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Question 2441

Topic: 6. Spine

A 29-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe back and leg pain precipitated by weight-lifting. The patient reports bilateral leg pain and is unable to urinate. She has dense anesthesia in the perineal region on examination. A MRI scan is shown in Figure 38. The patient is taken to surgery urgently. What is her prognosis for recovery? Review Topic

. Improvement in her pain and sensory symptoms following surgery but may have residual bladder dysfunction
. Decreased pain following surgery; sensory deficits and bladder function are not likely to improve
. No change in her symptoms following surgery
. Complete resolution of pain and will have normal sensation and bladder function following surgery
. Improvement in her pain and complete return of bladder function following surgery; sensation may not return

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improvement in her pain and sensory symptoms following surgery but may have residual bladder dysfunction


Explanation

The patient with cauda equina syndrome should be taken to surgery urgently to provide the best chance of symptom resolution. However, many studies indicate that patients with cauda equina syndrome do not return to a completely normal status even following urgent surgery. Whereas pain is typically relieved after surgery, other deficits, especially bladder and sexual dysfunction, may persist. Particularly in light of the patient's severe saddle anesthesia, she may have a poor prognosis for recovery of normal bladder function.

Question 2442

Topic: 6. Spine
When planning scoliosis surgery for a patient with a 50-degree thoracolumbar curve and spinal muscular atrophy, it is most important to include
. an anterior release and fusion.
. a diaphragmatic pacer to assist postoperative pulmonary function.
. a preoperative gait analysis.
. an evaluation for lower extremity muscle contractures.
. assessment of muscle biopsy findings obtained within the last 6 months to clarify the patient’s life expectancy and thus the value of the surgery.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. an evaluation for lower extremity muscle contractures.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Typically, posterior spinal fusion to the pelvis is recommended for patients with spinal muscular atrophy and advanced scoliosis. Examination for lower extremity muscle contractures is important because the contractures may interfere with good sitting balance. Anterior release and fusion usually are not advised. Diaphragmatic pacing is not indicated because diaphragm function usually is not affected. Patients with spinal muscular atrophy usually are not ambulatory or only marginally ambulatory at the time of scoliosis surgery; therefore, gait analysis usually is not relevant. While a muscle biopsy may have a role in the diagnosis of this disorder, it plays no subsequent role in determining life expectancy or the value of spinal surgery. REFERENCES: Daher YH, Lonstein JE, Winter RB, Bradford DS: Spinal surgery in spinal muscular atrophy. J Pediatr Orthop 1985;5:391-395. Aprin H, Bowen JR, MacEwen GD, et al: Spinal arthrodesis in patients with spinal muscle atrophy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1982;64:1179-1187.

Question 2443

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 78a and 78b show the CT scans of a 22-year-old man with back pain after falling out of a tree. Examination reveals no palpable spinal step-offs, posterior spinal pain, and normal neurologic function in the lower extremities. Normal perineal sensation and normal rectal tone are present. What is the best management? Review Topic

. Bed rest
. External orthosis
. Anterior corpectomy and arthrodesis
. Posterior instrumented arthrodesis
. Posterior decompression and instrumented arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bed rest


Explanation

The patient has a stable L2 burst fracture. There is no evidence of neurologic injury or disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification System (TLICS), the severity score for this injury is 2 and therefore nonsurgical management is recommended. The TLICS was developed to define injury based on three clinical characteristics: injury morphology, integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex, and neurologic status of the patient. Point values are assigned to each major category based on injury severity. The sum of these points represents the TLICS severity score, which may be used to guide treatment. The injury scores are totaled to produce a management grade that is, in turn, used to guide treatment. A score of >4 suggests the need for surgical treatment because of significant instability, whereas a score of <4 suggests nonsurgical management. The severity score offers prognostic information and is helpful in medical decision making. An external orthosis provides enough support to obviate the need for bed rest and avoid associated complications (deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, skin ulceration). Surgical treatment, either through an anterior or posterior approach, has been shown by Wood and associates to result in increased pain and disability and is therefore not indicated in this setting. Additionally, there is no need for decompression in the setting of a neurologically intact patient.

Question 2444

Topic: 6. Spine
What risk factor is most associated with progression of idiopathic scoliosis to a curve requiring surgery?
. Curve magnitude of more than 20 degrees at menarche
. Curve magnitude of more than 30 degrees at the peak height velocity
. Curve magnitude of more than 30 degrees at skeletal age 12 years
. Curve magnitude of more than 30 degrees at Risser grade 2
. Curve flexibility of less than 50% at Risser grade 2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curve magnitude of more than 30 degrees at the peak height velocity


Explanation

The magnitude of the curve at the time of the peak height velocity is the most prognostic sign in relationship to surgery. More than 70% of curves that measure more than 30 degrees at this time are likely to reach surgical range.

Question 2445

Topic: 6. Spine

Following spinal cord injury (SCI), methylprednisolone (a bolus of 30 mg/kg plus 5.4 mg/kg per hour over 24 hours) initiated within 8 hours of injury has been associated with which of the following MRI findings? Review Topic

. Decreased extent of cord edema only
. Decreased extent of cord hemorrhage only
. Decreased extent of both cord edema and hemorrhage
. Increased extent of cord hemorrhage but decreased edema
. No difference in extent of hemorrhage and edema

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased extent of cord edema only


Explanation

MRI findings following SCI treated with high dose steroids have demonstrated that the steroids are associated with a lower extent of cord hemorrhage. No difference in cord edema was found. The decreased cord hemorrhage seen with use of high dose steroid adminstration in this setting has not correlated with improved clinical outcomes.

Question 2446

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 12 shows the lumbar CT scan of a 24-year-old man who was injured in a snowmobile accident. What is the mechanism of injury?
. Flexion extension
. Flexion distraction
. Vertical compression
. Extension compression
. Extension distraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertical compression


Explanation

A true compression fracture is a single-column injury that does not create canal compromise. A burst fracture is a two- or three-column injury that disrupts the middle column and thereby narrows the spinal canal. This patient has a burst fracture. The mechanism of injury is usually vertical compression or flexion compression.

Question 2447

Topic: 6. Spine
A diskectomy is performed in which the disk space is not aggressively debrided. When compared to techniques that involve aggressive debridement of the disk space, this results in
. less intraoperative blood loss.
. an increased rate of recurrent disk herniation.
. a shorter length of hospital stay.
. a higher rate of surgical complications.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. an increased rate of recurrent disk herniation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has disk herniation at the left L5-S1 level. This will generally affect the traversing S1 nerve. The S1 dermatome is on the lateral aspect and sole of the foot. Surgical treatment generally involves a diskectomy with removal of the herniated fragment. This can be performed via a conventional open approach or minimally invasive endoscopic technique. Several recent meta-analyses have demonstrated equivalent outcomes with regard to leg pain and clinical outcomes. Although minimally invasive techniques have been associated with an increased rate of dural tear, the overall complication rate between the 2 techniques is not significantly different. Several studies have demonstrated a substantial learning curve associated with minimally invasive techniques, and the rate of complications decreases significantly with surgeon experience. When performing a diskectomy, the herniated fragment alone can be removed (sequestrectomy) or some of the disk that remains in the disk space can be removed (complete diskectomy). Studies have shown no change in surgical time, blood loss, length of stay, or surgical complications when performing a sequestrectomy (compared to a more complete diskectomy). A sequestrectomy is associated with a higher rate of recurrent disk herniation at the surgical level.

Question 2448

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 54a and 54b are the radiographs of a 21-year-old man who has a long history of thoracic back pain. His lumbar spine is asymptomatic. He has failed prolonged nonsurgical treatment. Surgical correction should consist of:
. anterior release and fusion at T4-10.
. posterior instrumentation and fusion at T9-L5.
. posterior instrumentation and fusion at T2-L2.
. posterior instrumentation and fusion at T6-pelvis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior instrumentation and fusion at T2-L2.


Explanation

When planning surgical intervention for Scheuermann kyphosis, it is imperative that the instrumentation and fusion extend across the entirety of the deformity. Distally, this means extending across the first lordotic disk space. In this scenario, this disk is the L1-L2 disk, which means the fusion needs to extend to L2. Shorter and longer fusions are not necessary or appropriate.

Question 2449

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 12-year-old girl who is Risser stage 3 has had intermittent mild midback pain for the past 4 weeks. The pain is worse after prolonged sitting and after carrying a heavy backpack at school. She occasionally takes acetaminophen, but the pain does not limit sport activities. Examination reveals a mild right rib prominence during forward bending. Neurologic examination is normal. Radiographs show a 20-degree right thoracic scoliosis with no congenital anomalies or lytic lesions. Management should consist of:
. back muscle stretching and reduced weight in the backpack.
. consultation with a pain management specialist.
. MRI of the thoracic spine.
. a technetium Tc 99m bone scan.
. a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. back muscle stretching and reduced weight in the backpack.


Explanation

Mild scoliosis is not a painful condition, but it usually presents during adolescence. Intermittent back pain is reported by 25% to 30% of adolescents whether or not scoliosis is present. Such pain is often attributed to muscle strain from tight muscles, poor posture, or heavy school backpacks. The clinician must distinguish typical pain (mild, intermittent, nonlimiting) from atypical pain. The latter requires more careful examination and imaging studies (bone scan or MRI) to determine the source of pain. The patient’s age and right thoracic curve pattern are typical for idiopathic scoliosis; therefore, imaging of the neuroaxis is not necessary to look for cord syrinx, tethering, or tumor. Brace treatment is not required for this small curve unless future progression is demonstrated.

Question 2450

Topic: 6. Spine
A 14-year-old girl with polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) has severe neck pain and reports the onset of urinary incontinence. A lateral radiograph and lateral tomogram of the cervical spine are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. An MRI scan of the upper cervical spine is shown in Figure 15c. Management should consist of:
. a rigid cervical orthosis.
. a soft cervical collar.
. posterior C1-2 fusion with halo immobilization.
. administration of methotrexate.
. activity restrictions.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior C1-2 fusion with halo immobilization.


Explanation

The plain radiograph and tomogram show an abnormality of the upper cervical spine, with erosion of the dens. The MRI scan shows evidence of cord impingement. The cervical spine is frequently involved in polyarticular JRA. Stiffness and autofusion are commonly seen, but C1-2 instability can also occur secondary to synovitis and bony erosion. Basilar invagination is rare in JRA. There is no consensus regarding fusion in the asymptomatic patient. In patients with symptoms and neurologic signs, C1-2 posterior fusion is indicated.

Question 2451

Topic: 6. Spine
Which factor is most important when attempting to prevent interbody graft subsidence?
. End plate burring
. Surface contact area
. Bone quality
. Use of rigid fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone quality


Explanation

Osteoporosis can affect all aspects of spinal stability and is the most critical factor regarding spinal implant failure. Burring of the end plates may decrease strength of the interface with the uncovering of "softer" cancellous bone. Increasing the surface contact area may help prevent subsidence but is not as important as bone quality. Stress shielding through rigid fixation may lead to construct failure.

Question 2452

Topic: 6. Spine

A previously healthy 29-year-old man reports a 2-day history of severe atraumatic lower back pain. He denies any bowel or bladder difficulties and no constitutional signs. Examination is consistent with mechanical back pain. No focal neurologic deficits or pathologic reflexes are noted. What is the most appropriate management? Review Topic

. Radiographs, including anterior, lateral, and oblique views
. MRI of the lumbar spine and follow-up at the clinic in 1 week
. Caudal epidural steroid injection
. Reassurance, limited analgesics, and early range of motion as tolerated
. Immediate MRI of the lumbar spine and possible urgent surgical decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiographs, including anterior, lateral, and oblique views


Explanation

In general, a previously healthy patient with an acute onset of nontraumatic lower back pain does not need diagnostic imaging before proceeding with therapeutic treatment. In the absence of any “red flags” during the history and physical examination, such as trauma or constitutional symptoms (ie, fevers, chills, weight loss), the appropriate treatment for acute onset lower back pain is purely symptomatic treatment including limited analgesics and early range of motion. Diagnostic imaging is not necessary unless the initial treatment is unsuccessful and symptoms are prolonged. Miller and associates suggested that the use of radiographs can lead to better patient satisfaction but not necessarily better outcomes.

Question 2453

Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old man who underwent an anterior lumbar diskectomy and fusion at L4-5 and L5-S1 through an anterior retroperitoneal approach 1 month ago now reports he is unable to obtain and maintain an erection. The most likely cause of this condition is
. disruption of the sympathetic nerves during anterior lumbar exposure.
. traction on the parasympathetic nerve at the L4-5 level.
. not related to the surgical dissection.
. injury to the pudendal nerves in the anterior sacral region during dissection at the L5-S1 level.
. sexual dysfunction secondary to retrograde ejaculation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. traction on the parasympathetic nerve at the L4-5 level.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sexual dysfunction is a common condition after extensive anterior lumbar surgical dissection. Erectile dysfunction usually is nonorganic but may be related to parasympathetic injury. The parasympathetic nerves are deep in the pelvis at the level of S2-3 and S3-4 and usually are not involved in the surgical field for anterior L4-5 and L5-S1 procedures. Retrograde ejaculation is the result of injury to the sympathetic chain on the anterior surface of the major vessels crossing the L4-5 level and at the L5-S1 interspace. Erectile function and orgasm are not affected by sympathetic injury. The pudendal nerve is primarily a somatic nerve and is not located in the surgical field.

Question 2454

Topic: 6. Spine
BMP is FDA approved for well-defined medical conditions in limited patient populations. In which of the following clinical scenarios is use of rhBMP-2 FDA approved?
. In a 32-year-old male with an acute, open tibial shaft fracture treated with minimally-invasive locked plating 8 days from the initial injury
. In the lumbar spine in a 45-year-old female undergoing posterior decompression and instrumented posterolateral fusion from L4 to S1
. In the cervical spine in a 56-year-old female undergoing anterior cervical discectomy and fusion of C5-C6
. In the lumbar spine in a 52-year-old male undergoing L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion for degenerative disc disease and spinal stenosis
. In the cervical spine in a 60-year-old male undergoing posterior decompression and posterior instrumented fusion of C3-C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In the lumbar spine in a 52-year-old male undergoing L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion for degenerative disc disease and spinal stenosis


Explanation

rhBMP-2 is FDA approved for use together with the lumbar tapered fusion device (LT Cage; Medtronic) in single-level ALIF from L2 to S1 levels in degenerative disc disease. rhBMP-2 is also FDA approved for use in open tibial shaft fractures stabilized with an IM nail and treated within 14 days of initial injury. Burkus et al. prospectively compared 46 patients undergoing single-level ALIF with BMP-2 vs with autograft in an industry sponsored study. They found that patients receiving BMP-2 had higher rates of fusion and improvement in pain and neurologic status at 12 and 24 months compared with autograft, and there were no adverse events.

Question 2455

Topic: 6. Spine
A 4-month-old infant is referred for evaluation of congenital scoliosis. The child has no congenital heart anomalies, and a renal ultrasound shows that he has one kidney. Examination reveals mild scoliosis and a large hairy patch on the child’s back. Neurologic evaluation is normal for his age. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. Initial management should consist of
. referral to a plastic surgeon to remove the hairy patch.
. MRI of the entire spine.
. physical therapy and repeat evaluation and radiographs in 1 year.
. anterior and posterior fusion of the anomalous regions of the spine to prevent deformity.
. voiding cystourethrography.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the entire spine.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Congenital anomalies of the spine, including failure of formation and failure of segmentation, are associated with other anomalies in other organ systems that develop at the same time. These include anomalies in the genitourinary system, cardiac anomalies, Sprengel’s deformity, radial hypoplasia, and gastrointestinal anomalies including imperforate anus and trachealesophageal fistula. Spinal dysraphism is the most common associated abnormality. Neural axis lesions may be associated with visible midline abnormalities such as a hairy patch or nevus. The child has already had a cardiac and renal work-up, and based on the findings of the hairy patch and congenital vertebral anomalies, MRI of the entire spine is prudent at this time.

Question 2456

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient has a C6-7 herniated nucleus pulposus. What is the most likely distribution of symptoms? Review Topic

. Pain in the posterior neck and scapula, numbness over the clavicle, and weakness of the head and neck extensors
. Pain in the shoulder, numbness over the lateral shoulder, weakness of the deltoid
. Pain at the elbow, numbness over the thumb and index finger, weakness of the biceps and wrist extensors
. Pain at the forearm and hand, numbness of the middle finger, weakness of the triceps and finger extensors
. Pain at the wrist, numbness in the little and ring fingers, weak finger flexors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain in the posterior neck and scapula, numbness over the clavicle, and weakness of the head and neck extensors


Explanation

A C6-7 herniated nucleus pulposus is most likely to produce a C7 radiculopathy resulting in pain at the forearm and hand, numbness of the middle finger, and weakness of the triceps and finger extensors. Alternative answers represent sequelae of symptomatic disk herniations at C3-C4 (1), C4-C5 (2), C5-C6 (3), and C7-T1 (5), respectively.(SBQ12SP.27) A 24-year-old male sustains the injury shown in Figure A. What was the most likely mechanism of injury?Review TopicHyperextensionFlexion-distractionFlexion-compressionRotationalPure axial loadFigure A shows a quadrangular fracture pattern of C5. These injuries are observed with flexion-compression loads.Quadrangular fractures of the cervical spine are considered flexion teardrop fractures. However, they present with a larger anterior lip fragment compared to the classic teardrop fracture pattern. The radiographic findings include a quadrangular-shaped fragment from the anterior one-third of the vertebral body with significant posterior vertebral subluxation, angular kyphosis, and an increased interspinous space with facet subluxation due to disruption of the posterior elements. These are unstable fractures, and almost always require anterior and posterior stabilization.Moore et al. studied the reliability of Cervical Spine Injury Severity Score to measure stability after cervical spine trauma. The classification system is based on morphologic descriptions and, secondly, on stability based on a quantifiable value. They showed that the Cervical Spine Injury Severity Score had excellent reliability with intra-observer intraclass correlation coefficients (ICC) >0.97 and inter-observer ICC >0.88.Vaccaro et al. published the subaxial cervical spine injury classification system (SLIC). This systems involves 3 main categories (injury morphology, disco-ligamentous complex, and neurologic status). The overall injury severity score is obtained by summing the scores from each category. They propose that SLIC < 4 can be treated non-operatively.Allen et al. published a classification system of cervical spine injuries which breaks injuries of the subaxial spine into six phylogenic groups based on mechanism of injury. These include: 1) flexion-compression 2) vertical-compression 3) flexion-distraction 4) extension-compression 5) extension-distraction 6) lateral flexion. Facetdislocationiscausedbyflexion-distractionforce.Figure A shows a lateral radiograph of the cervical spine demonstrating a typical flexion-compression fracture with anteriorly displaced quadrangular fragment. Illustration A shows a flexion-compression injury. Illustration B shows the mechanism of injury for a quadrangular fracture of the cervical spine. This unstable fracture pattern is characterized by anterior column failure in flexion/compression and posterior column failure in tension. Illustration C shows an illustration of the fracture morphology according to the Allen and Ferguson classification.Incorrect Answer 1:Hyperextension injuriesFlexion-distraction injuries usually result in facet dislocations.

Question 2457

Topic: 6. Spine

What is the most common physical finding in myelopathic patients? Review Topic

. Babinski sign
. Hoffman sign
. Hyperreflexia
. Clonus
. Ataxic gait

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hoffman sign


Explanation

The Hoffman sign is the most common finding, occurring in 80% of myelopathic patients, and it is more common with increasing severity of the myelopathy. The prevalence of hyperreflexia has been shown to be no different from the prevalence in individuals without myelopathy. Sustained clonus and Babinski signs have been shown to occur in only one third of the patients with myelopathy.

Question 2458

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 4 shows the MRI scan of a patient who has had bilateral leg pain, weakness, diffuse numbness, and urinary retention for the past week. Examination reveals that motor strength is diffusely decreased, although it may be secondary to pain. The patient is numb throughout both legs, and reflexes in the lower extremities are absent. Rectal examination shows decreased tone, but voluntary tightening is present. Management should consist of
. physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 4 to 6 weeks.
. physical therapy, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 4 to 6 weeks, and methylprednisolone.
. epidural steroid injections.
. elective surgery.
. urgent surgery.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. urgent surgery.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a cauda equina syndrome. The fact that he has decreased rectal tone and urinary retention suggests the need for urgent surgery. Patients who are left untreated will have a poor prognosis for return of function. Although most patients who have insidious onset of symptoms with urinary retention will regain normal motor function following decompression, nearly one third will continue to have abnormal voiding patterns or sexual dysfunction of varying degrees. REFERENCES: Kostuik JP, Harrington I, Alexander D, Rand W, Evans D: Cauda equina syndrome and lumbar disc herniation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:386-391. Wisneski RJ, Garfin SR, Rothman RH, Lutz GE: Lumbar disk disease, in Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Balderston RA, et al (eds): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, vol 1, pp 613-679.

Question 2459

Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has atlanto-axial instability and basilar invagination. What MRI findings would suggest the need for cervical fusion?
. Cervical medullary angle of 125°
. Space available for the cord of 15 mm
. Cord diameter in flexion of 10 mm
. C3-4 subluxation of 2 mm
. Erosion of the tip of the odontoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical medullary angle of 125°


Explanation

The cervical medullary junction should be 135° or greater. An angle of 125° suggests compression of the cervical medullary junction. Other findings supporting surgical intervention include a cord diameter in flexion of less than 6 mm or less than 13 mm of space available for the cord.

Question 2460

Topic: 6. Spine
Thoracic disk herniations are most frequently found in what area of the spine?
. C7-T2
. T2-T5
. T5-T8
. T9-T12
. T12-L1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T9-T12


Explanation

Although thoracic disk herniations have been reported at all levels of the thoracic spine, more than two thirds are found at T9-T12, which is the more mobile lower third of the thoracic region.