5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 24-year-old female is 6 months status post ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. She complains of a painful mechanical block to terminal knee extension. An MRI demonstrates a nodular mass in the anterior intercondylar notch. What is the most likely histological composition of this lesion?

A 40-year-old construction worker undergoes surgical repair of a complete transection of the radial proper digital nerve of his middle finger, sustained from a sharp saw blade 24 hours prior. During the procedure, a 1.5 cm nerve gap is identified after minimal debridement and gentle mobilization. The surgeon determines a tension-free direct repair is not possible. Based on the case's guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step for nerve reconstruction?

A 29-year-old patient is 6 weeks post-operative from a combined repair of a proper digital nerve and artery in the index finger. The hand therapist is progressing the rehabilitation protocol. Which of the following activities is most appropriate to introduce during the early mobilization and sensory re-education phase, as described in the case?

An 84-year-old lady presents with recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability. Which specialized radiographic view is most effective for visualizing a bony Bankart lesion or an anterior glenoid rim fracture?

Which meniscal root attachment is considered stronger and has a higher load-to-failure threshold?

Loss of meniscal function due to injury or meniscectomy is most directly linked to an increased incidence of:

The integrity of the posterior root of the medial meniscus is critical because its avulsion effectively leads to:

Which clinical scenario would most strongly suggest an irreparable meniscal tear requiring partial meniscectomy rather than repair?

A 26-year-old rugby player presents after an awkward fall onto his left knee. Radiographs and MRI, as shown in the provided image, reveal cortical disruption at the PCL insertion with a displaced avulsed fragment. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management for this specific injury?

During a single-bundle ACL reconstruction on a right knee, the examiner emphasizes the importance of anatomical and isometric tunnel placement. Based on the principles discussed in the case, what is the optimal clock face position for the femoral tunnel to replace the posterolateral bundle?

A surgeon performing a single-bundle ACL reconstruction places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly, on the "resident's ridge." According to the case discussion, what is the most likely clinical consequence of this technical error?

A 35-year-old active patient requires ACL reconstruction and expresses significant concern about developing anterior knee pain post-operatively. Based on the information provided in the case, which autograft choice would be more likely to lead to this specific donor site morbidity?

While discussing the potential complications of a hamstring four-strand autograft for ACL reconstruction, the candidate mentions hamstring weakness. What other specific nerve injury is cited in the case as a potential donor site morbidity associated with hamstring graft harvest?

The case focuses on the treatment of a PCL avulsion injury. How does the initial surgical management described for this specific injury typically differ from the management of a chronic mid-substance PCL tear?

During an arthroscopic ACL reconstruction, after careful assessment, the surgeon notes that abnormally narrow intercondylar notch correlates with increased incidence of ACL tears. If impingement on the lateral femoral condyle is identified despite correct tunnel placement, what additional surgical step is indicated according to the case?

A 21-year-old female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. During the healing process, the graft requires a robust blood supply to properly undergo ligamentization. What is the primary arterial supply to the native ACL?

A 28-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is noted to have a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. If a Remplissage procedure were to be performed in conjunction with an arthroscopic Bankart repair for a smaller glenoid defect, which of the following best describes the Remplissage technique?

A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a twisting injury to his knee while skiing. MRI confirms an acute, isolated rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following meniscal injuries is statistically most likely to be associated with this acute tear?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary anatomic pathology responsible for this physical finding?

A 17-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. An MPFL (medial patellofemoral ligament) reconstruction is planned. To ensure isometric graft function, the femoral tunnel must be placed at Schottle's point. Where is this point located radiographically?