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Question 401

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 80-year-old female sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. Her family prefers conservative management over surgery due to her severe cardiac comorbidities. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for non-union of a Type II odontoid fracture treated with a rigid cervical collar?

. Initial fracture displacement > 5 mm
. Female gender
. Age greater than 60 years
. Anterior angulation of 5 degrees
. Presence of a concurrent C1 arch fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initial fracture displacement > 5 mm


Explanation

The strongest risk factors for non-union in Type II odontoid fractures include initial displacement > 5 mm, posterior displacement, age > 50 years, and a delay in diagnosis or treatment. Among the choices provided, initial displacement > 5 mm is a classic, highly predictive factor for non-union.

Question 402

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with torticollis and severe neck stiffness 2 weeks after an uncomplicated adenotonsillectomy. He is afebrile but has persistent pain, holding his head tilted to the right and rotated to the left. Neurological examination is completely normal. Radiographs demonstrate an asymmetric atlantodental interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Retropharyngeal abscess
. Atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation (Grisel syndrome)
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Osteoid osteoma of the cervical spine
. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retropharyngeal abscess


Explanation

Grisel syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation that occurs secondary to an inflammatory process in the upper neck, such as an upper respiratory infection or following head/neck surgery (e.g., adenotonsillectomy). The inflammation leads to laxity of the transverse ligament. Patients present with torticollis (head tilted to one side and rotated to the opposite side). Neurological deficits are rare but can occur.

Question 403

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old boy with Down syndrome presents with neck pain and torticollis following a minor fall. Neurological examination is completely normal. Open-mouth odontoid radiographs reveal an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 6 mm. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate posterior spinal fusion from C1 to C2
. Cervical collar, avoidance of contact sports, and close observation
. Application of a Halo vest for strict immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Reassurance and immediate return to normal activities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate posterior spinal fusion from C1 to C2


Explanation

An ADI of up to 4-5 mm can be normal in children, but 6 mm indicates mild atlantoaxial instability common in Down syndrome. Without neurologic symptoms, conservative management with activity restriction and close follow-up is indicated.

Question 404

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis and neck pain, which of the following is the most reliable radiographic predictor of impending neurologic deficit requiring surgical stabilization?

. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm
. Posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI) of 13 mm
. Subaxial subluxation of 2 mm
. Basilar invagination with the dens 2 mm above McGregor's line
. C2-C3 facet arthrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) of 6 mm


Explanation

The Posterior Atlanto-Dental Interval (PADI) directly correlates with the Space Available for the Cord (SAC). A PADI of less than 14 mm is the most reliable predictor of neurologic deficit in rheumatoid cervical instability and is an absolute indication for surgical stabilization.

Question 405

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which specific portion of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) complex of the elbow serves as the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion, and what is its anatomic ulnar insertion?

. Posterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.
. Anterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.
. Transverse ligament; inserting on the tip of the coronoid process.
. Anterior bundle; inserting on the lateral aspect of the olecranon.
. Posterior bundle; inserting on the supinator crest.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle; inserting on the sublime tubercle.


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial (ulnar) collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow. It originates on the anterior inferior surface of the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the anteromedial coronoid process.

Question 406

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 80-year-old male with a history of severe COPD and ischemic heart disease presents after a mechanical fall with neck pain. A CT scan of the cervical spine demonstrates a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of displacement. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Observation with soft collar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures, especially those with significant comorbidities, a rigid cervical collar is generally preferred. While nonunion rates are higher compared to surgical fixation, halo vest immobilization carries an unacceptably high mortality and morbidity rate in the elderly population.

Question 407

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old male sustains an axial load injury to his cervical spine. Open-mouth odontoid radiographs reveal a combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of 8.1 mm. According to the Rule of Spence, this specific measurement indicates the disruption of which of the following structures?

. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Tectorial membrane
. Posterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alar ligament


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that a combined lateral mass displacement of C1 on C2 greater than 6.9 mm on an AP open-mouth radiograph signifies transverse ligament rupture. This indicates a highly unstable Jefferson fracture that typically requires rigid immobilization (halo) or upper cervical fusion.

Question 408

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 65-year-old male is involved in a high-speed MVC and sustains a burst fracture of the C1 ring (Jefferson fracture). Open-mouth odontoid radiographs demonstrate lateral displacement of the C1 lateral masses. A total combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than what threshold implies an incompetent transverse ligament (Rule of Spence)?

. 3.5 mm
. 5.0 mm
. 6.9 mm
. 8.5 mm
. 10.0 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3.5 mm


Explanation

According to the Rule of Spence, a combined lateral mass displacement of C1 over C2 of greater than 6.9 mm on an AP open-mouth radiograph implies rupture of the transverse ligament.

Question 409

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain that occurs during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of pitching. On examination, he has pain with the milking maneuver and a positive moving valgus stress test. MRI confirms a full-thickness midsubstance tear of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). If surgical reconstruction is chosen, which structure is considered the primary isometric restraint to valgus stress at the elbow?

. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Transverse ligament of Cooper
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle of the UCL
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. It is divided into anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is taut in extension and up to approximately 90 degrees of flexion, functioning as the primary isometric restraint to valgus stress. The posterior band becomes taut in deeper flexion (>90 degrees).

Question 410

Topic: Cervical Spine

During ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction of the elbow in an overhead throwing athlete, the graft is tensioned to recreate the primary valgus stabilizer. Which specific portion of the UCL complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band of the anterior bundle is taut and acts as the primary stabilizer from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion.

Question 411

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 20-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction utilizing an ipsilateral palmaris longus autograft. Which specific component of the native UCL complex is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band is tight in extension and remains the primary restraint up to 120 degrees of flexion, while the posterior band tightens more in higher flexion.

Question 412

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old girl presents with torticollis following a mild upper respiratory infection. Radiographs show rotatory subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint. What is the most common underlying mechanism for this specific condition (Grisel's syndrome)?

. Congenital absence of the transverse ligament
. Traumatic rupture of the alar ligaments
. Inflammatory hyperemia causing laxity of the transverse ligament
. Neoplastic erosion of the dens
. Degenerative osteoarthritis of C1-C2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Congenital absence of the transverse ligament


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation caused by inflammatory hyperemia of the retropharyngeal space (often post-URI or ENT surgery). The inflammation leads to laxity of the transverse ligament and subsequent subluxation.

Question 413

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 5-year-old child presents to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Lateral cervical spine radiographs show 3 mm of anterior translation of C2 on C3. Swischuk's line is drawn and passes 1 mm anterior to the posterior arch of C3. What is the correct interpretation?

. Hangman's fracture
. Odontoid fracture
. Physiological pseudosubluxation
. True traumatic C2-C3 subluxation
. Bilateral facet dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hangman's fracture


Explanation

Pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3 is a normal variant in children up to 8 years old. Swischuk's line (spinolaminar line from C1 to C3) should pass within 2 mm of the anterior cortex of the posterior arch of C2; if it does, the subluxation is physiological rather than traumatic.

Question 414

Topic: Cervical Spine
An 8-year-old girl presents with painful torticollis one week after recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Radiographs demonstrate an atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation. According to the Fielding and Hawkins classification, a Type II injury is characterized by:
. Rotatory displacement with an intact transverse ligament and no anterior displacement
. Rotatory displacement with an anterior displacement of 3 to 5 mm, indicating transverse ligament deficiency
. Rotatory displacement with an anterior displacement greater than 5 mm, indicating bilateral alar ligament deficiency
. Posterior rotatory displacement of the atlas on the axis
. Rotatory displacement combined with a vertical subluxation of the odontoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotatory displacement with an anterior displacement of 3 to 5 mm, indicating transverse ligament deficiency


Explanation

Fielding and Hawkins classified atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation (AARS) into four types. Type I: Rotatory fixation with no anterior displacement (ADI < 3 mm); transverse ligament intact. Type II: Rotatory fixation with anterior displacement of 3 to 5 mm; indicates transverse ligament deficiency. Type III: Rotatory fixation with anterior displacement > 5 mm; indicates deficiency of both the transverse and alar ligaments. Type IV: Posterior rotatory fixation. The scenario describes Grisel's syndrome (AARS secondary to head/neck infection/inflammation).

Question 415

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 80-year-old female presents after a ground-level fall with severe neck pain. CT scan reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of posterior displacement. She has a history of severe COPD and ischemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
. C1-C2 transarticular screws without bone graft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion


Explanation

In elderly patients, Type II odontoid fractures have a high nonunion rate, and halo vests are associated with high morbidity and mortality. Posterior C1-C2 fusion is the treatment of choice for displaced fractures in this demographic to achieve stability and avoid the risks of conservative bracing.

Question 416

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 48-year-old female undergoes a right-sided anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7. Post-operatively, she complains of significant hoarseness. Direct laryngoscopy confirms a unilateral paralyzed vocal cord. Injury to which of the following structures is most likely responsible?

. Glossopharyngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Hypoglossal nerve
. Sympathetic trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx. It is highly vulnerable during lower anterior cervical approaches (C6-T1), particularly on the right side where its anatomical course is more variable and non-recurrent.

Question 417

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6 using a right-sided approach, the patient develops postoperative hoarseness. Which anatomical feature explains why the recurrent laryngeal nerve is more susceptible to injury on the right side compared to the left during this approach?

. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve runs anterior to the carotid sheath.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve does not descend into the thorax and crosses more transversely in the neck.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the arch of the aorta.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve is securely tethered by the inferior thyroid artery.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes strictly within the tracheoesophageal groove throughout its course.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve does not descend into the thorax and crosses more transversely in the neck.


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and crosses the surgical field more transversely and aberrantly compared to the left. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove, making it less prone to injury.

Question 418

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old child presents with torticollis and severe neck stiffness one week after undergoing a routine tonsillectomy. The child holds their head tilted to the right and rotated to the left. Cervical spine radiographs and a subsequent CT scan demonstrate anterior displacement and rotation of the atlas on the axis without evidence of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Jefferson fracture
. Grisel's syndrome
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
. Retropharyngeal abscess

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel's syndrome


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation associated with inflammatory conditions of the head and neck, such as tonsillitis or post-tonsillectomy. Regional inflammation leads to hyperemia and subsequent laxity of the transverse ligament.

Question 419

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 35-year-old male dives into a shallow pool and sustains an axial loading injury to his neck. AP open-mouth odontoid radiographs reveal a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 measuring 8.5 mm. According to the Rule of Spence, this specific radiographic finding suggests rupture of which ligamentous structure?

. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse ligament


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 measuring 6.9 mm or greater on an AP open-mouth radiograph indicates a highly likely rupture of the transverse ligament. This renders a Jefferson (C1 burst) fracture highly unstable.

Question 420

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with neck pain and paresthesias in her hands. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 8 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Hard cervical collar and NSAIDs
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6
. Suboccipital decompression alone
. Observation and repeat radiographs in 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 fusion


Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 7 mm indicates disruption of the transverse ligament with a high risk of neurologic injury. Posterior C1-C2 fusion is indicated to stabilize the unstable atlantoaxial joint.