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Question 1

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain. The moving valgus stress test is positive. MRI shows a full-thickness tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). What is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior bundle of the UCL
. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Transverse ligament of the elbow
. Flexor-pronator mass
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle acts as a secondary restraint.

Question 2

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with chronic low back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs are normal, but an MRI shows bone marrow edema in the L5 pars interarticularis without a clear fracture line. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate surgical pars repair
. Rigid TLSO bracing and restriction from sports for 3 months
. Continuation of gymnastics with NSAIDs
. Lumbar epidural steroid injections
. L5-S1 instrumented fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid TLSO bracing and restriction from sports for 3 months


Explanation

An early pars stress reaction (edema on MRI without a frank fracture) has a high potential for healing. Management includes activity restriction and rigid antilordotic bracing until pain resolves.

Question 3

Topic: Cervical Spine

During the throwing motion, which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress in the elbow. Specifically, its anterior band is taut from roughly 0 to 90 degrees, making it the critical stabilizing structure during the throwing motion.

Question 4

Topic: Cervical Spine

During the acceleration phase of a baseball pitch, significant valgus stress is placed on the elbow. Which structure provides the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Radiocapitellar joint
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass
. Transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle acts only as a secondary restraint.

Question 5

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which type of scoliosis is most common in adolescents?

. Congenital scoliosis
. Neuromuscular scoliosis
. Idiopathic scoliosis
. Degenerative scoliosis
. Post-traumatic scoliosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Idiopathic scoliosis


Explanation

Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) is the most common form of scoliosis, usually developing around puberty with no clear cause.

Question 6

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is most indicative of a disc herniation with nerve root compression?

. Diffuse low back pain
. Morning stiffness that improves with activity
. Radicular pain radiating down the leg below the knee
. Pain exacerbated by standing and relieved by sitting
. Generalized muscle weakness without sensory changes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radicular pain radiating down the leg below the knee


Explanation

Radicular pain (sciatica) that radiates down the leg below the knee into specific dermatomal patterns is a classic symptom of nerve root compression due to disc herniation.

Question 7

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is an indication for surgical intervention in scoliosis?

. Cobb angle of 15 degrees in an adolescent
. Mild back pain without neurological symptoms
. Cobb angle greater than 45-50 degrees in a growing adolescent
. Skeletally mature patient with a 30-degree curve
. Small curve with compensatory changes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobb angle greater than 45-50 degrees in a growing adolescent


Explanation

Surgical intervention (spinal fusion) is generally indicated for progressive scoliosis with a Cobb angle exceeding 45-50 degrees in a growing adolescent, as these curves are likely to continue progressing even after skeletal maturity and can lead to significant deformity and potential cardiopulmonary compromise.

Question 8

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which structure provides the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament of the elbow
. Radial collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator muscle mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion, which covers the late cocking and acceleration phases.

Question 9

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following best describes the anatomical origin of the reflected head of the rectus femoris, which may be avulsed in a kicking athlete?

. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)
. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
. Superior acetabular rim and hip joint capsule
. Iliopubic eminence
. Lesser trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior acetabular rim and hip joint capsule


Explanation

The rectus femoris has two origins. The direct head originates from the AIIS, while the reflected head originates from the superior acetabular rim and the anterior hip joint capsule.

Question 10

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old soccer player experiences a sudden pop in his anterior pelvis while kicking. MRI confirms an isolated avulsion of the direct head of the rectus femoris. What is the specific anatomical origin of this tendon?

. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)
. Superior acetabular rim
. Iliopectineal eminence
. Pubic symphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)


Explanation

The rectus femoris has two distinct origins: the direct (straight) head originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), and the indirect (reflected) head originates from the superior acetabular rim and joint capsule.

Question 11

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old former sprinter presents with chronic, deep buttock pain radiating down the posterior thigh, exacerbated by sitting. He has a history of a remote hamstring strain. Examination reveals a positive seated slump test and localized tenderness at the ischial tuberosity. What is the likely diagnosis?

. Piriformis syndrome
. Ischiofemoral impingement
. Hamstring syndrome
. Pudendal neuralgia
. Lumbar spinal stenosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hamstring syndrome


Explanation

Hamstring syndrome involves entrapment or irritation of the sciatic nerve by dense fibrotic scar tissue around the ischial tuberosity, typically following a prior proximal hamstring injury. It presents with deep buttock pain radiating down the posterior thigh, worsened by sitting.

Question 12

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old gymnast presents with acute anterior pelvic pain after performing a split leap. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Which muscle is responsible for this avulsion?

. Rectus femoris direct head
. Rectus femoris indirect head
. Sartorius
. Iliopsoas
. Tensor fasciae latae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius


Explanation

Avulsion fractures of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) are typically caused by the sudden, forceful contraction of the sartorius muscle, or occasionally the tensor fasciae latae. The rectus femoris avulses the AIIS, while the iliopsoas avulses the lesser trochanter.

Question 13

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old gymnast experiences a sudden 'pop' over her right anterior pelvis while performing a split jump. She has localized tenderness over the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Which structure is injured?

. Rectus femoris
. Sartorius
. Iliopsoas
. Adductor longus
. Pectineus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius


Explanation

The sartorius muscle originates from the ASIS and can avulse this apophysis during forceful hip flexion. The rectus femoris avulses the AIIS.

Question 14

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old soccer player experiences a sudden pop and sharp pain in his anterior pelvis while kicking a ball. Radiographs reveal a bony avulsion fragment displaced 1 cm inferiorly from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Which muscle is responsible for this avulsion?

. Sartorius
. Direct head of the rectus femoris
. Reflected head of the rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas
. Tensor fasciae latae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct head of the rectus femoris


Explanation

The direct head of the rectus femoris originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS), while the reflected head originates from the superior acetabular rim. Vigorous kicking mechanisms commonly cause avulsion fractures of the AIIS in adolescents.

Question 15

Topic: 6. Spine

A 32-year-old runner presents with deep gluteal pain radiating down the posterior thigh. Pain is reproduced with resisted external rotation of the hip. MRI of the lumbar spine is normal. The affected nerve passes through the greater sciatic foramen typically in what relation to the piriformis muscle?

. Superior to the piriformis
. Inferior to the piriformis
. Through the belly of the piriformis
. Medial to the sacrotuberous ligament
. Lateral to the ischial spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior to the piriformis


Explanation

In classic piriformis syndrome, the sciatic nerve is compressed as it exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. In the majority of the population, the entire nerve passes immediately inferior to the piriformis muscle belly.

Question 16

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. Magnetic resonance arthrography demonstrates a tear of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL). Which structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the MUCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. Specifically, its anterior band is tight throughout the functional arc of motion (30 to 120 degrees), while the posterior band is tight only in deeper flexion.

Question 17

Topic: 6. Spine

A 13-year-old female competitive gymnast has had pain in her lumbar spine and anterior thighs for 9 weeks. It has become significant enough to limit her activities. Radiographs of her lumbar and thoracic spine are normal and iliac crests show that she is not skeletally mature. Physical examination is essentially normal with no long tract or nerve tension signs present. What is the next appropriate step in a diagnostic work up:

. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) of lumbar spine
. C omputed tomography (C T) scan of lumbar spine
. C T of thoracic spine
. MRI of thoracic spine
. Technetium bone scanning

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Technetium bone scanning


Explanation

This athlete most likely has spondylolysis of the lumbar spine. Repetitive hyperextension of the lumbar spine with stress concentrated at the pars interarticularis can lead to stress fractures especially in the fourth or fifth lumbar vertebrae. Spondylolysis is the most common bony injury in the athlete's spine. The most sensitive way to delineate this injury is with technetium bone scanning. C T and MRI are not as helpful in the diagnosis or treatment of spondylolysis, unless the patient has frank radicular symptoms.

Question 18

Topic: 6. Spine

A football player is down and unconscious after making a tackle. He is found lying supine. What initial management should be undertaken on the playing field:

. Remove helmet, place cervical collar, check for breathing, place on spine board
. Remove chinstrap only, check for breathing, place on spine board
. Remove helmet and shoulder pads, hold cervical traction and place on spine board
. Check breathing with helmet and chinstrap buckled, if airway problems are noted, remove facemask only, place on spine board
. Place on spine board immediately, check breathing once secured, with helmet on and chinstrap buckled, if airway problems noted, remove under in-line traction and assess further

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Check breathing with helmet and chinstrap buckled, if airway problems are noted, remove facemask only, place on spine board


Explanation

Prevention of further injury is the single most important objective in this patient. While maintaining immobilization of the head and neck check for airway, breathing and pulses (ABC ), followed by level of consciousness. The chin strap and helmet fastened will support the head and neck, and keep it aligned with the body, thereby reducing the risk of spinal cord injury associated with unstable fractures and dislocations. The face mask must be removed from the helmet before rescue breathing can ensue.

Question 19

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with severe lower back pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and saddle anesthesia after lifting a heavy box. Which of the following is the most consistent and sensitive early clinical finding of cauda equina syndrome?

. Loss of the bilateral patellar reflexes
. Urinary retention with overflow incontinence
. Fecal incontinence
. Bilateral foot drop
. Absent bulbocavernosus reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention with overflow incontinence


Explanation

Urinary retention, eventually leading to overflow incontinence, is the most consistent and sensitive early finding in cauda equina syndrome. A post-void residual bladder volume greater than 100-200 mL is highly suggestive of the condition in the proper clinical setting.

Question 20

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old male with an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis presents with persistent low back pain. Which of the following radiographic parameters is most highly associated with the risk of slip progression?

. High pelvic incidence
. Low sacral slope
. High pelvic tilt
. Presence of a spina bifida occulta
. Lumbar hypolordosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High pelvic incidence


Explanation

High pelvic incidence is a primary biomechanical risk factor for the development and progression of isthmic spondylolisthesis. It results in increased shear forces across the lumbosacral junction.