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Question 6421

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male arrives in the trauma bay after a severe motor vehicle collision. He has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 55 bpm. Physical examination reveals that his extremities are warm, flushed, and well-perfused. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Hypovolemic shock
. Cardiogenic shock
. Neurogenic shock
. Septic shock
. Obstructive shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypovolemic shock


Explanation

The combination of hypotension, bradycardia (an inability to mount a tachycardic response), and warm, flushed extremities is the classic triad of neurogenic shock. This results from a severe cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury disrupting the sympathetic outflow, leading to loss of vascular tone and unopposed vagal tone.

Question 6422

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents with bilateral hand clumsiness and broad-based gait. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and sustained ankle clonus. MRI shows severe cervical stenosis at C5-C6 with T2 hyperintensity in the cord. The pathological progression of this condition is most directly associated with ischemia of which of the following vascular structures?

. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
. Anterior spinal artery
. Radicular artery of Adamkiewicz
. Posterior spinal artery
. Vertebral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery


Explanation

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is caused by direct mechanical compression and secondary ischemia. Compression of the anterior spinal artery leads to ischemic injury of the anterior and lateral funiculi, producing upper motor neuron signs.

Question 6423

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain and cramping that worsens with walking and prolonged standing, but improves when he leans forward over a shopping cart. MRI shows severe lumbar spinal stenosis at L4-L5. What anatomical structure hypertrophies and buckles into the spinal canal during extension, contributing to his symptoms?

. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Anterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Interspinous ligament
. Supraspinous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior longitudinal ligament


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is worsened by spinal extension, which causes the hypertrophied ligamentum flavum to buckle anteriorly into the spinal canal, further compressing the neural elements. Flexion stretches the ligament, increasing canal volume and relieving symptoms.

Question 6424

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male complains of bilateral leg pain and cramping that worsens with walking and prolonged standing, but improves when he leans forward on a shopping cart. The symptomatic relief he experiences with forward flexion is primarily due to which of the following anatomic changes in the lumbar spine?

. Decreased tension on the dural sac
. Unbuckling and tightening of the ligamentum flavum
. Increased tension on the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Decompression of the anterior spinal artery
. Reduction of an underlying isthmic spondylolisthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased tension on the dural sac


Explanation

Forward flexion of the lumbar spine increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina. This is primarily achieved through the unbuckling (tightening) of the ligamentum flavum, providing relief in neurogenic claudication caused by lumbar spinal stenosis.

Question 6425

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old male presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down his arm, accompanied by numbness in his thumb and index finger. On physical exam, he has weakness in wrist extension and a diminished deep tendon reflex. Which reflex is most likely diminished in this clinical scenario?

. Biceps reflex
. Brachioradialis reflex
. Triceps reflex
. Finger flexor reflex
. Pectoralis reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps reflex


Explanation

The patient's presentation of numbness in the thumb/index finger and wrist extension weakness points to a C6 radiculopathy. The brachioradialis reflex is innervated primarily by the C6 nerve root, while the biceps reflex is C5 and the triceps is C7.

Question 6426

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain that occurs during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of pitching. On examination, he has pain with the milking maneuver and a positive moving valgus stress test. MRI confirms a full-thickness midsubstance tear of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). If surgical reconstruction is chosen, which structure is considered the primary isometric restraint to valgus stress at the elbow?

. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Transverse ligament of Cooper
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. It is divided into anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is taut in extension and up to approximately 90 degrees of flexion, functioning as the primary isometric restraint to valgus stress. The posterior band becomes taut in deeper flexion (>90 degrees).

Question 6427

Topic: Cervical Spine

During ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction of the elbow in an overhead throwing athlete, the graft is tensioned to recreate the primary valgus stabilizer. Which specific portion of the UCL complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band of the anterior bundle is taut and acts as the primary stabilizer from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion.

Question 6428

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 20-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction utilizing an ipsilateral palmaris longus autograft. Which specific component of the native UCL complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band is tight in extension and remains the primary restraint up to 120 degrees of flexion, while the posterior band tightens more in higher flexion.

Question 6429

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and difficulty walking. Examination shows positive Hoffmann's sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. MRI reveals severe cervical stenosis at C4-C5 and C5-C6. Which physical exam finding would most specifically indicate an upper motor neuron lesion resulting from cervical spine pathology?

. Loss of proprioception in the toes
. Bilateral absent Achilles reflexes
. Positive Babinski sign
. Positive inverted supinator reflex
. Absent cremasteric reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of proprioception in the toes


Explanation

The inverted supinator reflex (brachioradialis reflex) is elicited by tapping the brachioradialis tendon. A positive response (finger flexion) indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at C5 and an upper motor neuron lesion below the C5 level, making it highly specific to cervical myelopathy. The Babinski sign is an UMN sign but does not specifically localize to the cervical spine (could be thoracic).

Question 6430

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with an insidious onset of low back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs reveal a Grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. The bilateral pars interarticularis defects are most clearly visualized on which specific radiographic view?

. Anteroposterior (AP)
. Cross-table lateral
. Oblique
. Flexion-extension lateral
. Ferguson view

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior (AP)


Explanation

The oblique radiograph of the lumbar spine is the classic view to best visualize the pars interarticularis, often described by the 'Scotty dog' sign. A defect or fracture of the pars interarticularis (spondylolysis) appears as a radiolucent line at the 'collar' of the Scotty dog.

Question 6431

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient presents with weakness in wrist flexion and finger extension, a diminished triceps reflex, and numbness isolated to the middle finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5


Explanation

C7 radiculopathy classically presents with sensory deficits in the middle finger, a diminished triceps reflex, and motor weakness in the triceps, wrist flexors, and finger extensors. This is the most common cervical radiculopathy.

Question 6432

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Based on the Meyerding classification for spondylolisthesis, a Grade III slip indicates what percentage of anterior translation of the superior vertebral body over the inferior vertebral body?
. 1-25%
. 26-50%
. 51-75%
. 76-100%
. >100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 51-75%


Explanation

The Meyerding classification grades the severity of spondylolisthesis based on the percentage of slippage: Grade I (1-25%), Grade II (26-50%), Grade III (51-75%), Grade IV (76-100%), and Grade V (spondyloptosis, >100%).

Question 6433

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male complains of deteriorating handwriting, dropping objects, and a stiff-legged gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and an inverted supinator reflex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
. Severe carpal tunnel syndrome
. Syringomyelia
. Cervical radiculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis


Explanation

The combination of fine motor skill deterioration, gait disturbance, and upper motor neuron signs (Hoffmann's sign, inverted supinator reflex, hyperreflexia) is the classic presentation for cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM).

Question 6434

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male sustains a burst fracture of the atlas (Jefferson fracture) after a diving accident. On the open-mouth odontoid radiograph, the rule of Spence is evaluated. Transverse atlantal ligament rupture is highly suspected if the combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 exceeds what value?

. 3 mm
. 5 mm
. 6.9 mm
. 9.5 mm
. 12 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3 mm


Explanation

According to the rule of Spence, a combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of greater than 6.9 mm on an open-mouth radiograph indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. This implies C1-C2 instability requiring rigid immobilization or surgical fusion.

Question 6435

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and prolonged standing. She notes that leaning forward on a shopping cart relieves the pain. Which of the following diagnostic findings is most likely to be present?

. Decreased ankle-brachial index (ABI)
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum on MRI
. Absent pedal pulses
. Pain exacerbation with stationary cycling
. Positive straight leg raise test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased ankle-brachial index (ABI)


Explanation

The patient's symptoms are classic for neurogenic claudication due to lumbar spinal stenosis, commonly relieved by flexion (shopping cart sign) and exacerbated by extension. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum, facet arthropathy, and disc bulging are the primary causes of acquired central canal stenosis.

Question 6436

Topic: 6. Spine
A trauma patient arrives after a knife wound to the dorsal spine, resulting in a classic Brown-Séquard syndrome (spinal cord hemisection). Which of the following neurological deficits is expected on the contralateral side of the patient's body below the level of the lesion?
. Loss of fine touch and vibratory sensation
. Loss of voluntary motor function
. Loss of pain and temperature sensation
. Loss of conscious proprioception
. Hyperreflexia and spasticity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of pain and temperature sensation


Explanation

In Brown-Séquard syndrome (hemisection of the spinal cord), damage to the spinothalamic tract results in a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side, usually starting 1-2 levels below the lesion, because these fibers cross in the anterior white commissure shortly after entering the cord. Ipsilateral findings include loss of motor function (corticospinal tract) and loss of proprioception/vibration/fine touch (dorsal columns), as these tracts do not cross until the medulla.

Question 6437

Topic: 6. Spine

During a transforaminal endoscopic lumbar discectomy, the surgeon accesses the disc space through Kambin's triangle to avoid nerve root injury. Which of the following structures forms the medial border of Kambin's triangle?

. The exiting nerve root
. The traversing nerve root
. The superior articular process of the inferior vertebra
. The inferior articular process of the superior vertebra
. The superior endplate of the inferior vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The exiting nerve root


Explanation

Kambin's triangle is a three-dimensional anatomical corridor. Its borders are: the hypotenuse is the exiting nerve root, the base is the superior endplate of the inferior vertebral body, and the medial border is the superior articular process (SAP) of the inferior vertebra.

Question 6438

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior approach to the thoracolumbar spine for corpectomy, careful attention is paid to identifying and protecting the artery of Adamkiewicz to prevent anterior spinal cord syndrome. Where does this artery most commonly originate?

. On the right side between T4 and T8
. On the left side between T8 and L1
. On the right side between T8 and L1
. On the left side between L2 and L4
. On the right side between L2 and L4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. On the right side between T4 and T8


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz (arteria radicularis magna) is the major blood supply to the lower anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord. It typically originates from the left side of the aorta between the T8 and L1 spinal levels in roughly 75% of people.

Question 6439

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), lateral dissection carries the risk of vertebral artery injury. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically enter the transverse foramen?

. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C4


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically arises from the subclavian artery and ascends to enter the transverse foramen of the C6 vertebra in approximately 90% of individuals, bypassing the C7 transverse foramen.

Question 6440

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior (Smith-Robinson) approach to the lower cervical spine, what is the most accurate description of the anatomical relationship and risk to the recurrent laryngeal nerves (RLN)?

. The right RLN is more vulnerable due to a variable ascending path crossing the field anterolaterally
. The left RLN is more vulnerable because it loops broadly under the subclavian artery
. Both the right and left RLNs consistently loop beneath the aortic arch
. The left RLN courses lateral to the carotid sheath making it prone to retraction injury
. The right RLN consistently runs within the tracheoesophageal groove throughout its entire cervical course

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The right RLN is more vulnerable due to a variable ascending path crossing the field anterolaterally


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends via a variable path, often crossing the operative field from an anterolateral angle at the level of C6-C7 or below, increasing its risk of injury. The left RLN loops under the aortic arch and ascends consistently protected within the tracheoesophageal groove.