5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 48-year-old construction worker presents with deep, aching shoulder pain. MR arthrogram demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupation, which of the following treatments has been shown to provide the most reliable return to work and pain relief?

A 50-year-old male presents with acute shoulder pain and weakness after attempting to catch a falling heavy box.

Physical examination reveals a positive Bear-Hug test. Which of the following muscles is most likely injured?

A 24-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Postoperatively, he achieves full extension but complains of severe stiffness and restricted flexion, with a firm endpoint at 90 degrees. What is the most likely technical error responsible for this complication?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% bone loss of the anteroinferior glenoid. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

A patient presents with posterolateral knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. On physical examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 55-year-old female undergoes MRI of the knee showing a complete radial tear adjacent to the posterior root attachment of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, the biomechanical consequence of this specific tear is most equivalent to which of the following?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals profound weakness in external rotation, but normal forward elevation and abduction. An MRI shows an isolated paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which nerve is compressed, and which muscle is consequently affected?

A 16-year-old female requires medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Intraoperative fluoroscopy is used to determine the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL (Schottle's point). Where is this point located radiographically?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain and clicking. An MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior and Posterior) tear. After 6 months of failed physical therapy, surgery is planned. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?

A 25-year-old athlete sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. Examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which of the following injury patterns is most likely present?

During reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) for recurrent patellar instability, the femoral attachment must be anatomically placed to avoid altering joint kinematics. Where is the native femoral origin of the MPFL located?

An 18-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to the knee. An AP radiograph demonstrates a small vertical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau. Which of the following intra-articular injuries is most highly associated with this radiographic finding?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25 percent defect of the anterior glenoid rim. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to restore lasting stability?

A 48-year-old construction worker presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by heavy lifting. MRI arthrogram shows a Type II SLAP tear. Six months of physical therapy has failed to provide relief. What is the surgical treatment of choice?

A 28-year-old semi-professional football player sustains a non-contact injury to his knee during a game, describing a 'pop' and immediate swelling. Lachman test is positive with a soft endpoint. MRI confirms an isolated ACL tear. He wishes to return to high-level sport. What is the primary goal of ACL reconstruction in this athlete?

A 9-year-old boy (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical option?

A 22-year-old football player is undergoing an ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During femoral tunnel drilling via the anteromedial portal, the posterior cortical wall blows out. What is the best intraoperative management?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Three-dimensional CT reveals 28% glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize recurrence?

A 10-year-old female soccer player with wide-open physes sustains a complete mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Operative intervention is planned due to persistent, symptomatic instability. Which of the following surgical techniques minimizes the risk of iatrogenic growth arrest?

A 13-year-old obese boy undergoes in situ percutaneous single-screw fixation for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following represents the most significant long-term clinical complication directly associated with the residual deformity from this condition?