5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 24-year-old male presents with medial joint line knee pain. The examiner has the patient stand on the affected leg flexed to 20 degrees, and the patient twists their body internally and externally. This maneuver (Thessaly test) is primarily utilized to diagnose injury to which structure?

A baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain. The examiner flexes the shoulder to 90 degrees, adducts it 10 degrees, and maximally internally rotates the arm, asking the patient to resist downward pressure. Pain is elicited but relieved when the arm is externally rotated and tested again. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient complains of anterior shoulder pain. The examiner asks the patient to flex the elbow to 90 degrees with the forearm pronated. The examiner then resists the patient's active attempt to supinate the forearm and externally rotate the humerus. Pain in the bicipital groove indicates pathology of which structure?

A patient is evaluated for shoulder pain. The examiner elevates the arm to 90 degrees in the scapular plane and maximally internally rotates the arm so the thumb points downward. The examiner applies downward pressure. Weakness compared to the contralateral side is primarily indicative of pathology in which muscle?

A 20-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone defect comprising 25% of the glenoid width. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to restore stability?

A 32-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after an epileptic seizure. A CT scan confirms a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to prevent recurrent instability?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the coracoid transfer and fixation?

A 55-year-old female undergoes arthroscopy for a symptomatic medial meniscal posterior root tear. Biomechanically, an unrepaired complete medial meniscus root tear alters knee joint contact pressures most similarly to which of the following states?

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a twisting knee injury. On examination, a Dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This isolated finding indicates an injury to which structure(s)?

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

Female athletes face a higher incidence of noncontact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears compared to their male counterparts. Which of the following anatomical or biomechanical factors is recognized as increasing the risk of ACL injury in female athletes?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with chronic shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals a Partial Articular-Sided Supraspinatus Tendon Avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Nonoperative management has failed. Intraoperatively, the tear is assessed to involve 60% of the normal footprint depth. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a non-contact twisting injury to his left knee. Radiographs in the emergency department reveal an avulsion fracture of the lateral aspect of the proximal tibia (Segond fracture). In addition to an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture, which of the following capsuloligamentous structures is specifically avulsed to create this fracture?

During arthroscopic stabilization for a 20-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon visualizes an anterior capsulolabral injury. The labrum and the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) are stripped off the glenoid and medially displaced along the scapular neck, but the anterior periosteal sleeve remains intact. This lesion is most accurately classified as which of the following?

A 35-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute closed Achilles tendon rupture. He discusses treatment options and ultimately elects for non-operative management utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol. Based on modern randomized controlled trials, how do the outcomes of this non-operative approach compare to surgical repair?

In the surgical management of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what is the primary biomechanical objective of the arthroscopic Remplissage procedure?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a positive apprehension test that is relieved by a relocation maneuver. MRI arthrogram is likely to show a SLAP tear along with what other pathology?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Exam reveals isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Supraspinatus strength is normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 68-year-old male presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder. MRI shows a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. Which of the following MRI findings is the strongest predictor of an irreparable tear?