laminectomy and laminoplasty, occurring in roughly 5-10% of cases. It typically presents as deltoid and biceps weakness (shoulder abduction and elbow flexion) without sensory deficits or long tract signs. The prevailing theory is that posterior decompression allows the spinal cord to drift posteriorly, tethering or stretching the short C5 nerve roots.

Question 6471

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe, burning right anterior thigh pain and weakness with knee extension. Bowel and bladder functions are intact. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level on the right side. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this lesion?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the level of the herniation. Therefore, an L3-L4 far lateral disc compresses the L3 nerve root. A paracentral disc herniation at the same L3-L4 level would compress the traversing L4 nerve root.

Question 6472

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old male falls from a roof and sustains an L1 vertebral fracture. Neurological examination is completely normal. CT and MRI show an L1 burst fracture with 15 degrees of kyphosis, retropulsion of the posterosuperior body fragment by 2 mm, and an intact posterior ligamentous complex. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
. Short-segment posterior instrumented fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting
. Long-segment posterior instrumented fusion
. Percutaneous vertebroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization


Explanation

The TLICS score for this patient is calculated as follows: Morphology is Burst (2 points); Neurologic status is Intact (0 points); Posterior Ligamentous Complex (PLC) is Intact (0 points). The total TLICS score is 2. A score of 3 or less indicates non-operative management, typically with TLSO bracing. A score of 4 is indeterminate, and 5 or more dictates operative intervention.

Question 6473

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-year-old girl who was a restrained rear-seat passenger in a severe head-on collision presents with a transverse ecchymosis across her lower abdomen. Lumbar spine radiographs reveal a transverse fracture through the spinous process, pedicles, and posterior aspect of the L2 vertebral body. Given this specific spinal fracture pattern, what is the most common associated visceral injury?

. Aortic transection
. Hollow viscus (bowel) rupture
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus (bowel) rupture


Explanation

The patient has a Chance fracture (a flexion-distraction injury) commonly associated with lap seatbelt use. This mechanism causes a distraction force through the posterior and middle columns. Up to 40-50% of pediatric patients with seatbelt signs and Chance fractures have associated intra-abdominal injuries, most commonly hollow viscus (small bowel) injuries.

Question 6474

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with refractory lower back pain. Radiographs reveal a Grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. Her pelvic parameters are measured. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between pelvic incidence (PI) and isthmic spondylolisthesis?

. High PI correlates with a higher risk of spondylolisthesis and slip progression
. Low PI correlates with a higher risk of spondylolisthesis and slip progression
. High PI is protective against the development of pars interarticularis defects
. PI decreases significantly as a patient progresses from adolescence to adulthood
. There is no established correlation between pelvic incidence and isthmic spondylolisthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High PI correlates with a higher risk of spondylolisthesis and slip progression


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is an anatomical parameter that is constant in an adult. High pelvic incidence results in a steeper sacral slope and higher shear forces at the lumbosacral junction. It is strongly correlated with both the development and progression of isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1.

Question 6475

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact. Standard anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine plain radiographs are interpreted as "unremarkable." What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar and NSAIDs
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the entire cervical spine
. Dynamic flexion-extension cervical radiographs
. Reassurance and outpatient physical therapy
. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the entire cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have a highly rigid and osteopenic spine, functioning mechanically like a long bone. They are exceptionally susceptible to highly unstable fractures even from minor trauma. Due to distorted anatomy and osteopenia, plain radiographs often miss fractures in these patients. A CT scan of the entire cervical spine is the mandatory standard of care for any AS patient with neck pain following trauma.

Question 6476

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male is involved in a severe motor vehicle collision. Radiographs demonstrate a Levine-Edwards Type IIA traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture), characterized by severe angulation with minimal anterior translation. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury and its initial management is correct?

. The mechanism is hyperextension-axial loading; a rigid cervical collar is contraindicated
. The mechanism is flexion-distraction; cervical traction is contraindicated
. The mechanism is flexion-compression; halo vest application is contraindicated
. The mechanism is extension-distraction; anterior surgical fusion is contraindicated
. The mechanism is vertical compression; posterior C1-C2 fusion is the only viable option

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The mechanism is flexion-distraction; cervical traction is contraindicated


Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is characterized by significant angulation but minimal translation, differing from the classic Type II. The injury mechanism is flexion-distraction. Application of cervical traction is absolutely contraindicated, as it will exacerbate the distraction and deformity. Initial treatment typically involves application of a halo vest in slight extension and compression.

Question 6477

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

An adult patient is undergoing planning for complex corrective surgery to address severe symptomatic degenerative lumbar scoliosis and sagittal imbalance. Measurement of the patient's pelvic incidence (PI) yields a value of 55 degrees. To achieve optimal post-operative global sagittal balance, what is the approximate target value for the post-operative lumbar lordosis (LL)?

. 25 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 55 degrees
. 75 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 45 degrees


Explanation

In the sagittal plane, a harmonious spinopelvic relationship is achieved when the lumbar lordosis (LL) roughly matches the pelvic incidence (PI). The widely accepted formula proposed by Schwab and the SRS-Schwab adult spinal deformity classification states that the target PI minus LL (PI-LL mismatch) should be within 9-10 degrees (ideally < 10 degrees). Therefore, if PI is 55 degrees, the target LL should be approximately 55 degrees.

Question 6478

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old male presents with acute saddle anesthesia, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and an inability to void. An MRI confirms a massive central disc herniation at L4-L5 causing cauda equina syndrome. If urodynamic testing were performed during this acute early phase, which of the following bladder profiles would most characteristically be seen?

. Detrusor hyperreflexia with high voiding pressures
. Detrusor areflexia with increased post-void residual
. Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
. Decreased bladder compliance with normal bladder sensation
. Normal detrusor function with mechanical outflow obstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Detrusor areflexia with increased post-void residual


Explanation

Acute cauda equina syndrome causes a lower motor neuron (LMN) injury to the parasympathetic nerves innervating the bladder (S2-S4). This typically results in an acontractile (areflexic) bladder with loss of sensation, leading to urinary retention, large bladder capacity, increased post-void residual volume, and ultimately overflow incontinence.

Question 6479

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old intravenous drug user presents with severe lower back pain, high fevers, and progressive paraparesis. MRI reveals L2-L3 pyogenic spondylodiscitis with severe endplate destruction and a large anterior epidural abscess causing severe thecal sac compression. What is the most appropriate surgical approach for this patient?

. Posterior laminectomy without fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and structural grafting with stabilization
. Posterior decompressive laminectomy with pedicle screw fixation
. Percutaneous CT-guided abscess drainage
. Anterior epidural catheter placement for continuous irrigation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy and structural grafting with stabilization


Explanation

For anterior spinal infections (spondylodiscitis) accompanied by vertebral body destruction and an anterior epidural abscess, an anterior surgical approach (corpectomy and structural grafting) is most appropriate. It directly addresses the anterior pathology, allows for thorough debridement, and provides mechanical support to the anterior column. Laminectomy is contraindicated as it destabilizes the spine, particularly when the anterior column is already compromised, leading to progressive kyphosis and neurologic deterioration.

Question 6480

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with neck stiffness after a minor fall. A lateral cervical spine radiograph shows 3 mm of anterior displacement of C2 on C3. To determine if this is a physiologic pseudosubluxation or a true ligamentous injury, Swischuk's line is drawn. Which of the following describes a finding that supports a diagnosis of physiologic pseudosubluxation?

. The spinolaminar line of C2 lies > 3 mm anterior to the line connecting the spinolaminar lines of C1 and C3
. The line connecting the anterior aspect of the C1 and C3 vertebral bodies intersects the middle of the C2 body
. The spinolaminar line of C2 lies within 1.5 mm to 2.0 mm of the line connecting the spinolaminar lines of C1 and C3
. The predental space measures greater than 5 mm
. The basion-dental interval is greater than 12 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The spinolaminar line of C2 lies within 1.5 mm to 2.0 mm of the line connecting the spinolaminar lines of C1 and C3


Explanation

Pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3 is common in children under 8 years due to horizontal facet joints and ligamentous laxity. It is differentiated from a true cervical spine injury by using Swischuk's line, which is drawn from the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C1 to the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C3. If the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C2 lies within 1.5 to 2 mm of this line, the subluxation is physiologic.