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Question 2421

Topic: 6. Spine
During anterior surgery on the cervical spine, at what level would the lateral dissection of the longus colli muscle most likely cause Horner’s syndrome?
. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

Discussion: The sympathetic chain approaches the lateral border of the longus colli muscle at C6 and is more vulnerable to injury at this level. Injury to the chain will cause Horner’s syndrome, usually seen as unilateral ptosis.

Question 2422

Topic: 6. Spine
The great medullary artery, also known as the Adamkiewicz artery, originates from which of the following arteries?
. Left posterior intercostal between T8 and T12
. Posterior spinal between T1 and T12
. Anterior spinal between T4 and T6
. Superior phrenic
. Inferior phrenic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Left posterior intercostal between T8 and T12


Explanation

Discussion: The great medullary artery originates as a direct or indirect branch of the left posterior intercostal artery, usually between T8 and T12. It becomes intradural and crosses over one to three disk spaces before turning to the midline where it anastomoses with the anterior spinal artery.

Question 2423

Topic: Cervical Spine
A 36-year-old woman has neck pain in the upper cervical region and occipital discomfort after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals no forehead or scalp lacerations. The neurologic examination is normal. A CT scan shows no evidence of bony injury. Figures 39a and 39b show a lateral radiograph and an MRI scan. Management should consist of:
. a hard cervical collar for 6 weeks.
. skeletal traction for 6 weeks, followed by halo vest immobilization for 6 weeks.
. halo vest immobilization for 3 months.
. posterior cervical C1-2 wiring with arthrodesis.
. anterior C2-3 diskectomy, fusion, and plating.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior cervical C1-2 wiring with arthrodesis.


Explanation

Discussion: The lateral radiograph shows 8 mm of atlantoaxial translation. In the absence of a bony injury, this represents rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. These injuries require arthrodesis because nonsurgical measures will not provide stability.

Question 2424

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following represents a contraindication for interspinous process decompression for the treatment of lumbar spinal stenosis? Review Topic

. Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis
. Inability to walk at least 100 feet
. Cauda equina syndrome
. Fixed sensory deficit
. Intermittent foot drop

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis


Explanation

Kondrashov and associates noted stable good outcomes at 4 years in 14 of 18 patients treated with X-STOP interspinous process decompression as defined as an improvement over preoperative Oswestry scores of 15 points or more. Similar results were seen after 1 year in a European study by Siddiqui and associates. Exclusion and inclusion criteria for these studies varied somewhat, but cauda equina syndrome was the only exclusion criteria listed in both studies. All of the other choices did not represent exclusion criteria in either study.

Question 2425

Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old man has had a 3-day history of severe, incapacitating lower back pain without radiation. He reports improvement with rest. He denies any history of trauma, has no constitutional symptoms, and his neurologic examination is normal. What is the best course of action?
. Facet injections
. Epidural steroid injection
. MRI of the lumbar spine
. Bed rest for 2 weeks with continued restrictions
. Early return to activities as his symptoms allow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early return to activities as his symptoms allow


Explanation

There are no red flags in the history or examination to warrant MRI. Limited bed rest (less than 3 days) has been shown to be more beneficial to early recovery compared with prolonged bed rest (more than 7 days). No data support the use of epidural or facet steroid injections for acute low back pain. Early return to activity is recommended.

Question 2426

Topic: 6. Spine

A 57-year-old man has had a 2-week history of neck pain. He has no history of radiating symptoms, and has no complaints of numbness or paresthesias. There was no trauma associated with the onset of the pain. Figure 26 shows the MRI scan initially obtained by his family physician. What should the patient be told regarding the prevalence of the MRI findings in his age group? Review Topic

. Less than 10%
. 20% to 25%
. 50% to 60%
. 75% to 80%
. Greater than 95%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less than 10%


Explanation

The MRI findings reveal age-related degenerative changes in the cervical spine, which is a very common finding in the adult population. Boden and associates evaluated cervical spine MRI findings on 63 asymptomatic subjects, and found that the prevalence of having at least one degenerative disk was approximately 57% in those older than age 40 years.

Question 2427

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 30a through 30c show the CT scans and standing lateral radiograph of a 30-year-old woman who was injured in a fall while snowboarding. She is neurologically intact in the lower extremities and has normal rectal tone and sensation. She has tenderness at the thoracolumbar junction but no ecchymosis or palpable defect. Mobilization in a thoracolumbosacral orthosis for this patient has been proven to result in which of the following clinical outcomes? Review Topic

. 20% to 25% chance of neurologic deterioration
. Significant risk of late symptoms of spinal stenosis
. Higher complication rate than surgical treatment
. Equivalent clinical outcome compared to surgical treatment
. Clinical outcome that depends more on the status of the adjacent disks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20% to 25% chance of neurologic deterioration


Explanation

Surgical and nonsurgical treatment have been shown to be equivalent in terms of clinical outcome in a prospective randomized trial of stable burst fractures. There is relatively limited risk of neurologic injury with careful mobilization in appropriate bracing of patients with this injury pattern. There is only infrequent symptomatic late stenosis, with many patients experiencing resorption of the intra-canal fragments. The status of the adjacent disks has not been shown to be a prognostically important factor. The complication rates of surgical and nonsurgical treatments appear to be similar if not less for nonsurgical treatment.

Question 2428

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man undergoes L4-L5 laminectomy and instrumented fusion for lumbar spinal stenosis. Post procedure radiograph is shown in figure A. Postoperatively, he develops numbness and tingling along the lateral aspect of his thigh with no associated foot symptoms or weakness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding? Review Topic

. L4 nerve root injury during laminectomy
. L5 nerve root injury during laminectomy
. Patient positioning during surgery
. Dural tear
. Use of monoaxial pedicle screws

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 nerve root injury during laminectomy


Explanation

During lumbar laminectomy and instrumented fusion, patients are in prone position with padded rests near the iliac crest. The lateral femoral cutaenous nerve (LFCN) is at risk of compression during surgery due to positioning.Careful patient position during orthopaedic surgery is of the utmost importance to prevent nerve injury. When patients are placed lateral for hip procedures, adequate positioning and padding of bony prominences and nerves is necessary to prevent complications. During prone position for spine surgery, the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can be compressed under the iliac crest padded rest leading to meralgia parasthetica (MP). Numbness and tingling over the lateral thigh are usually temporary. The ulnar nerve at the elbow can also be at risk due to pressure from the positioning of the arms and the brachial plexus can be compromised by possible stretch.Cho et al. review the literature regarding development of paresthesia due to compression of the LFCN after prone positioning for spinal surgery. They reported up to 24% incidence of after surgery. Surgery longer than 3.5 hours and shorter distance between the pelvic posts were implicated in development of MP. They recommened the patient should be positioned symmetrically, with smaller bolsters under the ASIS and adequate distance between the two pelvic posts.Labrom et al. examined the use of SSEPs during scoliosis surgery to evaluate positional-related brachial plexopathy. They found that 27 of 434 patients had 30 percent or greater loss of SSEP during surgery. There was a significant association with prone versus supine positioning (p<0.01).Schwartz et al. used neurological monitoring to identify the incidence and location of position-induced nerve injury in anterior cervical spine surgery. 1.8% of 3806 patients showed evidence of impending neurological injury. The majority of these cases wereat the brachial plexus during shoulder taping and application of counter traction.Figure A is an AP lumbar spine radiograph showing intact hardware from L4-L5 laminectomy and fusion.Incorrect

Question 2429

Topic: 6. Spine
A 7-year-old girl with a known diagnosis of neurofibromatosis has neck pain and deformity. She has been wearing a soft cervical collar for the past 2 months with mild relief of her symptoms. An MRI scan shows several small neurofibromas on the left side of the cervical spine near the foramina at C6 and 7. A lateral cervical spine radiograph is shown in Figure 34. What is the most appropriate management?
. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior spinal fusion
. In situ posterior fusion
. Halo traction correction and posterior fusion
. Continued soft cervical collar treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion


Explanation

With a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis and severe kyphosis, anterior and posterior treatment is needed to achieve correction and fusion. In situ fusion has a high failure rate with the kyphotic deformity and even with traction, correction of the kyphosis is not expected. Anterior treatment alone may achieve correction, but in neurofibromatosis only circumferential treatment has been shown to provide long-term stability.

Question 2430

Topic: 6. Spine
An intoxicated 68-year-old man fell at home. Examination reveals abrasions on his forehead, 2/5 weakness of his hand intrinsics and finger flexors, and 4/5 strength of the deltoid, biceps, and triceps bilaterally. Lower extremity motor function is 5/5. Sensory examination to pain and temperature is diminished in his hands but intact in his lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are depressed in all four extremities, but perianal sensation and rectal tone are intact. Foley catheterization yields 700 mL of urine. Radiographs of the cervical spine reveal multilevel spondylosis without fracture or subluxation. An MRI scan reveals high-intensity signal change within the cord substance at C5. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Anterior cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Bilateral brachial plexus palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Central cord syndrome is characterized by greater neurologic involvement of the upper extremities than the lower extremities. This is typically seen in older patients with cervical spondylosis without associated bony injury or joint subluxation. The prognosis for recovery is fair. Patients with Brown-Sequard syndrome have an ipsilateral motor deficit and contralateral loss of pain and temperature. Prognosis for recovery depends on the mechanism of injury, which is often of a penetrating nature. Anterior cord syndrome results from anterior compression such as occurs with a burst or teardrop fracture of the vertebral body; patients have bilateral motor loss, pain, and temperature loss with preservation of proprioception and vibratory sensation (posterior column function). The prognosis for recovery is generally poor. Posterior cord syndrome is rare and is associated with loss of posterior column function (proprioception and vibration). REFERENCES: Northrup BE: Evaluation and early treatment of acute injuries to the spine and spinal cord, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 541-549. Schneider RC, Thompson JM, Rebin J: The syndrome of acute central cervical spinal cord injury. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1958;21:216-227.

Question 2431

Topic: 6. Spine
  • A 19-year-old man sustains a complete spinal cord injury at the C7 level as a result of diving into a lake. He has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse of 60/min, and respirations of 20/min. These values most likely signify
. Spinal shock
. Neurogenic shock
. Hypovolemic shock
. Pulmonary embolism
. Fat embolus syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurogenic shock


Explanation

Neurogenic shock is defined as vascular hypotension with bradycardia as a result of spinal injury. The first few minutes after spinal cord injury are associated with hypertension and tachycardia, with a subsequent drop in pressure and pulse rate.

Question 2432

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 23a and 23b show the MRI scans of a 50-year-old woman who has increasing gait disturbance. She reports three falls in the past week. Examination reveals hyperreflexia, motor weakness in the biceps and triceps, and a positive Hoffman’s sign. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?
. Observation
. Physical therapy
. Epidural steroid injections
. Cervical laminectomy
. Anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has obvious signs of progressive myelopathy. Based on her significant physical examination findings, nonsurgical management will not significantly impact her outcome. Cervical decompression alone is contraindicated in patients with cervical kyphosis such as seen here. Anterior cervical fusion is the best option. REFERENCES: Emery SE, Bohlman HH, Bolesta MJ, et al: Anterior cervical decompression and arthrodesis for the treatment of cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Two to seventeen-year follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:941-951. Ferguson RJ, Caplan LR: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Neurol Clin 1985;3:373-382. Herkowitz HN: A comparison of anterior cervical fusion, cervical laminectomy, and cervical laminoplasty for the surgical management of multiple level spondylotic radiculopathy. Spine 1988;13:774-780.

Question 2433

Topic: 6. Spine

Kyphosis from a vertebral osteoporotic compression fracture often results in progressive kyphosis due to Review Topic

. progressive increase in lumbar lordosis.
. load transfer to the superior adjacent vertebra.
. normalization of load transfer with working kyphosis.
. reduced strain at the occipito-cervical junction.
. reduced strain at the apex of the deformity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. load transfer to the superior adjacent vertebra.


Explanation

Kayanja and associates, in a number of biomechanical studies, showed that in a kyphotic spine the strain is located at the apex of the deformity, the force is transmitted to the superior adjacent vertebrae, and that realignment and cement augmentation effectively normalize the load transfer.

Question 2434

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 19-year-old woman reports lower back pain following a motor vehicle accident. Radiographs obtained immediately after the accident and a bone scan obtained 4 weeks later are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. The patient asks questions regarding the cause, genetics, and natural history of her condition. She should be informed that the condition was
. caused by the accident, exists in 5% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. caused by the accident, exists in 12% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 3% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and should be monitored for progression yearly until age 25 years.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 5% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 12% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is likely to progress throughout adulthood.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. preexisting to her accident, exists in 5% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show L5 spondylolysis without spondylolisthesis (slip). The bone scan is normal, indicating that the pars interarticularis fractures are not acute. The incidence of spondylolysis is approximately 5% in the general population. The lesion generally develops in children age 5 to 6 years, and there is a second peak in the adolescent population. There is a familial predisposition, with reported rates of 27% to 69% in close relatives. A recent long-term follow-up study found that 90% of the spondylolisthesis had occurred before the patient’s first visit to the physician. Spondylolisthesis tends to progress during the initial growth spurt and is similar in some respects to idiopathic scoliosis. Progression of a lytic spondylolysis to spondylolisthesis in adulthood has been reported; however, this is exceedingly rare. REFERENCES: Lauerman WC, Cain JE: Isthmic spondylolisthesis in the adult. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:201-208. Hensinger RN: Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1098-1107. Seitsalo S, Osterman K, Hyvarinen H, Tallroth K, Schlenzka D, Poussa M: Progression of spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents: A long-term follow-up of 272 patients. Spine 1991;16:417-421. Fredrickson BE, Baker D, McHolik WJ, Yuan HA, Lubicky JP: The natural history of spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:699-707.

Question 2435

Topic: 6. Spine
A 27-year-old professional soccer player sustained an injury to his cervical spine in a collision with another player. Initially, he was diagnosed with a right C6 radiculopathy that resolved with rest, anti-inflammatory medications, and physical therapy. Following a fall in a game, he noted a recurrence of neck pain without radicular signs or symptoms. Additional nonsurgical management over the past few months has failed to provide relief. A cervical MRI scan shows a right-sided C5-6 herniation without any evidence of disk disease at other cervical levels. The patient desires to continue his career as a professional soccer player. What treatment offers the best long-term option for return to play?
. Right-sided posterior keyhole foraminotomy at C5-6
. Transforaminal epidural steroid injection at C5-6
. Single-level C5-6 anterior cervical fusion
. Posterior C5-6 fusion
. Continued nonsurgical management and counseling that his career as a professional athlete is over

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-level C5-6 anterior cervical fusion


Explanation

The patient has chronic neck pain that is affecting his career as a professional soccer player. Although he had signs and symptoms of a right C6 radiculopathy, neck pain is his only current symptom. Therefore, procedures to address the relief of radiculopathy (keyhole foraminotomy and transforaminal epidural steroid injection) are likely to be ineffective. Although Watkins and others have described continuing nonsurgical management for symptomatic herniated disks and return to play only when asymptomatic, the patient has not found relief with these modalities. A single-level cervical fusion (either postoperative or congenital) generally is not considered a contraindication for return to play in collision or contact sports. Therefore, anterior cervical fusion at C5-6 offers the best long-term option for return to play.

Question 2436

Topic: 6. Spine
An 18-year-old girl with quadriplegic cerebral palsy underwent posterior spinal fusion from T2 to the pelvis 3 weeks ago. She now has a low-grade fever and mild midline erythema in a 1-cm area from which there is slight clear yellowish drainage. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Wound culture with incision and debridement, IV antibiotics, and retention of instrumentation
. Oral antibiotics empirically
. Culture of the drainage and oral antibiotics
. Aspiration of the wound and IV antibiotics empirically
. Wound culture with incision and debridement, IV antibiotics, and removal of instrumentation followed by bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wound culture with incision and debridement, IV antibiotics, and retention of instrumentation


Explanation

The presence of drainage 3 weeks after surgery is a sign of wound infection. This infection most likely involves deep tissues until proven otherwise. Oral or IV antibiotics, in the absence of debridement, are not sufficient. Removal of the hardware would lead to rapid progression of the scoliosis in a spine that has been surgically destabilized by removal of the facet joints. The appropriate treatment is debridement with wound culture, IV antibiotics, and retention of hardware. The wound should be closed over drains.

Question 2437

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 29a and 29b show the radiograph and CT scan of a 48-year-old man who has diffuse spinal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
. Normal findings
. Ankylosing spondylitis
. Osteopetrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankylosing spondylitis


Explanation

The studies show marginal syndesmophyte formation characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis. These patients typically have diffuse ossification of the disk space without large osteophyte formation. DISH typically presents with large osteophytes, referred to as nonmarginal syndesmophytes. In this patient, the zygoapophyseal joints are fused rather than degenerative as would be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, and the costovertebral joints are also fused. Osteopetrosis does not normally ankylose the disk space.

Question 2438

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 27-year-old man has neck pain after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. A lateral cervical radiograph is shown in Figure 21. What would be the most common neurologic finding?
. Cruciate paralysis
. Quadriplegia
. Normal function
. Absent bulbocavernosus reflex
. Greater occipital nerve dysesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal function


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographic findings are consistent with a type II Hangman’s fracture or traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2. This occurs with more than 3 mm of displacement according to the classification of Levine and Edwards. Even though the radiograph reveals significant displacement, the overall space available for the neural elements is increased, therefore minimizing the risk of neural compromise. Neurologic injury is most frequently encountered in type III injuries that are associated with bilateral facet dislocations of C2 on C3 but is infrequent in type I (less than 3 mm displacement) and type II traumatic spondylolisthesis. When neurologic deficits are associated with type II injuries, it is usually the result of an associated head injury. Cruciate paralysis occurs as a result of the crossover of the motor and sensory tracts at different levels of the cord at the C1-C2 junction. This results in normal sensation but complete loss of motor function.

Question 2439

Topic: 6. Spine
A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department intubated and sedated following a motor vehicle accident. She is moving her upper and lower extremities spontaneously. She cannot follow commands. CT scans are shown in Figures 7a through 7c. The initial survey does not reveal any other injuries. Initial management of the cervical injury should consist of immediate
. immobilization with a halo ring and vest with reduction when medically stable.
. closed traction reduction using Gardner-Wells tongs.
. posterior open reduction, stabilization, and fusion.
. cervical MRI followed by reduction.
. anterior open reduction, stabilization, and fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cervical MRI followed by reduction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a bilateral facet dislocation of C6-C7 with preservation of at least some neurologic function. Urgent reduction is necessary. However, because she is sedated and unable to follow commands, an MRI scan is necessary before any closed or open posterior reduction to look for an associated disk herniation. If a disk herniation is present, it must be removed prior to any reduction maneuver to prevent iatrogenic neurologic injury. It is very unlikely that this injury can be reduced with an open anterior procedure alone.

Question 2440

Topic: 6. Spine
What is the most common presenting sign or symptom in an adult with lumbar pyogenic infection?
. Fever
. Night sweats
. Unexplained weight loss
. Foot drop
. Back pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Back pain


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pain is very common but is often nonspecific; therefore, the diagnosis of spinal infection is often delayed. Fever and sepsis can occur but are not common. Neurologic manifestations also can occur but are absent in most patients. In findings reported by Carragee, the urinary tract is a common source for hematogenous spinal infection, but the source was found in only 27% of 111 patients. Direct inoculation during spinal surgery is uncommon.