This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2401
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old female with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis and a fully fused thoracolumbar spine is planned for a primary total hip arthroplasty. How does her stiff spinopelvic complex influence the preoperative planning for acetabular component positioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The acetabular cup should be placed in less anteversion than standard to prevent anterior dislocation.
Explanation
Normally, moving from standing to sitting causes the pelvis to tilt posteriorly, increasing functional acetabular anteversion and accommodating hip flexion. Patients with fused spines (ankylosing spondylitis) cannot posteriorly tilt their pelvis, increasing the risk of anterior impingement and posterior dislocation when sitting. Therefore, the acetabular component should be placed in increased anteversion to compensate.
Question 2402
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Postoperatively, he experiences recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs show the acetabular component at 40 degrees of abduction and 20 degrees of anteversion, and the femoral stem is well-fixed in 15 degrees of anteversion. Which of the following pre-existing conditions is the most significant risk factor for this patient's recurrent instability despite appropriate component positioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ankylosing spondylitis with a fused lumbosacral spine
Explanation
A stiff lumbosacral spine (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis or prior fusion) impairs the pelvis's ability to tilt backward during sitting. This increases relative acetabular retroversion, significantly increasing the risk of posterior dislocation.
Question 2403
Topic: 6. Spine
A 33-year-old woman sustains a C6 burst fracture diving into a swimming pool, resulting in a complete spinal cord injury. The canal compromise is shown in Figures 8a and 8b. Functional recovery would be maximized with
Correct Answer & Explanation
. anterior corpectomy followed by strut grafting and instrumentation.
Explanation
Although the patient has sustained a complete spinal cord injury, an anterior decompression, even performed late, can gain an additional level of root function. In the quadriplegic patient, this can mean the difference between dependent and independent function. Posterior procedures do not afford adequate access to the retropulsed bony fragments compromising the canal.
Question 2404
Topic: 6. Spine
With comparison to a below the knee amputation, each of the following are disadvantages of a through the knee amputation EXCEPT:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. More severe pain at amputation site
Explanation
Through-the-knee amputations had significantly worse scores for the objective performance measures of self-selected walking speed, independence in transfers, walking, and stair-climbing. Through-the-knee amputees also had worse SIP scores than AKA and BKA patients. Physicians were also less satisfied with both the clinical and the cosmetic recovery. Patients actually reported less pain than those with an AKA or BKA, making 'more severe pain' the exception.
Question 2405
Topic: 6. Spine
After making a tackle, a football player is found prone and unconscious without spontaneous respirations. Initial management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. head and neck stabilization, log roll to a supine position, face mask removal, and initiation of assisted breathing.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The on-field evaluation and management of a seriously injured athlete requires that health care teams have a game plan in place and proper equipment that is readily available. The initial step, which consists of stabilizing the head and neck by manually holding them in a neutral position, is then followed by assessment of breathing, pulses, and level of consciousness. If the athlete is breathing, management should consist of mouth guard removal and airway maintenance. If the athlete is not breathing, the face mask should be removed, with the chin strap left in place. The airway must be established, followed by initiation of assisted breathing. CPR is instituted only when breathing and circulation are compromised. In the unconscious athlete or if a cervical spine injury is suspected, the helmet must not be removed until the athlete has been transported to an appropriate facility and the cervical spine has been completely evaluated.
Question 2406
Topic: 6. Spine
A 44-year-old man reports persistent left leg pain following a L5-S1 hemilaminotomy and partial diskectomy. Examination shows a grade 4 weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus and a positive left straight leg raise. A radiograph is shown in Figure 1a, and sagittal and axial MRI scans are shown in Figures 1b and 1c. Nonsurgical management consisting of medication, physical therapy, and injections has failed to provide relief. Surgical management should consist of Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. posterior foraminal decompression and fusion at L5-S1 with instrumentation and bone graft.
Explanation
The patient has a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. He has an L5 radiculopathy with foraminal stenosis. Any further treatment needs to include an arthrodesis and foraminal decompression. Isolated interbody fusion is contraindicated in patients with spondylolisthesis, as is total disk arthroplasty. Therefore, the best procedure is a posterior fusion with instrumentation and bone graft along with a foraminal decompression.
Question 2407
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old active male presents with claudication-like calf pain during running. Pulses are normal at rest but diminish with active plantar flexion of the ankle against resistance. What is the most common anatomic anomaly responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Popliteal artery passes superficial to the popliteus muscle
Explanation
Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome is most commonly caused by an anomalous path of the popliteal artery, typically passing medial to (or behind) the medial head of the gastrocnemius, leading to compression during active plantar flexion.
Question 2408
Topic: 6. Spine
The MRI findings shown in Figure 51 would most likely create which of the following signs and symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain radiating into the anteromedial aspect of the left knee, diminished patellar tendon reflex, and difficulty climbing stairs
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The MRI scan shows a far lateral disk herniation. With the L4-5 disk, a far lateral herniation abuts the left L4 nerve root. The findings would be consistent with those of a left L4 radiculopathy and would include pain or a sensory deficit on the anteromedial aspect of the knee, diminished patellar tendon reflex, and quadriceps weakness, perhaps making it difficult to walk up and down stairs.
Question 2409
Topic: 6. Spine
A 14-year-old girl has idiopathic scoliosis with a 52-degree right thoracic curve and a 36-degree left lumbar curve. The rotation of the apical vertebra appears greater in the thoracic curve. A sagittal view radiograph shows the spine to be virtually straight. The iliac apophyses are Risser 2. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior fusion of the thoracic curve
Explanation
The patient’s curve is beyond the limit for bracing to be effective (40 degrees). Therefore, surgical treatment should be utilized. King type II curves (predominant thoracic curve with secondary lumbar curve) historically has used selective posterior thoracic fusion with segmental hook systems and rotation maneuvers to correct the thoracic curve and compensatory lumbar curve. The patient’s primary curve is thoracic and lumbar fusion would be contraindicated.
Question 2410
Topic: 6. Spine
When harvesting iliac crest bone graft during a posterior spinal decompression and fusion, injury to which of the following nerves may result in painful neuromas or numbness over the skin of the buttocks?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior cluneal
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The superior cluneal nerves (L1, L2, and L3) are at greatest risk when harvesting iliac crest bone graft during a posterior decompression and fusion. The nerves pierce the lumbodorsal fascia and cross the posterior iliac crest beginning at 8 cm lateral to the posterior superior iliac spine. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves innervate anterior structures, and the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve lies in proximity to the anterior superior iliac spine and is at risk with anterior iliac crest bone graft harvesting. The superior gluteal nerve courses through the sciatic notch and supplies motor branches to the gluteus medius, minimus, and tensor fascia lata muscles. REFERENCES: An HS: Principles and Techniques of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1998, pp 770-773. Kurz LT, Garfin SR, Booth RE: Harvesting autogenous iliac bone grafts: A review of complications and techniques. Spine 1989;14:1324-1331.
Question 2411
Topic: 6. Spine
In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, which of the following factors suggests progression? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Age at presentation
Explanation
Infantile idiopathic scoliosis occurs more commonly in boys, with a 3 to 1 male to female ratio. Neural axis abnormalities, hip dysplasia, and congenital heart disease are all associated with the condition; spontaneous correction frequently occurs. Curve progression can be predicted by the rib vertebral angle difference or the phase of the rib head. Rib overlap of the apical vertebral body or a rib vertebral angle difference of greater than 20 degrees indicates that the curve is likely to progress. Gender, family history, and age at presentation have not been found to be risk factors for progression.
Question 2412
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient reports progressive bilateral hand clumsiness and ataxia. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann’s sign and intrinsic atrophy. MRI reveals multilevel cervical spondylosis, and lateral flexion and extension radiographs show cervical kyphosis in the neutral position, with restoration of lordosis on extension. Which of the following procedures is most likely to result in poor long-term results?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Laminectomy and bilateral foraminotomies
Explanation
Adequate decompression of the cervical cord can be achieved in a variety of ways depending on the pathoanatomy of the compression, but kyphosis is a relative contraindication to laminectomy alone. For laminectomy to be effective, the lordosis must be maintained so the cord can displace posteriorly away from the anterior structures. In addition, removing the posterior tension band increases the probability that the kyphosis will progress, therefore increasing the force against the front of the cord as it tents across the kyphosis.
Question 2413
Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 24 shows the sitting AP and lateral spinal radiographs of a nonambulatory 12½-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who is being evaluated for scoliosis. The lumbar curve from T12 to L5 measures 36 degrees, and the thoracic curve from T3 to T12 measures 24 degrees on the AP radiograph. He has 5 degrees of pelvic obliquity. His forced vital capacity is 45% of predicted for height and weight. What is the most appropriate treatment for the spinal deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion from T2 to L5 with segmental instrumentation
Explanation
Posterior spinal fusion is the treatment of choice for scoliosis in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy once they are no longer able to walk. This treatment improves quality of life and upright wheelchair positioning. Its effect on pulmonary function is less clear, as pulmonary function will continue to decline because of the underlying muscle disease. While bracing and wheelchair modifications may slow the progression of the curve, progression will continue. Surgical intervention at this stage does not have to include the pelvis, which, in general, is indicated in curves of greater than 40 degrees, and when pelvic obliquity is greater than 10 degrees. Fixation to the pelvis should also be considered in lumbar curves where the apex is lower than L1. Surgical treatment usually can be safely performed if the vital capacity is greater than 35%.
Question 2414
Topic: 6. Spine
Examination of a 34-year-old man who has had left leg pain for the past 6 weeks reveals minimal weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus and normal ankle jerk and patellar reflexes. Figure 33 shows an axial MRI scan of the L4-5 disk. Based on these findings, the MRI scan results are consistent with compression of the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. traversing L5 nerve root and the patient’s history and examination.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has an L5 radiculopathy secondary to an L4-5 disk herniation that is compressing the traversing L5 nerve root.
Question 2415
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following statements best describes the instantaneous axis of rotation (IAR) for the functional spinal unit? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The IAR is calculated by movement around six different axes.
Explanation
The instantaneous axis of rotation is the axis about which each vertebral segment rotates, but is theoretical depending on how it is defined, and varies depending on multiple factors. It is not a fixed point but can move depending on the position of the spine, and it is affected by degenerative conditions, fractures, injuries, and other anatomic changes of the spine. There are three axes of movement with 6 degrees of freedom (rotation and translation movements about each axis).
Question 2416
Topic: 6. Spine
A 48-year-old man is brought in by emergency services after falling down a flight of stairs. He complains of weakness in both hands. Examination reveals weak grip bilaterally. Injury CT scans are shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate treatment option? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hard cervical orthosis
Explanation
This patient has ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and has suffered a shear fracture through C5-6. Due to the presence of neurological deficits, posterior decompression and fusion with a long construct (such as from C3-T2) is indicated.The C-spine is the most common site of fracture in AS and is most susceptible to hyperextension injuries. When surgical intervention is required, multiple points of fixation both above and below the fracture are necessary. This is due to co-existing osteoporosis and abnormally increased forces from long lever arms of the ankylosed spine, both of which make the construct susceptible to failure and screw pullout.Kubiak et al. reviewed the orthopaedic management of AS. They report bone scan, MRI or fine-cut CT is necessary because fractures are often missed on plain x-rays because of distortion of anatomy or difficulty with positioning.Whang et al. reviewed spinal injuries in 12 patients with AS and 18 patients with DISH. Most injuries involved C5-C7. Patients with AS were more likley to have severe neurologic injury (41% ASIA A) than DISH (44% ASIA E). There was 81% good-excellent outcome and 4 deaths related to halo vest use.Figure A is a sagittal CT reconstructed image showing a nondisplaced shear fracture through the C6 vertebral body and C5 posterior elements. Illustrations A and B are postop AP and lateral radiographs showing posterior decompression and C3-T2 fusion with lateral mass fixation in the cervical spine and pedicle screw fixation in the upper thoracic spine.Incorrect Answers:performed through a posterior approach. If there is significant osteoporosis and the risk of construct failure is high, a 360-approach may be necessary.
Question 2417
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following changes to heart rate, blood pressure, and bulbocavernosus reflex are typical of spinal shock?
Spinal shock results in temporary loss or depression of all or most spinal reflex activity below the level of the injury. Hypotension and bradycardia caused by loss of sympathetic tone is a possible complication, and the bulbocavernosus reflex is typically absent.
Question 2418
Topic: 6. Spine
A neurologic injury at T11-L2 with loss of bowel and bladder control is best described as what syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conus medullaris
Explanation
Conus medullaris syndrome describes isolated loss of bowel and bladder function, usually at T12-L1 but can include T11-L2.
Question 2419
Topic: 6. Spine
Radiating pain associated with a posterolateral thoracic disk herniation typically follows what pattern? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extending down the spine into the lumbosacral region
Explanation
Although symptomatic thoracic disk herniations can affect more caudal structures, even to the point of paralysis, the pattern of radiating pain has been described as either following the dermatomal band around the chest or feeling to the patient as if the pain passes straight anteriorly to the chest wall.
Question 2420
Topic: 6. Spine
Treatment should now include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal rhizotomy and facet joint fusion
Explanation
Postoperative vertebral subluxation with pain, restricted movement, and further neural compression does occur following extensive decompressive laminectomy. Resection of posterior elements has been regarded as benign, and some degree of forward slipping is not always associated with an increase in pain. Postoperative instability appears to be predominantly related to extenuating circumstances, such as a primary neural disorder, rheumatoid arthritis, degenerative spondylolisthesis, or recurrent severe trauma after decompression. An analysis of 182 patients with extensive decompression involving at least one part of one facet joint showed that in thirteen of them progressive spondylolisthesis developed postoperatively. Three of the patients had been treated for a herniated disc and ten, for degenerative spondylolisthesis. When subluxation did occur, it was within the first few weeks after operation and progressed for as long as two years. All patients with progression were older than fifty-two-years and were in more pain than those whom subluxation did not occur. An extensive review of 6000 patients in whom a wide resection was performed, including hemifacetectomy and either a total facetectomy or removal of the pars interarticularis, or both, found that only 2 percent of those patients required fusion or instability. An admonition was given by that author not to remove facet joints or pars interarticularis areas in patients who are less than thirty-years old, since these patients are most susceptible to postoperative instability. Older individuals with advanced degenerative changes at the level of the disc, as well as posteriorily, tolerate extensive laminectomy better. When the disc is maximally narrowed, no further settling of the space is possible and marginal osteophytes enhance stability.Extensive laminectomy in patients with degenerative spondylolisthesis does result in postoperative instability. In the study by White and Wiltse, further subluxation did occur in 66 percent of patients who were operated on for degenerative spondylolisthesis , whereas it was observed in only 2 percent of the spondylolisthesis or disc patients who did not havespondylolisthesis postoperatively. The extent of decompression and facet removal must be limited in the patient with degenerative spondylolisthesis or a fusion of the transverse processes included as part of the treatment. Internal fixation devices have been used in these circumstances to prevent further subluxation while the fusion is consolidating. Wiltse outlined some guidelines for spinal fusion in spinal stenosis: (1) the patient who is less than sixty years old and had degenerative spondylolisthesis with a total loss of posterior stability due to removal of the articular processes (a one-level fusion of the transverse processes); (2) the patient who is less than fifty-five and had a midline decompression for degenerative spondylolisthesis with facet preservation; and(3) the patient who is less than fifty years old with isthmic spondylolisthesis, if the posterior elements have been removed. Simple degenerative spinal stenosis seldom requires a fusion, even if all posterior stability has been lost. The problem with obtaining a successful spinal fusion is real and conditions are less than optimum in these instances.
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