5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 68-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture with a locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she complains of persistent shoulder pain and impingement, particularly with overhead activities. Clinical examination and radiographs confirm hardware prominence at the superior aspect of the greater tuberosity. Which factor is most commonly implicated in this complication?

A surgeon is performing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a soft tissue graft. Which type of screw is most commonly used for femoral or tibial fixation of the graft and why?

A 50-year-old patient presents with acute shoulder pain after a seizure. On examination, the arm is held in internal rotation, and the anterior shoulder appears flattened. External rotation is severely restricted. Which radiographic finding on an AP shoulder view is pathognomonic for a posterior shoulder dislocation?

Which finding on a post-reduction physical exam of an anterior shoulder dislocation indicates successful reduction and suggests stability?

A 70-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, plain radiographs show a concomitant fracture. Which fracture is MOST commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation in this age group?

A 55-year-old female presents to the clinic two weeks after successfully undergoing closed reduction of an anterior shoulder dislocation. She complains of persistent pain and is unable to actively abduct her arm past 45 degrees. Passive range of motion is full. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals the anterior-inferior labrum is avulsed from the glenoid margin, but the scapular periosteum remains intact, allowing the labrum to roll medially and inferiorly down the glenoid neck. Which of the following describes this lesion?

A 32-year-old male with a history of multiple anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

A 45-year-old male presents with severe shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a 35% anteromedial humeral head defect. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 21-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation, with normal internal rotation and normal abduction strength. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability but no evidence of a Bankart lesion on initial imaging. An MRI arthrogram is obtained, revealing extravasation of contrast inferiorly forming a classic "J-sign." What is the diagnosis?

An 18-year-old baseball pitcher presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking. Examination reveals a positive active compression (O'Brien's) test. Diagnostic arthroscopy identifies a Type II SLAP tear. What defines a Type II SLAP lesion?

A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden pop in his shoulder while performing heavy bench presses. On physical examination, he demonstrates weakness in internal rotation and an inability to lift his hand away from his lower back against resistance. Which of the following tendons is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old collegiate wrestler presents with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, imaging reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical (10%) glenoid bone loss. The surgeon plans an arthroscopic Bankart repair. Which adjunctive procedure is most commonly performed to address the humeral head defect?

A 21-year-old football player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to his knee. MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). When planning an anatomic reconstruction, the surgeon must identify the native femoral footprint of the ACL. Where is this located?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after multiple prior dislocations. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a subjective feeling of the shoulders "sliding out of place." Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, positive apprehension at varying degrees, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?

During a stabilization procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon elects to perform a "remplissage." This specific surgical technique is designed to address which of the following pathomorphological findings?

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. An MRI demonstrates isolated denervation and atrophy of the teres minor. Compression of a neurovascular structure in the quadrilateral space is suspected. What are the correct borders of this anatomic space?