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Question 421

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old female presents after a ground-level fall with neck pain. CT shows a Type II odontoid fracture with 2mm of posterior displacement. Neurologic examination is completely intact. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Traction and observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients with a Type II odontoid fracture, halo vest immobilization has an unacceptably high morbidity and mortality rate. A rigid cervical collar is the preferred initial management for minimally displaced fractures in frail or elderly demographics.

Question 422

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 50-year-old male presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and an unsteady gait. CT demonstrates a continuous band of dense ossification along the posterior aspect of the C3-C6 vertebral bodies. The ossified mass occupies 65% of the spinal canal, and his cervical spine is lordotic. Which surgical approach is generally preferred?

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion (ACCF)
. Posterior laminectomy and fusion
. Microendoscopic posterior foraminotomy
. Combined anterior-posterior 360-degree decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior laminectomy and fusion


Explanation

For Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL) occupying >50-60% of the canal or involving more than 3 levels in a lordotic spine, a posterior approach (laminectomy and fusion or laminoplasty) is preferred. Anterior corpectomy carries an unacceptably high risk of dural tear and cord injury in severe OPLL.

Question 423

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old boy is evaluated after a minor fall. His lateral cervical spine radiograph shows 3mm of anterior displacement of C2 on C3. The Swischuk line passes 1mm anterior to the anterior aspect of the C3 posterior arch. What is the correct interpretation?

. Pathologic C2-C3 subluxation requiring a halo vest
. Hangman's fracture
. Physiologic pseudosubluxation
. Atlantodental interval (ADI) widening requiring MRI
. Unstable ligamentous injury requiring immediate fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physiologic pseudosubluxation


Explanation

Pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3 is a normal physiologic finding in children up to age 8. A Swischuk line passing within 2mm (anterior or posterior) of the anterior aspect of the C3 spinous process confirms that the displacement is physiologic and benign.

Question 424

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old female sustains a fall and is diagnosed with a displaced Type II odontoid fracture. She has a history of mild COPD and hypertension. Which of the following management strategies offers the highest rate of bony union for this specific patient?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
. C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation without bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion


Explanation

In elderly patients (age > 70) with displaced Type II odontoid fractures, conservative management (halo or collar) has a high nonunion rate and significant morbidity. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion offers the highest union rates and functional outcomes.

Question 425

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old female sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. Displacement is 2 mm, and she is neurologically intact. Given her age and comorbidities, what is the most appropriate initial management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Hard cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Minerva cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hard cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients (>65 years) with Type II odontoid fractures, rigid collar immobilization is preferred over a halo vest due to the high morbidity and mortality associated with halo placement. Surgery is reserved for nonunions or highly displaced fractures.

Question 426

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction. Biomechanically, which bundle of the native UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 30 degrees of elbow flexion, and therefore the primary target of this reconstruction?

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow. It is subdivided into the anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is the primary restraint to valgus stress from 0 to 90 degrees of flexion, while the posterior band becomes more taut and clinically significant in deeper flexion (typically >90-120 degrees).

Question 427

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with a severe ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear. Which bundle of the UCL acts as the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is the bundle most frequently injured in overhead throwing athletes.

Question 428

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using a palmaris longus autograft. Which bundle of the native UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of elbow flexion, and thus the target for reconstruction?

. Posterior bundle
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Transverse ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary stabilizer against valgus stress. Specifically, its anterior band is tight in extension and the primary restraint up to 120 degrees of flexion, making it the critical structure to reconstruct.

Question 429

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of medial elbow pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. What is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during this specific phase of the throwing motion?

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass
. Radiocapitellar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. This corresponds to the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing where valgus forces are highest.

Question 430

Topic: Cervical Spine

In the throwing athlete, the medial ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is subjected to significant stress. Which specific bundle of the UCL provides the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Anterior bundle
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus instability of the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle is a secondary restraint, taut in flexion >90 degrees, and the transverse ligament (Cooper's) has no significant role in elbow stability.

Question 431

Topic: Cervical Spine

In the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL) complex of the elbow, which structural component provides the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 90 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior bundle of the MUCL
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the MUCL
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle of the MUCL
. Radiocapitellar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the MUCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the MUCL is the primary stabilizer against valgus stress at the elbow. Specifically, the anterior band of the anterior bundle is taut in early flexion (up to 90 degrees) and is the primary restraint in this arc, while the posterior band of the anterior bundle becomes tighter in greater flexion (>90 degrees).

Question 432

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 45-year-old female undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6. During the immediate postoperative period in the recovery room, she develops a rapidly expanding anterior neck mass, respiratory distress, and stridor. What is the most critical and immediate step in her management?

. Administer intravenous dexamethasone
. Perform an emergent bedside cricothyroidotomy
. Immediate bedside opening of the incision to evacuate the hematoma
. Order an urgent portable CT scan of the neck
. Prepare for re-intubation in the operating room

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate bedside opening of the incision to evacuate the hematoma


Explanation

The patient is experiencing a postoperative prevertebral hematoma causing airway compromise. The standard of care is immediate bedside opening of the surgical incision (including superficial and deep fascial layers) to evacuate the hematoma and relieve pressure, followed by securing the airway and returning to the OR.

Question 433

Topic: Cervical Spine



A 55-year-old male presents with progressive upper extremity clumsiness and lower extremity spasticity. CT imaging reveals ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6. If an anterior cervical corpectomy is planned, what is the most significant intraoperative risk specifically associated with OPLL excision?

. Vertebral artery injury
. Esophageal perforation
. Dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
. Tracheal injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid leak


Explanation

OPLL frequently adheres to or ossifies through the ventral dura. Consequently, surgical resection via an anterior approach carries a very high risk of dural tears and subsequent CSF leaks.

Question 434

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old man sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact but has multiple medical comorbidities. Which of the following treatments is associated with an unacceptably high rate of mortality in this specific demographic and is generally avoided?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

Halo vest immobilization in the elderly population (over 65-70 years) is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates (up to 40%) primarily due to respiratory complications and falls. It is generally contraindicated in this age group.

Question 435

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old Asian male presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a wide-based gait. CT of the cervical spine reveals a continuous ossified mass posterior to the vertebral bodies from C3 to C6. If an anterior decompression (corpectomy) is planned, what is the most significant intraoperative complication directly associated with the pathology?

. Vertebral artery laceration
. Intraoperative dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
. Esophageal perforation
. Horner's syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid leak


Explanation

Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) often adheres to or ossifies the underlying dura mater. Attempting to resect the OPLL mass via an anterior approach carries a uniquely high risk of dural tears and subsequent CSF leaks.

Question 436

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an elective total knee arthroplasty. Pre-operative flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs reveal an anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most appropriate management regarding her cervical spine?

. Observation with yearly radiographs
. Application of a Halo vest prior to intubation
. Pre-intubation posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Transoral odontoidectomy alone
. Anterior C1-C2 plate fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pre-intubation posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion


Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 9-10 mm or a posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) less than 14 mm indicates severe, unstable atlantoaxial subluxation with a high risk of impending neurologic injury. This requires prophylactic posterior C1-C2 stabilization before elective general anesthesia.

Question 437

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with severe neck pain and torticollis 10 days after a tonsillectomy. He holds his head tilted to the right and rotated to the left. Neurological examination is normal. Radiographs reveal an increased atlantodental interval (ADI) of 4.5 mm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
. Os odontoideum
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Grisel syndrome
. Retropharyngeal abscess

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel syndrome


Explanation

Grisel syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation (AARS) associated with inflammation of the adjacent head and neck tissues (such as after pharyngitis, tonsillectomy, or upper respiratory tract infections). The inflammatory hyperemia causes laxity of the transverse ligament, leading to subluxation.

Question 438

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis is evaluated prior to elective surgery. Flexion-extension cervical spine radiographs are obtained. Which of the following parameters represents an absolute indication for operative stabilization of the cervical spine?

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm in an asymptomatic patient
. Space available for the cord (SAC) of 13 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination with the tip of the odontoid 2 mm above Chamberlain's line
. C1-C2 instability presenting with isolated mechanical neck pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Space available for the cord (SAC) of 13 mm


Explanation

In the rheumatoid cervical spine, a posterior atlantodental interval (PADI), also known as the space available for the cord (SAC), of less than 14 mm is the most reliable predictor of impending neurologic deficit and paralysis, making it an absolute indication for surgery. An ADI > 10 mm or basilar invagination > 5 mm above Chamberlain's line are also surgical indications.

Question 439

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis requires intubation. Flexion-extension cervical radiographs are obtained. Which measurement is the most reliable radiographic indicator of potential neurological compromise due to atlantoaxial subluxation?

. Anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) > 3 mm
. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) < 14 mm
. Basion-dental interval > 12 mm
. Powers ratio > 1.0
. C2-C7 sagittal Cobb angle < 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) < 14 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlantodental Interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic deficit in RA. A PADI of less than 14 mm strongly correlates with a high risk of spinal cord compression.

Question 440

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old female presents with a Type II odontoid fracture following a ground-level fall. She has multiple comorbidities but is neurologically intact. What is the preferred definitive treatment for this patient to minimize mortality and optimize union rates?

. Application of a halo vest for 12 weeks
. Hard cervical collar immobilization for 6 weeks
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 fusion


Explanation

Type II odontoid fractures in the elderly (>70-80 years old) are notoriously difficult to treat. Conservative management with a halo vest is associated with unacceptably high morbidity and mortality in the elderly population (up to 40%). Anterior odontoid screws have high failure rates due to osteopenia. Posterior C1-C2 arthrodesis is the most reliable treatment, offering the highest union rates and lower mortality compared to halo placement in this specific demographic.