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Question 2381

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following represents a contraindication for interspinous process decompression for the treatment of lumbar spinal stenosis?
. Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis
. Inability to walk at least 100 feet
. Cauda equina syndrome
. Fixed sensory deficit
. Intermittent foot drop

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cauda equina syndrome


Explanation

Exclusion and inclusion criteria for studies on interspinous process decompression varied somewhat, but cauda equina syndrome was the only exclusion criteria listed in both major studies cited. All of the other choices did not represent exclusion criteria in either study.

Question 2382

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 21a and 21b show a transverse MRI scan at L4/5 and a lateral radiograph of a 75-year-old man with a 2-year history of worsening low back and bilateral leg pain that occurs with ambulation beyond approximately a half a block. Management consisting of physical therapy, anti-inflammatory medications, and muscle relaxants has failed to successfully resolve his symptoms. He has minimal medical comorbidities. What is the best treatment approach for this patient? Review Topic

. Initiation of lumbar flexion and core strengthening exercises
. Laminectomy and posterior spinal fusion of L4/5
. Laminectomy of L4 without fusion
. Percutaneous endoscopic diskectomy
. A course of three epidural steroid injections

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initiation of lumbar flexion and core strengthening exercises


Explanation

The patient has spinal stenosis and degenerative spondylolisthesis. Laminectomy and posterior spinal fusion have been demonstrated to be superior to both nonsurgical management and laminectomy without fusion in prospective randomized studies. The effect of instrumentation on improvement of clinical outcomes remains a matter of debate. This patient has exhausted physical therapy approaches per the history. Epidural steroid injections have not been shown to significantly alter the natural history of patients with degenerative lumbar spinal stenosis and spondylolisthesis. While minimal access decompression has been described, percutaneous endoscopic diskectomy would be more appropriate for a disk herniation.

Question 2383

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following statements about hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis after anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion is most accurate?
. Vocal cord paralysis is three times as likely with a right-sided approach as compared to a left-sided approach.
. Vocal cord paralysis is twice as likely with a right-sided approach as compared to a left-sided approach.
. Vocal cord paralysis is equally likely with either a right-sided or a left-sided approach.
. Vocal cord paralysis is three times as likely with a left-sided approach as compared to a right-sided approach.
. Vocal cord paralysis is twice as likely with a left-sided approach as compared to a right-sided approach.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vocal cord paralysis is equally likely with either a right-sided or a left-sided approach.


Explanation

It has been traditionally taught that a left-sided approach to the anterior cervical spine is associated with a lower incidence of injury compared to the right-sided approach. This is due in part to the anatomic differences in the path the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) takes on the right as compared to the left. Both nerves ascend in the tracheoesophageal groove after branching off the vagus nerve in the upper thorax. The left-sided RLN loops around the aortic arch and stays relatively medial as compared to the right-sided RLN which loops around the right subclavian artery and is somewhat more lateral at this point, and therefore is theoretically more vulnerable as it ascends toward the larynx before becoming protected in the tracheoesophageal groove. Furthermore, the variant of a nonrecurrent inferior laryngeal nerve branching directly off the vagus nerve at the level of the midcervical spine is much more common on the right than the left. Despite this reasoning, there has been no clinical evidence to suggest that laterality of approach for anterior cervical surgery makes any difference in the incidence of vocal cord paralysis. Furthermore, two recent studies have shown that the incidence of RLN injury and vocal cord paralysis is equal with either side of approach.

Question 2384

Topic: 6. Spine
A patient who sustained injuries in a motorcycle accident 30 minutes ago has significant motor and sensory deficits corresponding to a C6 level of injury. A lateral radiograph obtained during the initial on-scene evaluation reveals bilateral jumped facets at C5-C6; this appears to be an isolated injury. The patient is awake and alert. The next step in management of the dislocation should consist of
. immediate posterior surgical reduction and stabilization.
. immediate anterior diskectomy and fusion.
. MRI.
. reduction in Gardner-Wells tongs with serial traction.
. rigid collar immobilization until spinal shock resolves.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reduction in Gardner-Wells tongs with serial traction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Surgical open reduction may increase the neurologic deficit if a disk herniation exists. Evidence from animal studies suggests that rapid decompression of the spinal cord may improve recovery. Serially increasing traction weight to reduce the dislocation has been shown to be safe when used in patients who are awake. Indications for MRI include patients who are unable to cooperate with serial examinations, the need for open reduction, and progression of deficit during awake reduction. REFERENCES: Delamarter RB, Sherman J, Carr JB: Pathophysiology of spinal cord injury: Recovery after immediate and delayed decompression. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1042-1049. Star AM, Jones AA, Cotler JM, Balderston RA, Sinha R: Immediate closed reduction of cervical spine dislocations using traction. Spine 1990;15:1068-1072. Eismont FJ, Arena MJ, Green BA: Extrusion of an intervertebral disc associated with traumatic subluxation or dislocation of cervical facets: Case report. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1555-1560.

Question 2385

Topic: 6. Spine
Kyphosis from a vertebral osteoporotic compression fracture often results in progressive kyphosis due to
. progressive increase in lumbar lordosis.
. load transfer to the superior adjacent vertebra.
. normalization of load transfer with working kyphosis.
. reduced strain at the occipito-cervical junction.
. reduced strain at the apex of the deformity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. load transfer to the superior adjacent vertebra.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Kayanja and associates, in a number of biomechanical studies, showed that in a kyphotic spine the strain is located at the apex of the deformity, the force is transmitted to the superior adjacent vertebrae, and that realignment and cement augmentation effectively normalize the load transfer. REFERENCES: Kayanja MM, Ferrara LA, Lieberman IH: Distribution of anterior cortical shear strain after a thoracic wedge compression fracture. Spine J 2004;4:76-87. Kayanja MM, Togawa D, Lieberman IH: Biomechanical changes after the augmentation of experimental osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures in the cadaveric thoracic spine. Spine J 2005;5:55-63. Kayanja MM, Schlenk R, Togawa D, et al: The biomechanics of 1, 2, and 3 levels of vertebral augmentation with polymethylmethacrylate in multilevel spinal segments. Spine 2006;31:769-774. Kayanja M, Evans K, Milks R, et al: The mechanics of polymethylmethacrylate augmentation. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2006;443:124-130.

Question 2386

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 9 shows a cross-sectional view of the spinal cord at the lower cervical level. Injury to the structure indicated by the black arrow will lead to what neurologic deficit?
. Complete paraplegia
. Contralateral weakness below the level of the injury
. Ipsilateral weakness below the level of the injury
. Unilateral loss of position sense, proprioception, and vibratory sense below the level of the injury
. Loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unilateral loss of position sense, proprioception, and vibratory sense below the level of the injury


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The arrow is pointing to the posterior columns of the spinal cord that transmit position sense, vibratory sense, and proprioception. There are no motor tracts in the posterior columns. REFERENCES: Bohlman H, Ducker T, Levine A: Spine trauma in adults, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 911. Northrup B: Evaluation and early treatment of acute injuries to the spine and spinal cord, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 545.

Question 2387

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following vertebrae has the smallest pedicle isthmic width in a nondeformity patient?
. T10
. T11
. T12
. L1
. L2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L1


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The smallest pedicle isthmic width is at L1, whereas T12 has the largest pedicle width in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine. Although smaller in diameter than T12, both T10 and T11 have larger pedicle widths than L1. REFERENCE: Ofiram E, Polly DW, Gilbert TJ Jr, et al: Is it safe to place pedicle screws in the lower thoracic spine than in the upper lumbar spine? Spine 2007;32:49-54.

Question 2388

Topic: 6. Spine
A 71-year-old woman undergoes a posterior lumbar decompression and fusion from L4-S1. Thirty-six hours after the procedure, she reports severe right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. Doppler ultrasound reveals a clot proximal to the knee within the femoral vein. A large pulmonary embolus is confirmed by CT angiography. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
. pneumatic compression stockings.
. subcutaneous heparin administration.
. a heparin bolus followed by therapeutic heparin anticoagulation.
. warfarin anticoagulation.
. placement of a vena cava filter.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. placement of a vena cava filter.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a review of 13,000 spinal procedures, nine patients were treated with heparin following development of pulmonary emboli. Of these patients, six had serious complications ranging from wound drainage to paralysis. Heparin therapy instituted within 10 days of the surgical procedure resulted in a 100% complication rate. Vena cava filter placement has a complication rate of 0.12% to 10.1%. Removable filters are currently in clinical trials. REFERENCES: Cain JE Jr, Major MR, Lauerman WC, et al: The morbidity of heparin therapy after development of pulmonary embolus in patients undergoing thoracolumbar or lumbar spinal fusion. Spine 1995;20:1600-1603. Roberts AC: Venous imaging and inferior vena cava filters. Curr Opin Radiol 1992;4:88-96. Becker DM, Philbrick JT, Selby JB: Inferior vena cava filters. Arch Intern Med 1992;152:1985-1994.

Question 2389

Topic: 6. Spine
An Asian 45-year-old man has bilateral upper extremity dysfunction. Figure 35a shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan of the cervical spine, and Figure 35b shows a T2-weighted axial MRI scan at the level of the C3 vertebral body. What is the most likely pathologic process?
. Cervical spondylosis
. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)
. Ankylosing spondylitis
. Neurofibromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although relatively common in people of Asian origin, OPLL has been reported in other races as well. The radiographic appearance can be variable as there are different types described, but some of the discerning characteristics are seen in these images. On the sagittal view, the bone posterior to the vertebral body extends along the entire length of C2 and C3. This is characteristic of OPLL, whereas cervical spondylosis and DISH more commonly are not confluent. Ankylosing spondylitis more commonly extends significantly into the spinal canal, and neurofibromatosis generally does not cause any bony growth. The axial view shows a large, oval bony projection into the spinal canal, a typical finding of OPLL. REFERENCES: McAfee PC, Regan JJ, Bohlman HH: Cervical cord compression from ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament in non-orientals. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:569-575. Kricun R, Kricun ME: MRI and CT of the Spine. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1994, pp 126-130.

Question 2390

Topic: 6. Spine
When performing a long fusion to the sacrum in an osteopenic patient in whom optimal sagittal balance is restored, which of the following is a benefit of extending the distal fixation to the pelvis, rather than the sacrum alone?
. Decreased risk of sacral fractures
. Decreased risk of proximal functional kyphosis
. Easier contouring of the instrumentation
. Reduced risk of late pubic ramus fractures
. Improved coronal plane correction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased risk of sacral fractures


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In osteopenic individuals, even those with excellent obtained or maintained balance, long instrumented fusions to the sacrum impart a high degree of strain, and the sacrum may fail in a transverse fracture or fracture-dislocation pattern. The risk of proximal functional kyphosis is unrelated to distal fixation as are coronal plane correction and rod contouring. Pubic ramus fractures have been shown to be associated with both fixation to the sacrum alone as well as to the ilium. REFERENCE: Hu SS, Berven SH, Bradford DS: Adult spinal deformity, in Frymoyer JW, Wiesel SW (eds): The Adult and Pediatric Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2004, pp 465-477.

Question 2391

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 163a through 163c show the radiograph and MRI scans of a 45-year-old woman with severe right arm pain. She has had symptoms for 6 months without resolution despite multiple nonsurgical treatments. Examination reveals weakness in the right triceps and wrist flexors with decreased sensation in the middle finger and a positive Spurling's sign. What is the most appropriate treatment for the patient's symptoms? Review Topic

. Posterior laminoplasty
. Posterior cervical foraminotomy
. Anterior cervical foraminotomy
. Anterior cervical diskectomy and arthrodesis
. Anterior corpectomy and arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior laminoplasty


Explanation

The patient has symptoms and signs of cervical radiculopathy despite a long course of nonsurgical management. Therefore, surgical decompression is indicated and is best performed through an anterior cervical diskectomy and arthrodesis. Single level anterior cervical diskectomy and arthrodesis have been shown to produce significant improvements in arm pain and neurologic function. Anterior cervical foraminotomy, while reported, has insufficient data to support its use and it places the vertebral artery at significant risk. Posterior cervical foraminotomy is contraindicated given the ventral spinal cord compression; foraminotomy places the patient at risk for spinal cord injury. The patient has one-level cervical disease, therefore a corpectomy is unnecessary. Posterior laminoplasty is used to treat myelopathy, not radiculopathy.

Question 2392

Topic: 6. Spine
An 82-year-old man is seen in consultation after being admitted for a fall from ground level. There was no loss of consciousness and the patient recalls striking his head and sustaining a hyperextension-type injury to the cervical spine. Examination reveals an 8-cm head laceration with only mild axial neck tenderness. He has generalized weakness throughout the upper extremities and maintained motor function of the lower extremities. There are no obvious sensory deficits, and the bulbocavernous reflex and deep tendon reflexes are maintained. What is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time?
. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Séquard syndrome
. Spinal shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Incomplete cord syndromes have variable neurologic findings with partial loss of sensory and/or motor function below the level of injury. Central cord syndrome is characterized by greater motor weakness in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities. The pattern of motor weakness shows greater distal involvement in the affected extremity than proximal muscle weakness. This patient's presentation of hyperextension injury with upper extremity weakness is classic for central cord syndrome.

Question 2393

Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old woman reports an 8-week history of neck pain radiating to her right upper extremity. She denies any history of trauma or provocative event. Examination reveals decreased pinprick sensation in her right middle finger, otherwise sensation is intact bilaterally. Finger flexors and interossei demonstrate 5/5 motor strength bilaterally. Finger extensors are 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left. The triceps reflex is 1+ on the right and 2+ on the left. The most likely diagnosis is a herniated nucleus pulposus at what level?
. C3-4
. C4-5
. C5-6
. C6-7
. C7-T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6-7


Explanation

The patient’s neurologic examination is consistent with a C7 radiculopathy on the right side. In a patient with this symptom complex in the absence of trauma, a cervical disk herniation is the most common etiology for a C7 radiculopathy. There are eight cervical nerve roots and the C7 nerve exits at the C6-7 disk space and is most frequently impinged by a disk herniation at this level.

Question 2394

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 25a and 25b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 48-year-old man who reports increasing unsteadiness in his gait and hand clumsiness. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann’s reflex bilaterally, positive clonus, and a spastic gait. Management should consist of:
. cervical laminoplasty at C3-C7.
. anterior corpectomy at C4, with a C3-C5 fibular strut.
. epidural steroids and physical therapy for cervical traction.
. multilevel cervical anterior diskectomy and fusion.
. observation for progression over the next few months.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cervical laminoplasty at C3-C7.


Explanation

The patient has a congenitally small spinal canal with secondary multilevel degenerative changes causing stenosis and cord compression across multiple segments, including directly posterior to the vertebral bodies. Because the patient’s cervical lordosis is preserved, a posterior procedure such as laminoplasty or laminectomy would allow the cord to fall away from the anterior pathology and afford decompression.

Question 2395

Topic: 6. Spine

A 78-year-old man is seen in the emergency room 3 hours after a fall from a standing position. The patient sustained a mild scalp laceration and the injury shown in Figure 90. He reports severe neck pain and is unable to move his hands and legs. Examination reveals absent motor function in the wrist flexors, triceps, and fingers. He cannot move his lower extremities during motor testing. The patient has some sensation in the lower extremities. Bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. Based on examination findings and the imaging findings, what is the most definitive treatment option? Review Topic

. Closed reduction and immobilization in a halo-thoracic vest
. Halo application and cervical traction for 6 weeks, followed by 8 weeks of immobilization in a halo-thoracic vest
. Open reduction, decompression, and fusion with anterior-posterior stabilization
. Open reduction, anterior decompression, and fusion
. Uninstrumented posterior fusion spanning the injured segment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and immobilization in a halo-thoracic vest


Explanation

The patient has a hyperostotic condition of the cervical spine, most likely ankylosing spondylitis. Because of a rigid and osteoporotic spine, relatively minor falls can result in unstable spinal injuries with significant instability and a high risk for neurologic sequelae. The patient has an unstable injury at C6 with an incomplete spinal cord injury, necessitating urgent decompression and stabilization. Studies have shown that, in patients with ankylosing spondylitis, stand-alone anterior stabilization results in a high failure rate. Halo-thoracic vests carry a high risk of septic and pulmonary issues, especially in the elderly. Uninstrumented fusion will provide insufficient stability in such patients.(SBQ13PE.22) A 11-year-old male is referred for evaluation of scoliosis by his primary care physician. He has a normal birth and development history and denies any neurologic deficits or pain. On physical examination, he is neurologically intact with normal reflexes and tone. A PA radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the next best step?Review TopicCustom orthosis prescription to initiate bracingPhysical therapy referral and observationBending and lumbar oblique radiographsTotal spine CTTotal spine MRIA left thoracic curve is an abnormal finding and warrants further work-up with a total axis MRI in order to rule out concomitant neurologic abnormalities such as a spinal cord cyst and/or syrinx.In adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS), the most commonly occurring curve is a right thoracic curve. Left thoracic curves are not as common, and warrants total axis MRI in order to rule out concomitant central axis abnormalities. This is imperative not only during initial work-up, but most importantly for operative planning.Spiegel et al. performed a a retrospective radiographic review on 41 patients with scoliosis associated with a Chiari I malformation and/or syringomyelia. Approximately 50% of patients had an "atypical" pattern (left thoracic, double thoracic, triple, long right thoracic). The authors recommend that MRI should be considered in these patients.Gillingham et al. provides a thorough review of early onset scoliosis and notes the relatively high incidence of concurrent central axis abnormalities, even in patients with normal neurologic exams. Rates have been reported upwards of 21.7%, with malformations including Chiari Type 1, dural ectasias, syrinx, and spinal cord cysts.Figure A exhibits a left thoracic curve. Further imaging in this patient revealed a syrinx which required decompression.Incorrect answers:thoraciccurve.

Question 2396

Topic: 6. Spine

A 58-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle accident with severe pain and point tenderness over his lumbar spine. He is hemodynamically stable and full neurologic examination reveals no deficits. Radiographs showed no evidence of fracture. A CT was performed and is shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate treatment of his injury. Review Topic

. Anti-inflammatory medication and gradual return to activity
. Admit for pain control and repeat neurologic examination
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis
. Multi-level posterior spinal instrumentation and fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anti-inflammatory medication and gradual return to activity


Explanation

The clinical presentation is consistent with a minimally displaced fracture that extends through all three columns on the spine in a patient with ankylosing spondylitis. The most appropriate treatment is posterior spinal instrumentation and fusion.In patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS), the rigid spine creates a long lever arm that makes even minimally displaced fractures potentially unstable. Thus, despite being minimally displaced in a neurologically intact patient, most fractures in AS warrant a posterior instrumentation and fusion, typically of three levels above and three levels below the fracture.Caron et al. present a retrospective review of patients with ankylosed spines (due to AS or DISH) and characterize their fractures and outcomes of treatment. Cervical fractures were most common (55%) and rates of occurrence decreased as they progressed down the spine, with lumbar fractures seen only 8% of the time. They found the most common successful surgical intervention was multilevel posterior instrumentation and fusion (with decompression when necessary for neurologic compromise).Wang et al. reviewed 12 cases of patients with AS who presented with traumatic spinal injuries. They reviewed clinical histories and available imaging. They found that MRI was the most sensitive test for identifying occult fractures of the spine, and recommend using MRI to rule out occult fractures as well as better characterize fractures seen on radiographs or CT imaging for patients with AS.Werner et al. present a review of spinal fractures in patients with AS. They note that non-operative treatment of these fractures is reserved only for patients who have an unacceptably high risk of undergoing surgery. For three column thoracolumbar fractures they recommend surgical stabilization with a long posterior construct.Figure A is a sagittal CT image of the lumbar spine with marginal syndesmophytes consistent with AS. The white arrow highlights a minimally displaced fracture that extends through all three columns on the spine. Illustration A are radiographs comparing DISH (on the left) with non-marginal syndesmophytes, and AS (on the right) with marginal syndesmophytes.Incorrect Answers:

Question 2397

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old boy has abdominal and back pain after being involved in a high-velocity head-on motor vehicle accident. He was restrained in the rear of the automobile by a lap belt only. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figure 47. The patient has no other injuries. Optimal management should include
. bed rest for 6 weeks.
. open reduction and internal fixation with spinous process wiring.
. cast immobilization in hyperextension for 6 weeks, followed by a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.
. anterior corpectomy, tricortical autograft, and fixation with a plate and screws.
. posterior fixation with a pedicle screw construct.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cast immobilization in hyperextension for 6 weeks, followed by a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.


Explanation

Pediatric bony Chance fractures occur following severe flexion injuries as seen after motor vehicle accidents with lap belt restraints. In the absence of associated injuries, these fractures are best treated with immobilization.

Question 2398

Topic: 6. Spine

Thoracic disk herniations most typically occur at what level of the thoracic spine? Review Topic

. Upper third
. Junction of upper third and middle third
. Middle third
. Junction of middle third and lower third
. Lower third

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Upper third


Explanation

Most thoracic disk herniations occur in the lower (caudal) third of the thoracic spine. This predilection may be related to the unique anatomic and biomechanical environment of that region. The 11th and 12th ribs do not join the rib cage anteriorly and do not form a true articulation with the transverse processes posteriorly. Furthermore, flexion and torsional forces tend to concentrate between T10 and L1.

Question 2399

Topic: 6. Spine

On an axial CT image, which of the following dimensions is considered to be indicative of a critical amount of lumbar spinal stenosis? Review Topic

. AP canal diameter of less than 20 mm
. AP canal diameter of less than 50 mm
. Cross-sectional area of less than 100 mm2
. Cross-sectional area of less than 50 mm2
. Circumferential area of less than 25 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AP canal diameter of less than 20 mm


Explanation

Lumbar central stenosis is defined by an AP canal diameter of less than 10 mm or a cross-sectional area of less than 100 mm2 as measured on CT.

Question 2400

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following is a contraindication to laminoplasty in a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy?
. Space available for the cord of less than 8 mm
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Fixed cervical kyphosis
. Previous posterior surgery
. Concomitant cervical radiculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fixed cervical kyphosis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Laminoplasty or any posterior decompressive procedure is contraindicated in patients with cervical spondylotic myelopathy and cervical kyphosis. The residual kyphotic posture of the cervical spine results in persistent spinal cord compression. The other choices are not contraindications for laminoplasty. Concomitant cervical radiculopathy can be addressed at the time of laminoplasty with a keyhole foraminotomy.